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HEMA > HEMA BY SIR DINGLASAN > Flashcards

HEMA BY SIR DINGLASAN Flashcards

1
Q

In which of the following kinds of hemoglobin will one be able to find both the alpha and beta globin chains?
1.) Hemoglobin A
2.) Hemoglobin S
3.) Hemoglobin E
4.) Hemoglobin F

a. 1, 2, and 3
b. 1, 2, 3, and 4
c. 2 and 4
d. 1 and 3

A

1, 2, and 3

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2
Q

Which of the findings below will be helpful in differentiating folate deficiency from vitamin B12 deficiency?
1. Hypersegmented neutrophils
2. Anisocytosis
3. Hemoglobin level
4. Mean cell volume (MCV)
5. holoTC assay

a. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5
b. 1, 2, 3, and 4
c. 3 and 5
d. 5 only

A

5 only

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3
Q

A blood smear is viewed through the microscope. In there, the erythrocytes appear redder than
normal, the neutrophils are barely visible, and the eosinophils are bright orange. What is the most probable cause?

a. The slide was not stained.
b. The stain was too alkaline.
c. The slide was not rinsed sufficiently.
d. The buffer was too acidic.

A

The buffer was too acidic.

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4
Q

Of the following tests listed below, which one must be drawn first?

a. ASAP
b. STAT
c. Timed
d. Fasting

A

STAT

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5
Q

All of the statements below are true for Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia, except:

a. Abnormal clot retraction
b. Normal bleeding time result
c. Abnormal aggregation response in adrenaline.
d. Abnormal aggregation response in collagen.

A

Normal bleeding time result

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6
Q

All of these are reagents used in platelet aggregometry, except:
a. Adrenaline
b. Collagen
c. Magnesium
d. ADP

A

Magnesium

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7
Q

From the choices below, select the ones that may be found in the alpha granules.
1. Plasminogen
2. Platelet-derived growth factor
3. Albumin
4. Protein C inhibitor

a. 1 and 4
b. 2 and 3
c. 1,2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 3

A

1,2, 3 and 4

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8
Q

Identify from the choices below the recognized kinds of eosinophil granules.
1.) Storage vesicles
2.) Azure dust
3.) Lipid bodies
4.) Gelatinase granules

a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 4
c. 1, 2, 3, and 4
d. 2 and 3

A

1 and 3

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9
Q

The patient’s plasma demonstrates normal PT result and a prolonged APTT result. In the laboratory, the
Substitution Test was performed and gave the following results:

*Patient’s plasma mixed with Fresh Plasma: CORRECTED

*Patient’s plasma mixed with Aged Plasma: CORRRECTED

*Patient’s plasma mixed with Aged Serum: CORRECTED

*Patient’s plasma mixed with Adsorbed Plasma: CORRECTED

Most probably, what is the condition of the patient?

a. Hemophilia A
b. Owren’s disease
c. Factor VII deficiency
d. Either factor XI deficiency or factor XII deficiency

A

Either factor XI deficiency or factor XII deficiency

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10
Q

The definitive histologic characteristic of Hodgkin’s Lymphoma is:

a. Auer rods
b. Dohle bodies
c. Flame cell
d. Reed-Sternberg cell

A

Reed-Sternberg cell

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11
Q

All of the following statements refer to the characteristics of a plasma cell, except:

a. It has a deep blue and nongranular cytoplasm
b. It has an eccentric nucleus surrounded by a perinuclear clear zone.
c. The nucleus contains blocks of chromatin in a cartwheel configuration.
d. The voluminous cytoplasm contains vacuoles.

A

The voluminous cytoplasm contains vacuoles.

