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HEMATOLOGY 1 > HEMATOPOIESIS & ERYTHROPOIESIS > Flashcards

HEMATOPOIESIS & ERYTHROPOIESIS Flashcards

1
Q

Classical marker of hematopoietic stem cells

A

CD4

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2
Q

Hematopoiesis considered to start around the ____ after fertilization

A

19th day of the embryonic development

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3
Q

This theory suggests that each of the blood cell linages is derived from its OWN UNIQUE stem cell

A

Polyphyletic theory

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4
Q

Suggests that each of the blood cells are derived from a SINGLE PROGENITOR stem cell called a PLURIPOTENT stem cell

A

Monophyletic theory

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5
Q

Most widely accepted theory among experimental hematologists

A

Monophyletic theory

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6
Q

3 phases of hematopoiesis

A

Mesoblastic/megaloblastic
Hepatic
Intramedullary/medullary/myeloid

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7
Q

Chief site of hematopoiesis in mesoblastic/megaloblastic phase

A

Yolk sac

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8
Q

Chief site of hematopoiesis in hepatic phase

A

Fetal liver

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9
Q

Chief site of hematopoiesis in intramedullary/medullary/myeloid phase

A

Bone marrow

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10
Q

1st blood cells in mesoblastic phase

A

Primitive erythroblasts

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11
Q

Important in early embryogenesis to produce hemoglobin (Gower-1, Gower-2 and Portland) necessary for delivery of oxygen to the embryonic tissues

A

Primitive erythroblasts

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12
Q

It differs from hematopoiesis that occurs later (fetal and adult stage) in that it occurs intravascularly

A

Yolk sac hematopoiesis

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13
Q

Predominant hemoglobin in hepatic phase

A

Fetal hemoglobin Hb F

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14
Q

First fully developed organ in the fetus

A

Thymus

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15
Q

Major site of T cell production

A

Thymus

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16
Q

Produces B cells

A

Kidneys and spleen

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17
Q

Hematopoiesis in intramedullary phase starts in the bone marrow cavity before the ____

A

5th month of fetal development

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18
Q

This becomes the chief site of hematopoiesis by the end of the 24 weeks gestation

A

Bone marrow

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19
Q

Hematopoietic tissues of adult are located NOT ONLY in the bone marrow but also in the ____, ____, ____, and ____

A

Lymph nodes
Spleen
Thymus
Liver

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20
Q

Contains developing erythroid, myeloid, lymphoid, and megakaryocytic

A

Bone marrow

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21
Q

Considered to be a primary lymphoid organ with functions equivalent to that of Bursa of Fabricius

A

Bone marrow

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22
Q

Process of replacing red marrow by yellow marrow during development

A

Retrogression

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23
Q

Between _ and _ years of age, adipocytes become more abundant and start to occupy the spaces in the long bone previously dominated by active marrow

A

5 and 7 years of age

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24
Q

Red marrow in the adult are restricted to the

A

Ribs
Sternum, skull, and shoulder blades
Vertebrae
Pelvis and proximal ends of the long bone marrow cavity

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25
Q

Has the ability to revert back to active marrow in cases of increased demand on the bone marrow

A

Yellow marrow

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26
Q

Hematopoietically active marrrow

A

Red marrow

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27
Q

Hematopoietic inactive marrow composed primarily of fat cells

A

Yellow marrow

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28
Q

Primary lymphoid organs

A

Bone marrow and thymus

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29
Q

Major secondary lymphoid organs

A

Spleen and lymph nodes

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30
Q

T and B lymphocytes are derived from

A

Primary lymphoid organs

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31
Q

Main sites of production of antibodies and the induction of antigen-specific T lymphocytes

A

Secondary lymphoid organs

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32
Q

Trapping and concentration of foreign substances what lymphoid organ

A

Secondary lymphoid organ

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33
Q

Largest of the secondary lymphoid organs

A

Spleen

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34
Q

Major organ in the body in which antibodies are synthesized and from which they are released into the circulation.

