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HEMA > HEMA 1 QUIZ 1 > Flashcards

HEMA 1 QUIZ 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following organs is responsible for the “pitting process” for RBCs?

A. Liver
B. Spleen
C. Kidney
D. Lymph nodes

A

Spleen

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2
Q

In which of the following conditions will autosplenectomy most likely occur?

A. Thalassemia major
B. Hgb C disease
C. Hgb SC disease
D. Sickle cell disease

A

Sickle cell disease

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3
Q

Which of the following is the preferable site for bone marrow aspiration and biopsy in an adult?

A. Iliac crest
B. Sternum
C. Tibia
D. Spinous processes of a vertebra

A

Iliac crest

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4
Q

A Miller disk is an ocular device used to facilitate counting of:

A. Platelets
B. Reticulocytes
C. Sickle cells
D. Nucleated red blood cells (NRBCs)

A

Reticulocytes

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5
Q

What staining method is used most frequently to stain and manually count reticulocytes?

A. Immunofluorescence
B. Supravital staining
C. Romanowsky staining
D. Cytochemical staining

A

Supravital staining

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6
Q

What is the major type of leukocyte seen in the peripheral smear of a patient with aplastic anemia?

A. Segmented neutrophil
B. Lymphocyte
C. Monocyte
D. Eosinophil

A

Lymphocyte

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7
Q

Which is the first stage of erythrocytic maturation in which the cytoplasm is pink due to the formation of hemoglobin?

A. Reticulocyte
B. Pronormoblast
C. Basophilic normoblast
D. Polychromatic normoblast

A

Polychromatic normoblast

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8
Q

Which antibiotic(s) is (are) most often implicated in the development of aplastic anemia?

A. Sulfonamides
B. Penicillin
C. Tetracycline
D. Chloramphenicol

A

Chloramphenicol

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9
Q

Which of the following conditions may produce spherocytes in a peripheral smear?

A. Pelger–Huet anomaly
B. Pernicious anemia
C. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
D. Sideroblastic anemia

A

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

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10
Q

What red cell inclusion may be seen in the peripheral blood smear of a patient postsplenectomy?

A. Toxic granulation
B. Howell–Jolly bodies
C. Malarial parasites
D. Siderotic granules

A

Howell–Jolly bodies

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11
Q

Reticulocytosis usually indicates:

A. Response to inflammation
B. Neoplastic process
C. Aplastic anemia
D. Red cell regeneration

A

Red cell regeneration

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12
Q

Which morphological classification is characteristic of megaloblastic anemia?

A. Normocytic, normochromic
B. Microcytic, normochromic
C. Macrocytic, hypochromic
D. Macrocytic, normochromic

A

Macrocytic, normochromic

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13
Q

Which anemia is characterized by a lack of intrinsic factor that prevents B12 absorption?

A. Tropical sprue
B. Transcobalamin deficiency
C. Blind loop syndrome
D. Pernicious anemia

A

Pernicious anemia

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14
Q

All of the following are characteristics of megaloblastic anemia except:

A. Pancytopenia
B. Elevated reticulocyte count
C. Hypersegmented neutrophils
D. Macrocytic erythrocyte indices

A

Elevated reticulocyte count

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15
Q

A patient with a vitamin B12 anemia is given a high dosage of folate. Which of the following is expected as a result of this treatment?

A. An improvement in neurological problems
B. An improvement in hematological abnormalities
C. No expected improvement
D. Toxicity of the liver and kidneys

A

An improvement in hematological abnormalities

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16
Q

Which of the following disorders is associated with ineffective erythropoiesis?

A. G6PD deficiency
B. Liver disease
C. Hgb C disease
D. Megaloblastic anemia

A

Megaloblastic anemia

17
Q

The macrocytes typically seen in megaloblastic processes are:

A. Crescent-shaped
B. Teardrop-shaped
C. Ovalocytic
D. Pencil-shaped

A

Ovalocytic

18
Q

Which of the following are most characteristic of the red cell indices associated with megaloblastic anemias?