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12
Q

Hypersegmented neutrophils may be observed in all of the following cases, except:
1.) Folate deficiency
2.) Myelokathexis
3.) Pernicious Anemia
4.) Pelger-Huet Anomaly

a. 1,2, and 3
b. 1 and 2
c. 3 and 4
d. 4 only

A

4 only

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13
Q

In the blood smear of a patient suffering from megaloblastic anemia, the erythrocyte abnormalities that
would be observed include:
1.) Basophilic stipplings
2.) Hypersegmented neutrophils
3.) Howell-Jolly bodies
4.) Hyposegmented neutrophils

a. 1,2, and 3
b. 1 and 3
c. 3 only
d. 2 and 3

A

1 and 3

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14
Q

Hemoglobin Bart is an abnormal hemoglobin composed of:

a. Four beta globin chains
b. 2 alpha globin chains and 2 beta globin chains c. Four gamma globin chains
d. 2 alpha globin chains and 2 gamma globin chains

A

Four gamma globin chains

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15
Q

Which of the following laboratory results may be expected from a patient with hereditary spherocytosis?

a. Direct AHG test: negative
b. Mean Cell Hemoglobin Concentration: slightly decreased
c. EMA binding test: increased fluorescence
d. Osmotic Fragility Test: decreased osmotic fragility

A

Direct AHG test: negative

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16
Q

Cyclooxygenase is an enzyme that can be found in the:
1.) Primary granules of the neutrophils
2.) Lipid bodies of the eosinophils
3.) Dense tubular system (DTS) of the thrombocytes

a. 3 only
b. 1 and 2
c. 1, 2, and 3
d. 2 and 3

A

2 and 3

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17
Q

Which of the following may cause a falsely elevated hemoglobin value?

a. Presence of lysis-resistant RBCs with abnormal hemoglobins
b. High leukocyte count (greater than 20,000/μL)
c. High platelet count (greater than 700 x 109
/L)
d. All of these choices

A

All of these choices

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18
Q

One of the more severe signs of iron deficiency is pica. This term is defined as:

a. The craving for sweetened food items.
b. The spooning of the fingernails
c. Severe memory loss.
d. The craving for nonfood items.

A

The craving for nonfood items.

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19
Q

Which of the following is described to be a thrombin cofactor?

a. Thrombomodulin
b. GP Ib/IX/V
c. GP VI
d. GP IIb/IIIa

A

Thrombomodulin

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20
Q

In which red cell precursor does hemoglobin formation begin?

a. 1st precursor
b. 2nd precursor
c. 3rd precursor
d. 4th precursor

A

2nd precursor

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21
Q

Cold temperature (1 to 6 C) storage of the specimen can cause the activation of:

a. Thrombocytes
b. Stable factor
c. Factor IX
d. All of these

A

Stable factor

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22
Q

The PT and APTT will be prolonged when the fibrinogen concentration is:

a. >200 mg/dL
b. >400 mg/dL
c. <100 mg/dL
d. None of these

A

<100 mg/dL

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23
Q

In the deficiency of Stuart-Prower factor, a prolonged PT or APTT is corrected by the addition of:
1. Aged plasma
2. Aged serum
3. Adsorbed plasma
4. Fresh plasma

a. 1 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 4 only
d. 1, 2, and 4

A

1, 2, and 4

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24
Q

In the deficiency of Prothrombin factor, a prolonged PT or APTT is corrected by the addition of:
1. Aged plasma
2. Aged serum
3. Adsorbed plasma
4. Fresh plasma

a. 1 and 4
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1, 2, and 4

A

1 and 4

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25
Q

Which of the following may be used for detecting Factor XIII deficiency?

a. 9% sucrose
b. 5M Urea
c. 5% NaCl
d. 1% ammonium oxalate

A

5M Urea

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26
Q

In the granulocytic series of maturation, what is the last stage to undergo mitosis?
a. 1st precursor
b. 2nd precursor
c. 3rd precursor
d. 4th precursor

A

3rd precursor

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27
Q

The reversal of UFH (unfractionated heparin) overdose is done using protamine sulfate. It is described as
a cationic protein extracted from:

a. Porcine mucosa
b. Salmon sperm
c. Moldy sweet clover
d. Green tea

A

Salmon sperm

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28
Q

The most common inherited hematological disease affecting humans is:
a. Sickle cell trait
b. Sickle cell anemia
c. Hereditary spherocytosis
d. Hermansky-Pudlak

A

Sickle cell anemia

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29
Q

Which of the following is considered as the storage site for vWF in the blood vessels?

a. Platelet alpha granules
b. Weibel-Palade bodies
c. Platelet dense granules d. None of these