A

Spleen

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35
Q

Splenectomy in children often leads to an increased incidence of

A

Bacterial sepsis caused primarily by S.pneumoniae, N. Meningitis is, and H. Influenzae

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36
Q

Effect of splenectomy in adults

A

Less adverse effect, may also lead to some increase in blood borne bacterial infections or bacteremia

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37
Q

An secondary lymphoid organ that is small ovoid, bean shaped structures (normally <1 cm in diameter) found in different areas throughout the body

A

Lymph nodes

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38
Q

Minor secondary lymphoid organs

A

Tonsils
Peyer’s patches
MALT

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39
Q

A minor secondary lymphoid organ that detects. And responds to antigens in the respiratory and alimentary secretions

A

Tonsils

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40
Q

Clusters of lymphocytes distributed in the lining of the small intestine

A

Peyer’s patches

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41
Q

A minor secondary lymphoid organ that detects substances that diffuse across the intestinal epithelium

A

Peyer’s patches

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42
Q

A minor secondary lymphoid organ which is the general term for the encapsulated lymphoid tissues present in regions underlying the mucosal areas

A

MALT (mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue)

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43
Q

An organ that can maintain hematopoietic stem cells and progenitor cells to generate various blood cells (extramedullary hematopoiesis) as a response to infectious agents in pathologic myelofibrosis of the bone marrow

A

LIVER

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44
Q

Preferred sites for bone marrow aspiration in ADULTS

A

Posterior and anterior superior iliac crest

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45
Q

Preferred sites for BM aspiration in children (<2 yrs old)

A

Anterior medial surface of the tibia

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46
Q

Bone marrow collection sites

A

Posterior and anterior superior iliac crest
Sternum
Anterior medial surface of the tibia
Spinous process of the vertebrae, ribs, or other red marrow-containing bone

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47
Q

Bone marrow smears retention

A

10 years

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48
Q

In leukemia the M:E ratio is

A

10:1

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49
Q

Normal M:E ratio caries from roughly _____ to _____

A

1.5:1 to 3.3:1

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50
Q

Extramedullary hematopoiesis mainly happens in the ____ and ——

A

Liver and spleen

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51
Q

Total mass of RBCs circulating in the peripheral blood and the bone marrow RBC precursors

A

Erythron

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52
Q

Dynamics of RBC creation and destruction

A

Erythrokineticss

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53
Q

Causes macrocytic and normochromic anemia

A

Vit B12 deficiency
Folate deficiency

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54
Q

Causes microcytic and hypochromic anemia

A

Thalassemia
Sideroblastic anemia
Iron deficiency

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55
Q

Causes normocytic normochromic anemia

A

Renal disease
Acute leukemia

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56
Q

Vitamin b12 deficiency
Folate deficiency
Thalassemia
Sideroblastic anemia

These are examples of ?

A

Ineffective erythropoiesis

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57
Q

Iron deficiency
Renal disease
Acute leukemia

These are examples of ?

A

Insufficient erythropoiesis

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58
Q

Immature hematopoietic cell that is committed to a cell line but CANNOT BE IDENTIFIED morphologically

A

Progenitor cells

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59
Q

Immature hematopoietic cell that is morphologically IDENTIFIABLE as belonging to a given cell line

A

Precursor cells

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60
Q

Earliest marker of erythroid differentiation

A

CD71

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61
Q

Transferrin receptor

A

CD71

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62
Q

RBC survival can be determined by extracting a blood sample, labeling the RBCs with ________,

A

Chromium-15

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63
Q

Chief stimulatory cytokine for RBCs

A

EPO

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64
Q

Major hormone that stimulates the production of erythrocytes

A

EPO

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65
Q

Thermostable, nondialyzable, glycoprotein hormone

A

EPO

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66
Q

Primary cell source of EPO

A

Peritubular insterstitial cell (KIDNEYS)

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67
Q

Primary target cells of EPO

A

BFU-E
CFU-E

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68
Q

Normally EPOP is released from the kidney into the blood in response to

A

Hypoxia

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69
Q

It has a therapeutic application in anemia in HIV infection to permit use of zidovudine

70
Q

Some athletes illegally use EPO injections to increase the oxygen-carrying capacity of their blood

A

BLOOD DOPING

71
Q

A hormone produced the pituitary gland that stimulates eythropoiesis

A

Growth hormone
Prolactin

72
Q

Hormone that stimulates erythropoiesis

A

Growth hormone
Testosterone
Prolactin

73
Q

Produced by the ovaries that inhibits erythropoiesis

74
Q

The earliest committed progenitor

75
Q

The 2 committed ERYTHROID PROGENITOR CELLS

A

BFU-E
CFU-E

76
Q

Duration of maturation :

from BFU-E to CFU-E
From CFU-E to rubriblast

77
Q

Duration of maturation : BFU-E to mature erythrocyte

A

18-21 days

78
Q

Approximately, ___ days are spent as recognizable precursors in the bone marrow

79
Q

Rubriblastic

A

Rubriblast
Prorubricyte
Rubricyte
Metarubricyte
Reticulocyte
Mature erythrocyte

80
Q

Normoblastic

A

Pro normoblast
Basophilic normoblast or early normoblast
Polychromatophilic normoblast or intermediate normoblast
Orthochromatic normoblast or late normoblast
Reticulocyte
Mature erythrocyte

