HEMA by Ms. Deborde Flashcards
All the following items should be discarded in a puncture-resistant
container, EXCEPT:
A. Transfer pipette
B. Needles
C. Broken Glass
D. None of the choices
None of the choices
*Anything that could cause puncture similar
to a needle should be discarded in a
puncture-resistant container.
Most preferred anticoagulant in platelet count
A. EDTA
B. Citrate
C. Heparin
D. Non-additive
EDTA
Citrate
*For coagulation/platelet studies
Heparin
*viral culture; a natural anticoagulant
Non-additive
*chemistry tests
When do you release the tourniquet if sufficient blood is collected?
(MARCH 2023 & AUGUST 2023 RECALL)
A. As soon as there is blood flow
B. Before withdrawing the needle
C. Before drawing blood
D. After the first tube is filled
A. As soon as there is blood flow
B. Before withdrawing the needle
*The answer depends on which reference is
used. But, either of the two is considered
correct. READ CAREFULLY.
Stromal cells are formed when mesenchymal cells move into the bone’s central cavity. Stromal cells include the following EXCEPT:
A. Fat cells
B. Cytokines
C. Fibroblasts
D. Float cells
Float cells
*There’s no such thing as FLOAT CELL. Stromal cells include endothelial cells,
adipocytes (fat cells), macrophages and
lymphocytes, osteoblasts, osteoclasts, and reticular adventitial cells (fibroblasts).
Which of the following cleansing technique is considered as superior?
A. Concentric circles
* Old preference/practice
B. Back and forth
C. Both of them
D. Any of them
Back and forth
If a blood specimen is spilled on a laboratory bench or floor area, the
first step in cleanup should be
A. wear gloves and a lab coat
B. absorb blood with disposable towels
C. clean with freshly prepared 1%
chlorine solution
D. wash with water
absorb blood with disposable towels
A blood cuff used as an alternative tourniquet should be inflated at:
A. 40 mmHg
B. 50 mmHg
C. 60 mmHg
D. 100 mmHg
60 mmHg
40 mmHg
*Ivy’s method
50 mmHg
*Capillary Resistance test; 10 mins
100 mmHg
*Capillary Resistance test; 5 mins
It results when a large amount of fluid leaks around the puncture site
that could lead to swelling.
A. Purpura
B. Petechiae
C. Hematoma
D. Ecchymosis
Hematoma
Purpura
*round purplish spots, bigger than petechiae
Petechiae
*purplish red PINPOINT
Ecchymosis
*Bruising; leakage of SMALL amount of blood
Which of the following may be used as a substitute for blood clotting closure to correct the phenomenon called platelet satellitism?
A. Green ET
B. Pink ET
C. Gray ET
D. EDTA
Green ET
Pink ET
*usually used for Blood bank tests
Gray ET
*not associated with this
phenomenon
EDTA
*could cause platelet satellitism
Most suitable stain to visualize reticulocytes is:
A. New Methylene blue
B. Methylene blue
C. Romanowsky stain
D. Feulgen stain
New Methylene blue
Methylene blue
*simple stain
Feulgen stain
*does not stain retics
Referred to as the “graveyard” of RBCS and considered as the largest
lymphoid organ
A. Lymph node
B. Bone Marrow
C. Spleen
D. Liver
Spleen
Lymph node
*a lymphoid organ but is not the largest
Bone Marrow
*in medullary phase, hematopoiesis begins
Liver
*not a major site of RBC production
A RBC precursor where hemoglobin appears for the first time and has
wheel with broad spoke chromatin pattern
A. Rubriblast
B. Prorubricyte
C. Rubricyte
D. None of the choices
None of the choices
Rubriblast
*earliest recognizable precursor
Prorubricyte
*Broad spoke chromatin pattern
Rubricyte
*hemoglobin appears for the first time
In the blood smear of a patient suffering from megaloblastic anemia, the erythrocyte
abnormalities that would be observed include:
I. Howell-Jolly bodies
II. Basophilic stippling
III. Hypersegmented neutrophils
IV. Hyposegmented neutrophils
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4
1 and 3
**3 and 4 are LEUKOCYTE abnormalities;
**Howell-Jolly bodies – nuclear remnants of DNA
**Basophilic stippling – blue-berry bagel
appearance
Which of the following statements below concerning Sickle Cell Anemia is not true?
A. It is characterized by a normal MCV and
increased RDW.
B. Drepanocytes are an expected finding in
this condition
C. One can observe a low reticulocyte count in this condition.
D. One should use hemoglobin
electrophoresis in confirming the presence of this disorder.