A

Weibel-Palade bodies

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30
Q

While trying to determine the patient’s leukocyte differential count, you were able to observe 32 nucleated red cells in the blood film. If the patient’s initial WBC count is 47,221/µL, the corrected WBC count will be:

a. 35,700/uL
b. 35, 800/uL
c. 35,000/uL
d. 15, 110/uL

A

35, 800/uL

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31
Q

Which of the following stains may be used in order to demonstrate Howell-Jolly bodies in a blood smear?
1. Wright stain
2. Supravital stain
3. Feulgen reaction

a. 2 and 3
b. 3 only
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1 and 3

A

1, 2 and 3

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32
Q

The cases that follow are all characterized as lacking intrinsic factor, except:
1.) Pernicious anemia
2.) Chronic alcoholism
3.) H. pylori infection
4.) Thalassemia
5.) Gastrectomy
6.) Myelodysplastic syndrome

a. 1, 3, and 5
b. 2, 4 and 6
c. 2 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6

A

2, 4 and 6

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33
Q

All of these statements are true for the eosinophils, except:

a. It stores and transports plasminogen.
b. Moderate to severe eosinophilia is observed in helminthic infections.
c. It is classified as a phagocyte.
d. It is responsible for producing transcobalamin.

A

It is responsible for producing transcobalamin.

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34
Q

It is almost 1:00 in the morning when you arrived at the patient’s room and he is already deeply asleep. You need to draw a timed blood specimen from him. How must you proceed?

a. Do not wake him up and proceed with the blood collection quietly.
b. Softly wake the patient up before proceeding with the blood collection.
c. Make a loud noise while calling out the patient’s name.
d. Inform the physician or the nurse that you will come back later when the patient is already awake.

A

Softly wake the patient up before proceeding with the blood collection.

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35
Q

This is the coefficient of variation of RBC volume expressed as a percentage:

a. Mean cell volume
b. RBC histogram
c. Red cell distribution width
d. Reticulocyte count

A

Red cell distribution width

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36
Q

The typical laboratory results seen in cases of iron deficiency anemia include all of the following, except:
1.) High RDW
2.) Low MCV
3.) Decreased serum iron

a. 3 only
b. 2 and 3
c. 2 only
d. None of the choices

A

None of the choices

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37
Q

Compute for the MCH given the following data:
RBC count = 4.53 X 10(raised to the twelfth power per liter)
Hct = 32%
Hb = 8.7 g/dL

a. 19.21 pg
b. 192.05 pg
c. 2.72 pg
d. 27.19 pg

A

19.21 pg

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38
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding megaloblastic anemia?
1.) It can be considered a case of hemolytic anemia.
2.) It can be considered a case of nutritional anemia.
3.) It is expected to show hypersegmented neutrophils in the blood films of affected patients.
4.) It may be caused by an autoimmune disease .

a. 2, 3, and 4
b. 3 and 4
c. 1, 2, 3, and 4
d. 3 only

A

1, 2, 3, and 4

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39
Q

Which of the following enzymes regulates the size of circulating VWF by cleaving ultra-long VWF multimers
(ULVWF) into shorter segments?

a. Fibrinolysin
b. TAFI
c. ADAMTS-13
d. Plasmin

A

ADAMTS-13

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40
Q

Dark blue-purple punctate granules that are distributed throughout the RBC cytoplasm appeared in the blood smear of a patient poisoned by lead. The described granules in this case are actually made of:

a. Iron
b. Beta globin chains of hemoglobin
c. DNA
d. RNA

A

RNA

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41
Q

To calculate the reticulocyte production index, the formula that one should use is:

a. Reticulocyte count (%) divided by 100, then multiply the result by the RBC count
b. Corrected reticulocyte count divided by the maturation time
c. Hematocrit (%) multiplied by 10, then divide the result by the RBC count
d. Hemoglobin (g/dL) multiplied by 100, then divide the result by the patient’s hematocrit (%)