81
Q

Erythroblastic Stages of RBC maturation

A

Pro erythroblast
Basophilic erythroblast or early erythroblast
Polychromatophilic erythroblast or intermediate erythroblast
Orthochromatic erythroblast or late erythroblast
Reticulocyte
Mature erythrocyte

82
Q

Supravital stains used for reticulocytes

A

Brilliant cresyl blue
New methylene blue

83
Q

what are retics called when found in a wrights stained smear

A

Polychromatophilic erythrocytes
Diffusely basophilic erythrocytes

84
Q

A morphologic feature used to identify and stage RBC and WBC precursors

85
Q

Nucleus is round or slightly oval, thin nuclear membrane, central or slightly eccentric

A

Rubriblast

86
Q

Cytoplasm is small in amount, dark blue

A

Rubriblast

87
Q

N:C ratio of rubriblast

A

4:1 or. 8:1

88
Q

Rubriblast gives rise to how many prorubricyte

A

2 prorubricytes

89
Q

Nucleoli of rubriblast

90
Q

Nucleolus of prorubricyte

91
Q

Cytoplasm is Deeper richer blue and appears more abundant than in normoblast because of smaller nucleus

A

Prorubricyte

92
Q

N:C ratio of prorubricyte

93
Q

The prorubricyte give rise to how many rubricyte

94
Q

Most helpful criteria in distinguishing the prorubricyte from rubriblast

A

Coarser chromatin
Absence of nucleoli

95
Q

Last stage with a nucleolus
1st stage of hemoglobin synthesis

A

Prorubricyte

96
Q

No nucleus with gray cytoplasm

97
Q

Rubricyte N:C ratio

98
Q

Each of these Rubricytes gives rise to how many metarubricyte

99
Q

Last stage capable of mitosis

100
Q

1st stage in which cytoplasm is pink

101
Q

Checkerboard nucleus

102
Q

Muddy gray cytoplasm

103
Q

Crushed velvet nucleus

A

Lymphocytes

104
Q

Sky blue or robin egg cytoplasm

A

Lymphocyte

105
Q

N:C ratio of metarubricyte

106
Q

Nucleus is extruded at this stage and the cell becomes a Reticulocyte

A

Metarubricyte

107
Q

Also called as nucleated rbcs, pyknotic erythroblast, acidophilic normoblast

A

Metarubricyte

108
Q

Last stage with a nucleus

A

Metarubricyte

109
Q

Enveloped extruded nucleus

A

Pyrenocyte

110
Q

Engulfed by bone marrow macrophages

A

Pyrenocyte

111
Q

Frequently, small fragments of the nucleus are left behind if the projection is pinched off before the entire nucleus is enveloped

A

Pyrenocyte

112
Q

Fragments seen in RBC in circulation (Pyrenocyte)

A

Howell-Jolly bodies

113
Q

Howell jolly bodies are typically removed form the RBCs by the splenic macrophage _______ once they the circulation

A

Pitting process

114
Q

Predominant color of cytoplasm of Reticulocyte is that of _________ but with bluish tinge because of some ____ and ____

A

hemoglobin ; residual ribosomes & RNA

115
Q

By the end of this stage, the cell is salmon pink

116
Q

Last stage of hemoglobin synthesis

117
Q

Retics spend how many days in the bone marrow

118
Q

How many days do retics stay in the peripheral blood before maturing into rbc

119
Q

Shape of retics in electron micrograph

120
Q

Rbc cytoplasm is salmon pink with central pallor occupying ___ of the cells diameter

121
Q

Rbc thickness

A

1.5 to 2.5 micrometer

122
Q

Number of erythrocytes produced from each rubriblast

123
Q

Normal ratio of rbcs to WBCs is

124
Q

Normal ratio of rbcs to plts

125
Q

Rbc membrane constituents

A

8% Cho
49 % lipids
52% proteins

126
Q

Channel ions, water, and glucose and anchor cell membrane receptors

A

Transmembrane proteins

127
Q

Also provide the vertical support connecting the lipid bilayer to the underlying cytoskeleton to maintain membrane integrity