A. MCV 99 fl, MCH 28 pg, MCHC 31%
B. MCV 62 fL, MCH 27 pg, MCHC 30%
C. MCV 125 fL, MCH 36 pg, MCHC 34%
D. MCV 78 fL, MCH 23 pg, MCHC 30%

A

MCV 125 fL, MCH 36 pg, MCHC 34%

19
Q

A patient has 80 nucleated red blood cells per 100 leukocytes. In addition to increased polychromasiaon the peripheral smear, what other finding may be present on the CBC?

A. Increased platelets
B. Increased MCV
C. Increased Hct
D. Increased red blood cell count

A

Increased MCV

20
Q

PV is characterized by:

A. Increased plasma volume
B. Pancytopenia
C. Decreased oxygen saturation
D. Absolute increase in total red cell mass

A

Absolute increase in total red cell mass

21
Q

The erythrocytosis seen in relative polycythemia occurs because of

A. Decreased arterial oxygen saturation
B. Decreased plasma volume of circulating blood
C. Increased erythropoietin levels
D. Increased erythropoiesis in the bone marrow

A

Decreased plasma volume of circulating blood

Secondary or Absolute Polycythemia – Hypoxia (like Pneumonia, COPD, CHF)  Tataas ang EPO  Tataas ang RBC
relative polycythemia  Bumaba ang plasma volume/water (dehydration, burns, diarrhea) -> Magmumukhang mataas ang RBC

22
Q

What is the first type of cell produced by the developing embryo?

A. Erythrocyte
B. Granulocyte
C. Lymphocyte
D. Thrombocyte

A

Erythrocyte

*These primitive red cells produce embryonic hemoglobins that temporarily serve oxygen needs of the fetus

23
Q

Which of the following is not characteristic of pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells?

A. Possess self-renewal ability
B. Produce progenitor cells committed to a single cell lineage
C. Express the stem cell marker CD 13
D. Are morphologically unrecognizable

A

Express the stem cell marker CD 13

*Stem cells and progenitor cells cannot be morphologically distinguished (look similar to small lymphocytes) but can be identified phenotypically by markers such as the stem cell marker CD34

24
Q

In the third month of gestation, what is the primary site of hematopoiesis?

A. Liver
B. Marrow of long bones
C. Spleen
D. Yolk sac

A

Liver

*The liver of the fetus assumes responsibility for hematopoiesis about the second month of gestation

25
Q

The mechanism that relays information about tissue oxygen levels to erythropoietin- producing sites is located in the

A. Brain
B. Kidney
C. Liver
D. Spleen

A

Kidney

*EPO acts on RBC progenitor cells,
Production: 90% Kidneys, 10% liver

26
Q

What is the approximate total blood volume in an adult?

A. 1L
B. 2L
C. 6L
D. 12L

A

6L

27
Q

As most blood cell lines mature, which of the following is characteristic?

A. Cell diameter increases
B. Nucleus to cytoplasm ratio (N:C) decreases
C. Nuclear chromatin becomes less condensed
D. Basophilia of the cytoplasm increases

A

Nucleus to cytoplasm ratio (N:C) decreases

28
Q

Which of the following describes thrombopoietin (TPO)?

A. Renal hormone that regulates marrow red cell production
B. Marrow hormone secreted by developing megakaryoblasts
C. Hormone produced by the liver that stimulates megakaryopoiesis
D. Pituitary hormone that controls platelet sequestration by the spleen

A

Hormone produced by the liver that stimulates megakaryopoiesis

29
Q

When the hepatic phase of fetal life is reactivated in an adult, hematopoiesis can be termed

A. Myeloid or medullary
B. Myeloid metaplasia or extramedullary
C. Myelophthisis or myelodysplasia
D. Mesoblastic or mesenchymal

A

Myeloid metaplasia or extramedullary

*Hematopoiesis that occurs in the liver and spleen (reactivation of fetal life) is called extramedullary or myeloid metaplasia (organs may enlarge)

30
Q

Which of the following describes the process known as culling?

A. Release of red cells from the bone marrow
B. Binding of free hemoglobin by transport proteins
C. Incorporation of iron into protoporphyrin IX
D. Removal of abnormal red cells by the spleen

A

Removal of abnormal red cells by the spleen

HEMA (6 decks)

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