A

Corrected reticulocyte count divided by the maturation time

42
Q

Which of the following descriptions is/are true for the fibrinogen group of coagulation factors?
1. Present in serum
2. NOT vitamin K dependent
3. Adsorbed by barium sulfate
4. Acute phase reactants

a. 1 and 3
b. 1 ,2, and 3
c. 2 and 4
d. 2 only

A

2 and 4

43
Q

The two parameters that are calculated from the RBC histogram are the:

a. RDW and MCH
b. RDW and MCV
c. HCT and MCV
d. HCT and MCH

A

RDW and MCV

44
Q

Which of the following pairs below is properly matched with each other?
1.) Methemoglobin reductase: cytochrome b5 reductase
2.) Enolase: phosphopyruvate hydratase
3.) Pentose phosphate shunt: hexose monophosphate pathway
4.) 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate: glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate

a. 4 only
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1 and 3
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

1, 2, and 3

45
Q

Which of the following observations may be seen in a patient suffering from severe anemia?
1.) Hemoglobin concentration between 7 and 10 g/dL
2.) Vertigo
3.) Dyspnea
4.) Muscle weakness
5.) Tachycardia

a. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5
b. 1, 3, and 5
c. 2, 3, 4, and 5
d. 1, 2 and 3

A

2, 3, 4, and 5

46
Q

In the blood smear of a patient that has megaloblastic anemia, the erythrocyte abnormalities that would be
observed include:
1.) Basophilic stippling
2.) Howell-Jolly bodies
3.) Dacryocytes neutrophils
4.) Schistocytes
5.) Cabot rings
6.) Oval macrocytes
7.) Hypersegmented
8.) Hyposegmented neutrophils

a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6
b. 2, 3, 5, and 6
b. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
d. 2, 3, 5, 6, and 8

A

1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6

47
Q

Which of the statements below is/are true for the fourth RBC precursor?
1.) It is the last immature red cell stage.
2.) It is the last stage capable of hemoglobin synthesis.
3.) It has the smallest nucleus among the immature red cells.
4.) Its cytoplasm is acidophilic.

a. 1, 2, 3, and 4
b. 1 and 2
c. 3 and 4
d. 3 only

A

3 and 4

48
Q

Microcytic red cells may be observed in all of the following conditions, except:
1. Sideroblastic anemia
2. Thalassemia
3. Iron deficiency
4. Anemia of chronic inflammation
5. Folate deficiency

a. 1, 2, 3, and 4
b. 5 only
c. 1, 3, and 5
d. 4 and 5

A

5 only

49
Q

Which of the following foods below will provide folate?
1. Leafy green vegetables
2. Dried beans
3. Oranges
4. Liver
5. Beef

a. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5
b. 1, 2, and 4
c. 1 and 2
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

1, 2, 3, 4, and 5

50
Q

Upon activation, all of the following coagulation factors transform into a serine protease, except:
1. Prothrombin Group
2. Fibrinogen Group
3. Factors XI, XII and Prekallikrein
4. Fitzgerald factor

a. 4 only
b. 2 and 4
c. 1 and 3
d. 1,2,3 and 4

A

2 and 4

51
Q

The degradation of heme inside the macrophages will result in the production of:
1. Carbon monoxide
2. Iron
3. Unconjugated bilirubin

a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1, 2, and 3
d. None of these

A

1, 2, and 3

52
Q

What component of the coagulation cascade is a strong stimulus to the activation of the platelets?

a. Factor Va
b. Thrombin
c. Factor XIIIa
d. Prostacyclin

A

Thrombin

53
Q

Which of the following is described as an autosomal recessive disorder with oculocutaneous albinism and normal platelet count?

a. Hermansky-Pudlak
b. Chediak-Higashi
c. Wiskott-Aldrich
d. Thrombocytopenia with absent radius

A

Hermansky-Pudlak

54
Q

STATEMENT 1: Burr cells are commonly observed on the blood smears of pyruvate kinase deficiency patients.
STATEMENT 2: Heinz bodies are a finding in the blood smears of G6PD deficiency patients.

a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.
d. Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.

A

Both statements are true.

55
Q

Which of the following is true concerning the contents of the α-granule?

a. They participate in platelet adhesion.
b. They participate in platelet aggregation.
c. They support plasma coagulation.
d. All of these.

A

All of these.