A

Transmembrane protein

128
Q

A transmembrane protein that transports water

A

Aquaporin-1

129
Q

Transmembrane protein that transports anion, supports ABH antigens

130
Q

Calcium ion transporter

A

Ca2+ ATPase

131
Q

Glucose transporter, supports ABH antigens

132
Q

Transports negatively charged sialic acid, supports determinants

A

Glycoprotein A

133
Q

Transports negatively charged sialic acid, supports Ss determinants

A

Glycoprotein B

134
Q

Transports negatively charged sialic acid, supports GerbiCh system determinants

A

Glycophorin C

135
Q

Integrin adhesion

136
Q

Zinc binding endopeptidase,

137
Q

Urea transporter

138
Q

D and CcEe antigens

139
Q

Necessary for expression of D and CcEe antigens ; gas transporter CO2

140
Q

Provide the horizontal or the lateral support for the membrane

A

Skeletal proteins

141
Q

Primary cytoskeletal proteins

A

Alpha and beta spectrin

142
Q

Caps actin filament

143
Q

Anchors band 3 and protein 4.2

144
Q

Actin bundling protein

145
Q

Bind beta spectrin

146
Q

Anchors 4.1 complex

A

Protein 4.1

147
Q

Anchors ankyrin complex

A

Protein 4.2

148
Q

Caps actin filament

A

Tropomodulin

149
Q

Regulates actin polymerization

A

Tropomyosin

150
Q

Defect in proteins that disturb VERTICAL membrane interactions between transmembrane proteins and underlying cytoskeleton; loss of membrane and decreased surface area to volume ratio

A

Hereditary spherocytosis

151
Q

MCHC of a patient with hereditary spherocytosis

A

Increased (35 and 38 g/dL)

152
Q

An organ with caustic environment for spherocytes with its low pH, low ATP, and low glucose

153
Q

A flow cytometry based test which is sensitive and specific test to confirm the diagnosis of HS

A

EMA BINDING TEST

154
Q

A flow cytometry based test which is sensitive and specific test to confirm the diagnosis of HS

A

EMA BINDING TEST

155
Q

Defect in proteins that disrupt the HORIZONTAL linkages in the protein cytoskeleton ; loss of mechanical stability of membrane

A

Hereditary elliptocytosis

156
Q

Severe defect in spectrin that disrupts HORIZONTAL linkages in protein cytoskeleton ; severe RBC fragmentation

A

Hereditary pyropoikilocytosis

157
Q

A rare subtype of hereditary elliptocytosis

A

Hereditary pyropoikilocytosis

158
Q

Defect in band 3 causing increased membrane rigidity ;resistant to malaria ; prevalent in some areas of Southeast Asia

A

Hereditary ovalocytosis

159
Q

Increased membrane permeability to sodium and potassium

A

Overhydrated hereditary stomatocytosis

160
Q

Increased intracellular sodium causing influx of water, increase in cell volume, decreased cytoplasmic viscosity

A

Overhydrated hereditary stomatocytosis

161
Q

Defecient in Rh-associated protein

A

Overhydrated hereditary stomatocytosis

162
Q

Deficient in Piezo-type mechanosensitive ion channel component 1

A

Dehydrated hereditary stomatocytosis

163
Q

Increased membrane permeability to potassium ; decreased intracellular potassium resulting in loss of water from cell , decreased in cell volume and increased cytoplasmic viscosity

A

Dehydrated hereditary stomatocytosis

164
Q

Rbcs with “puddled” hemoglobin at periphery and desiccated cells with spicules

A

Dehydrated hereditary stomatocytosis

165
Q

Target cells, burr cells, and stomatocytes (<10%) are seen in

A

Dehydrated hereditary spherocytosis

166
Q

Stomatocytes (5-50%) and macrocytes are seen

A

Dehydrated hereditary stomatocytosis

167
Q

“Hereditary xerocytosis ”

A

Dehydrated hereditary stomatocytosis

168
Q

Most common form of stomatocytosis

A

Dehydrated hereditary stomatocytosis

169
Q

The only autosomal recessive rbc membrane defect

A

Hereditary pyropoikilocytosis

170
Q

The only autosomal recessive rbc membrane defect

A

Hereditary pyropoikilocytosis

HEMATOLOGY 1 (8 decks)

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