One can observe a low reticulocyte count in this condition.
It is characterized by a normal MCV and
increased RDW.
*Sickle Cell Anemia (Normo, normo)
Drepanocytes are an expected finding in
this condition
*Drepanocytes = Sickle cells
One should use hemoglobin
electrophoresis in confirming the presence of this disorder.
*Citrate Agar Hgb Electrophoresis is a
confirmatory test for the presence of Hgb S
Which of the following correctly describes primitive erythropoiesis?
(RECALL MARCH 2023)
A. Blood islands
B. Beginning of definitive
hematopoiesis
*Hepatic phase
C. Hb A is the most predominant
hemoglobin
*For medullary phase
D. Seen in compensatory state
Blood islands
Beginning of definitive
hematopoiesis
*Hepatic phase
Hb A is the most predominant
hemoglobin
*For medullary phase
EPO is the primary regulator of Erythropoiesis. Which of the following produces EPO?
A. Liver
B. Kidneys
C. Both of them
D. Neither of the two
Both of them
NOTE: Primary organ that produces EPO is KIDNEYS
The majority of iron found in an adult is a constituent of
A. Ferritin
B. Myoglobin
C. Hemoglobin
D. Peroxidase
Hemoglobin
Ferritin
*stores iron
Myoglobin
* aids in storing oxygen in the muscles
1st statement: Hephaestin is a
copper-containing oxidase enzyme that oxidizes iron as it exits the enterocyte.
2nd statement: Erythrocytes are
specialized cells that contain hemoglobin that carries oxygen to the
tissues. It also stores iron, an essential
component of RBC.
A. Both statements are correct
B. Both statements are incorrect
C. Only the 1st statement is correct
D. Only the 2nd statement is correct
Only the 1st statement is correct
*2nd statement is incorrect because
hemoglobin does not store iron
Which of the following conditions shows a decreased level of ESR?
A. Polycythemia
B. Anemia
C. Multiple myeloma
D. Leukemia
Polycythemia
Anemia
*Increased ESR
Multiple myeloma
*Increased ESR
Leukemia
*Increased ESR
IDA and ACD are likely to have the same laboratory results. But, which of the following parameter differs the two?
A. Serum Iron
B. Serum ferritin
C. Serum TIBC
D. ZPP
Serum TIBC
*IDA = Increased TIBC
*ACD = Decreased ACD
Which of the following is a folded cell?
A. Hemoglobin C
B. Hemoglobin E
C. Hemoglobin D
D. Hemoglobin A
Hemoglobin C
Hemoglobin H disease
A. α -, - -
B. –,αα
*Alpha thalassemia minor
C. -α, αα
*Silent carrier
D. –,–
*Hydrops fetalis
α -, - -
–,αα
*Alpha thalassemia minor
-α, αα
*Silent carrier
–,–
*Hydrops fetalis
Reticulocyte count is commonly visualized using a supravital stain,
specifically______:
A. New methylene blue
B. Methylene blue
C. Thiazole dye
D. Both A and B
New methylene blue
NOTE: NMB and Methylene blue are not
the same. They have different chemical
composition
What is the formula used for computing the adjustment for the
amount of sodium citrate?
A. 100-Hct/595-Hct x ml of WB
B. (1.85 x 10-3)(100-Hct)(Vol of WB)
C. Either of the two
D. Neither of the two
Either of the two
Mean Cell Volume (MCV) is calculated using the following formula
A. (Hgb ÷ RBC) × 10
B. (Hct ÷ RBC) × 10
C. (Hgb ÷ Hct) × 100
D. (Hgb ÷ RBC) × 100
(Hct ÷ RBC) × 10
In the 5 RBC central squares, 350 cells were counted. A dilution of
1:100 is used. What would be the RBC count?
A. 1,750/ul
B. 1,750,000/ml
C. 1,750,000/ul
D. 17,500,000/ul
1,750,000/ul
Formula:
Total cells ctd. x df
area ctd. X depth
Solution:
350 x 100
0.2 x 0.1
Answer: 1, 750, 000/ul
Cytokine that can be used for allergy
treatment, adjuvants, and asthma
A. IL-3
B. IL-2
C. IL-6
D. IL-12
IL-12
IL-3
*proliferation of HSC
IL-2
*cell growth of T cells
IL-6
*cytokine production
The most abundant leukocyte in the blood smear of a healthy adult person is the:
A. Monocyte
B. Lymphocyte
C. Neutrophils
D. Basophils
Neutrophils
Lymphocyte
*predominant WBC in children
Basophils
*least concentrated WBC
Which WBC is predominantly seen in
stool specimen?