56
Q

Which of the following precursors below is considered as the largest in the group?

a. Myeloblast
b. Myelocyte
c. Metamyelocyte
d. Promyelocyte

A

Promyelocyte

57
Q

The process of replacing red marrow by yellow marrow during development is called:

a. Apoptosis
b. Necrobiosis
c. Necrosis
d. Retrogression

A

Retrogression

58
Q

Which of the following is NOT a bone marrow collection site?

a. Iliac crest
b. Sternum
c. Tibia
d. None of these

A

None of these

59
Q

Which of the following properly describes a mature erythrocyte?
1. A cell with no nucleus.
2. A cell that continues to form hemoglobin.
3. A cell that has retained its capacity to divide.

a. 1 and 2
b. 1 only
c. 1,2, and 3
d. 2 only

A

1 only

60
Q

Which of the following cells may normally be found in the peripheral blood?
1. Promyelocytes
2. Band neutrophils
3. Mature neutrophils

a. 1, 2, and 3
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 only

A

2 and 3

61
Q

The calibrated Miller disk has two squares in it. What is the use of each of the squares?

a. Square A is used for counting reticulocytes; square B is used for counting red cells.
b. Square A is used for counting red cells; square B is used for counting reticulocytes.
c. Square A is used for counting metarubricytes; square B is used for counting reticulocytes.
d. Square A is used for counting reticulocytes; square B is used for counting metarubricytes.

A

Square A is used for counting reticulocytes; square B is used for counting red cells.

62
Q

Which of the following stains will be helpful in differentiating the subtypes of acute lymphocytic leukemias?
1. PAS
2. MGP
3. SBB
4. MPO

a. 1 and 2
b. 3 and 4
c. 1 and 3
d. 2 and 4

A

1 and 2

63
Q

Concerning the Smudge cells and Rieder cells, which of the statements below is true?
Statement 1: Both are examples of a lymphocyte.
Statement 2: Both are found in chronic lymphocytic leukemia.

A. Statement 1
B. Statement 2
C. Statements 1 and 2 are both true.
D. Statements 1 and 2 are both false

A

Statements 1 and 2 are both true.

64
Q

Which of the following types of acute leukemia will most likely develop DIC?
a. AML M1
b. AML M3
c. AML M4
d. AML M5

A

AML M3

65
Q

Statement 1: The cytoplasm of the promyelocyte is filled with primary granules.
Statement 2: The “hof” is usually absent in normal promyelocytes.

a. Both statements are correct.
b. Both statements are incorrect.
c. Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.
d. Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.

A

Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.

66
Q

The nuclei of the cells in the leukemia named APL, microgranular variant look like:
1.) Butterfly
2.) Tortoise shell
3.) Apple core
4.) Peanuts
5.) Bowtie

a. 1, 3, and 5
b. 2 and 4
c. 1 and 5
d. 2 only

A

1, 3, and 5

67
Q

Compute for the LAP score of a patient given the following data:
No. of Score
Neutrophils
88 0
8 1
4 2
0 3
0 4
Based on your computation, the LAP score of the patient is:

a. 24
b. 16
c. 8
d. 32

A

16

68
Q

Compute for the LAP score of a patient given the following data:
No. of Score
Neutrophils
31 0
24 1
20 2
13 3
12 4
Based on your computation, the LAP score of the patient is:

a. 242
b. 250
c. 161
d. 151

A

151

69
Q

The Philadelphia Chromosome is brought about by the reciprocal translocation involving the long arms of:

a. Chromosome 11 and 22
b. Chromosome 9 and 22 c. Chromosome 11 and 16
d. Chromosome 9 and 16

A

Chromosome 9 and 22

70
Q

The coagulation factors that function as cofactors include:
1.) Tissue thromboplastin
2.) Factor V
3.) Factor VIII
4.) Fitzgerald factor

a. 1,2, and 3
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3, and 4

A

1, 2, 3, and 4

71
Q

In which of the following cytochemical stains will the cells in the leukemia named Acute Myelomonocytic Leukemia produce a positive result?
1. Myeloperoxidase stain
2. Sudan Black B stain
3. Naphthol AS-D Chloroacetate

a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 only
d. 2 only

A

1, 2 and 3

72
Q

Neutrophils share a common progenitor with monocytes. This cell is called the:

a. Granulocyte-monocyte progenitor (GMP)
b. Common myeloid progenitor (CMP)
c. CFU-GEMM
d. Myeloblast

A

Granulocyte-monocyte progenitor (GMP)

73
Q

The Hemoglobin S and the Hemoglobin D can be distinguished from one another by which test?

a. Autohemolysis test
b. Hemoglobin electrophoresis at pH 8.6 c. Acid serum test
d. Solubility test

A

Solubility test

74
Q

The bones that participate in adult hematopoiesis include all of these, except:

a. Tibia
b. Ribs
c. Sternum
d. Proximal ends of the long bones

A

Tibia

75
Q

Plasminogen, a plasma zymogen produced by the liver, is stored and transported in:

a. Neutrophils
b. Lymphocytes
c. Monocytes
d. Eosinophils

A

Eosinophils

76
Q

Degmacytes are often seen in patients with:

a. Rh deficiency syndrome
b. Chronic Granulomatous Disease
c. G6PD deficiency
d. PK deficiency

A

G6PD deficiency

77
Q

The sites of maximal iron absorption are:

a. Stomach
b. Skin
c. Ileum
d. Duodenum and upper jejunum

A

Duodenum and upper jejunum

78
Q

Upon activation, all of the following coagulation factors transform into a serine protease, except:
1. Prothrombin Group
2. Fibrinogen Group
3. Factors XI, XII and Prekallikrein
4. Fitzgerald factor

a. 4 only
b. 2 and 4
c. 1 and 3
d. 1,2,3 and 4

A

2 and 4

79
Q

In cold hemagglutinin disease, the macroscopic appearance of the patient’s blood film is:

a. Grainy
b. Filled with holes
c. Filled with blue specks
d. Filled with cracks

A

Grainy

80
Q

The thrombin-thrombomodulin complex is able to activate:

a. Factors V and VIII
b. Protein C
c. TAFI
d. Both B and C

A

Both B and C

81
Q

Through what manner will the LMWH be administered to patients?

a. Subcutaneous injection
b. Oral
c. Rectal
d. Either A or B

A

Subcutaneous injection

82
Q

The morphology of red cells that one would typically find in the blood smear of Sickle Cell Disease patients is:

a. Microcytic, hypochromic
b. Normocytic, normochromic
c. Macrocytic, normochromic
d. Any of these

A

Normocytic, normochromic

83
Q

Which of the following test results is expected on a patient with hypofibrinogenemia?

a. Thrombin time: Prolonged, Reptilase time: Normal
b. Thrombin time: Prolonged, Reptilase time: Prolonged
c. Thrombin time: Normal, Reptilase time: Prolonged
d. Thrombin time: Normal, Reptilase time: Normal

A

Thrombin time: Prolonged, Reptilase time: Prolonged

84
Q

A falsely high WBC count may be observed in all of the following cases, except:

a. Leukoagglutination
b. Nucleated RBCs
c. Platelet clumps
d. Lysis-resistant RBCs with abnormal hemoglobins

A

Leukoagglutination

85
Q

One can expect an increased ESR result in all of the following conditions, except:
1. Rheumatic fever
2. Hereditary spherocytosis
3. Tuberculosis
4. Sickle cell anemia
5. Myocardial infarction

a. 1,2,3,4
b. 2, 3, and 4
c. 1, 3, and 5
d. 2 and 4

A

2 and 4

86
Q

Toxic granulations and Auer rods:
1.) Both may be seen in leukocytes with severe malignant disorders
2.) Both leukocytic inclusions are believed to be transformed azurophilic granules.

A. Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.
B. Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.
C. Statements 1 and 2 are both correct.
D. Statements 1 and 2 are both incorrect.

A

Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.

87
Q

May-Hegglin inclusions and Dohle bodies:
1.) Both of these inclusions are composed of RNA
2.) Both of these inclusions may be observed in neutrophils

A. Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.
B. Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.
C. Statements 1 and 2 are both correct.
D. Statements 1 and 2 are both incorrect.

A

Statements 1 and 2 are both correct.