A. Neutrophils
B. Eosinophils
*rarely observed in stool specimens
C. Basophils
*rarely observed in stool specimens
D. None of the choices
Neutrophils
Eosinophils
*rarely observed in stool specimens
Basophils
*rarely observed in stool specimens
The least concentrated leukocyte remains in the maturation phase for
how long?
A. 8 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 6 days
12 hours
8 hours
*lifespan of Basophil sa peripheral blood
24 hours
*promyelocyte stage only lasts for 24 hours
6 days
*Transit time of neutrophil from
myeloblast through myelocyte
In WHO classification, defines that presence of ____ blast in the PBS
classifies acute leukemia.
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 40%
20%
30%
*FAB Classification
ALL L1
✓ Lymphoblasts are small, homogenous. MOST COMMON
CHILDHOOD ALL
✓ Best prognosis
ALL L2
✓ Lymphoblasts are large,
heterogenous.
✓ COMMON IN ADULTS
ALL L3
✓ BURKIT-TYPE LEUKEMIA
✓ Rare in children & adults
✓ Poor prognosis
A normal WBC would give a ____ color in NBT
A. BLUE
B. YELLOW
*colorless/yellow colored-reaction
in NBT may indicate presence of CGD
C. PINK
D. RED
BLUE
YELLOW
*colorless/yellow colored-reaction in NBT may indicate presence of CGD
Placenta
A. Type A cells
B. Hoffbauer cells
C. Mesangial cells
D. Langherhans cell
Hoffbauer cells
Kidneys
A. Type A cells
B. Hoffbauer cells
C. Mesangial cells
D. Langerhans cell
Mesangial cells
Which diseases are involved in abnormal functions of leukocytes?
1. May-hegglin anomaly
2. Hurler’s disease
3. Hyperimmunoglobulin E syndrome
4. Chronic Granulomatous disease
A. 1,3,4
B. 1,2
C. 2,4
D. 3,4
3,4
**May-hegglin anomaly & Hurler’s disease = abnormal cytoplasm
**Hyperimmunoglobulin E syndrome (Job’s syndrome) =
characterized by abnormal chemotactic activity
**CGD = No respiratory burst
RBC MASS: Normal
EPO: Normal
HCT: Increase
A. Absolute Polycythemia
B. Relative polycythemia
C. Leukemoid reaction
D. CML
Relative polycythemia
Chronic smokers has elevated count of which leukocyte?
A. Eosinophil
B. Neutrophil
C. Basophil
D. Macrophage
Neutrophil
the nuclear envelope disassembles, the centrosomes move to opposite poles of the cell and serve as a point
of origin of the mitotic spindle fibers; the sister chromatids attach to the
mitotic spindle fibers.
A. Prometaphase
B. Prophase
C. Metaphase
D. Telophase
Prometaphase
Prophase
*duplicate centrosomes beam to separate
Metaphase
*sister chromatids align on the mitotic spindle
Telophase
*reassembling of nuclear membrane
Nucleated RBCs are immature cells that still contain nucleus. These cells may falsely elevate the count of which blood cell?
A. RBC
B. WBC
C. Platelet
D. ALL OF THE ABOVE
WBC
At least how many NRBCs should be present in an adult so that correction would be performed?
A. 5 NRBCs
B. 10 NRBCs
C. 15 NRBCs
D. 20 NRBCs
5 NRBCs
10 NRBCs
*Children
After the differential count is performed, the Medtech counted 78
neutrophils. The total WBC count is 4x109/L. Compute the absolute
count using which formula?
A. Relative WBC ct x Total RBC ct
B. Total RBC ct. x Lymphocyte ct.
C. Relative WBC ct. x Total WBC ct.
D. Lymphocyte ct./Total WBC ct
Relative WBC ct. x Total WBC ct.
It is advisable to count at least how many cells when WBC is greater than/equal 100 x 1012/L?
A. 50 cells
B. 200 cells
C. 300 cells
D. None of the choices
None of the choices
*wrong exponent. Raise to 12 is used for RBC.