88
Q

Pernicious Anemia and Pelger-Huet Anomaly:
1.) Both disorders affect the appearance of the neutrophil nucleus.
2.) The nuclei in both disorders have a characteristic “pince-nez” appearance.

A. Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.
B. Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.
C. Statements 1 and 2 are both correct.
D. Statements 1 and 2 are both incorrect.

A

Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.

89
Q

The rubricyte:
1.) Considered as the first stage in the RBC maturation stages to produce hemoglobin
2.) Considered as the last stage in the RBC maturation stages to bear a nucleus

A. Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.
B. Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.
C. Statements 1 and 2 are both correct.
D. Statements 1 and 2 are both incorrect.

A

Statements 1 and 2 are both incorrect.

90
Q

Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA):
1.) Present only in lavender top blood collection tubes
2.) May induce platelet clumping in some blood specimens

A. Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.
B. Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.
C. Statements 1 and 2 are both correct.
D. Statements 1 and 2 are both incorrect.

A

Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.

91
Q

All the statements below are true for peripheral blood and bone marrow specimens that are to be analyzed
using flow cytometry, EXCEPT:

a. These specimens must be processed within 24 to 48 hours from time of collection.
b. These specimens are collected into suitable containers with an anticoagulant (preferably EDTA)
c. These specimens must be transported to a flow cytometry laboratory at room temperature.
d. None of the above

A

These specimens are collected into suitable containers with an anticoagulant (preferably EDTA)

92
Q

What is the correct order of draw for the skin puncture procedure?

a. EDTA microcollection tube→Serum microcollection tube →Other microcollection tubes with
anticoagulants→Slides→Tube for blood gas analysis
b. Tube for blood gas analysis→Slides→ EDTA microcollection tube→ Other microcollection tubes with anticoagulants→ Serum microcollection tube
c. EDTA microcollection tube →Other microcollection tubes with anticoagulants →Serum
microcollection tube→ Slides→Tube for blood gas analysis
d. Tube for blood gas analysis → EDTA microcollection tube→ Other microcollection tubes with
anticoagulants→Serum microcollection tube →Slides

A

Tube for blood gas analysis→Slides→ EDTA microcollection tube→ Other microcollection tubes with anticoagulants→ Serum microcollection tube

93
Q

What is the mean plasma concentration of fibrinogen?

a. 8 to 10 mg/dL
b. 1 mg/dL
c. 200 to 400 mg/dL
d. 5 mg/dL

A

200 to 400 mg/dL

94
Q

A macrophage with an abnormal cytoplasm that looks like a crumpled tissue paper:

a. Gaucher cell
b. Pick cell
c. Pelger-Huet Cell
d. Basket cells

A

Gaucher cell

95
Q

The expected laboratory findings in hereditary spherocytosis would include:
1.) Normal to low MCV
2.) Slightly increased MCH
3.) Slightly increased MCHC

a. 1,2, and 3
b. 3 only
c. 1 and 3
d. 1 and 2

A

1 and 3

96
Q

Hydrops fetalis is associated with what type of alpha thalassemia?

a. (- - / - α)
b. (α α / - -)
c. (- - / - -)
d. (- α / α α)

A

(- - / - -)

97
Q

Which of the following substances is/are present in the test reagent in PT?
1. Calcium ions
2. Kaolin
3. Tissue thromboplastin
4. Celite

a. 3 only
b. 2 and 4
c. 1 and 3
d. 1, 2, 3, and 4

A

1 and 3

98
Q

The appropriate temperature to use for the storage of PT and PTT specimens in the laboratory is between:

a. 18 to 24 C
b. 1 to 6 C
c. 30 to 37 C
d. 40 to 42 C

A

18 to 24 C

99
Q

The ultrastructure of the platelets is being studied using:

a. Electron microscopy
b. Flow cytometry
c. Molecular sequencing
d. All of these

A

All of these

100
Q

Which of the choices below are classified as thrombocyte polar phospholipids?
1. Phosphatidylcholine
2. Phosphatidylinositol
3. Sphingomyelin
4. Phosphatidylethanolamine
5. Phosphatidylserine

a. 1 and 3
b. 2, 4, and 5
c. 1,3,5
d. 4 and 5

A

2, 4, and 5

HEMA (6 decks)

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