*At least 300 cells should be counted when WBC is greater than or equal to 100 x 109/L
*At least 200 cells should be counted when WBC is greater than or equal to 40 x 109/L
Compute for the LAP score
Score No. of
Neutrophils
0 14
1+ 15
2+ 35
3+ 29
4+ 7
A. 159
B. 201
C. 179
D. 214
201
Compute for the LAP score
Score No. of
Neutrophils
0 23
1+ 24
2+ 31
3+ 15
4+ 7
A. 143
B. 159
C. 162
D. 118
159
A WBC count is performed on a
hemacytometer using a 1:20 dilution. 308 cells are seen in a total area of 8 mm2. What is the WBC count?
A. 3.8X109/L
B. 7.7X109/L
C. 15.4X109/L
D. 38.5X109/L
7.7X109/L
Formula:
Total cells ctd. x df
area ctd. X depth
Solution:
308 x 20
8 x 0.1
Answer: 7, 700 or
7.7 x 109/L
In the thrombopoiesis, it is considered as the first recognizable stage.
A. Promegakaryocyte
B. Megakaryocyte
C. Megarkaryoblast
D. Platelet
Megarkaryoblast
Promegakaryocyte
*2nd stage
Megakaryocyte
*Granular = fine & diffused
*Mature = coarsed clump cytoplasm
The maturational sequence of the
thrombocyte is:
A. megakaryoblast—
promegakaryocyte—
megakaryocyte—
metamegakaryocyte—thrombocyte
B. promegakaryocyte—
megakaryocyte—
metamegakaryocyte—thrombocyte
C. megakaryoblast—
promegakaryocyte—
megakaryocyte—thrombocyte
D. megakaryoblast—
promegakaryocyte—
metamegakaryocyte—thrombocyte
megakaryoblast—
promegakaryocyte—
megakaryocyte—thrombocyte
Which of the following is expressed by platelets?
I. GPIIb/IIIa
II. CD4
III. VN receptor
IV. CD8
A. I, III
B. II, III
C. I, IV
D. II, IV
I, III
*CD4 and CD8 are expressed by T cells
*GpIIb/IIIa & VN receptor – platelet
aggregation & adhesion
Which thrombocyte stage has the following characteristics?
Nucleus: Round
Chromatin: Homogenous
Demarcation system: Present
A. MK-I
B. MK-II
C. MK-III
D. MK-IV
MK-I
1st statement: All thrombocyte
maturation stages have
demarcation system
2nd statement: The major source of
energy of platelet is a nonreducing sugar.
A. Both statements are correct
B. Both statements are incorrect
C. Only the first statement is correct
D. Only the second statement is correct
Only the first statement is correct
NOTE: Glucose/Dextrose is the major source of energy of platelet.
It is a REDUCING sugar.
1st statement: In hemostasis, failed
delta checks should also encompass a review of specimen collection errors.
2nd statement: Plasma coagulation is the
second component of hemostasis
A. Both statements are correct
B. Both statements are incorrect
C. Only the first statement is correct
D. Only the second statement is correct
Both statements are correct
Which of the following is considered as the most frequently used
intravenous anticoagulant?
A. Sodium fluoride
*previously inhibits glycolysis
B. Heparin
C. Warfarin
*prevents formation of blood clots
D. EDTA
*most commonly used
anticoagulant in Hematology
Heparin
Sodium fluoride
*previously inhibits glycolysis
Warfarin
*prevents formation of blood clots
EDTA
*most commonly used
anticoagulant in Hematology
In primary hemostasis, which of the following actions come first?
A. Vasodilation
B. Vasoconstriction
C. Platelet adhesion
D. Platelet activation
Vasoconstriction
It is a key collagen receptor that binds thrombospondin, an adhesive protein.
A. GP IIb/IIIa
*platelet aggregation
B. GP Ib/IX/V
*platelet adhesion
C. GP VI
D. VWF
*carrier protein for Factor VIII
GP VI
GP IIb/IIIa
*platelet aggregation
GP Ib/IX/V
*platelet adhesion
VWF
*carrier protein for Factor VIII
Cyclooxygenase is a lipid signaling molecule that plays a key role in
prostaglandin synthesis. Which of the following is converted by this molecule into prostaglandin?
A. Thyroxine
B. Arachidonic acid
C. G proteins
D. Oxygen
Arachidonic acid
In primary hemostasis, these cells are the key player in response to
injury of the subendothelium.
A. Platelets
B. Coagulation factors
C. WBC
D. RBC
Platelets
Coagulation factors
*plays an important role in blood clotting
WBC
*plays a crucial role in the body’s defense against foreign pathogens
RBC
*transports oxygen to the rest of the body
It is defined as the vascular “tensed” factor which relaxes the smooth muscle and inhibits platelet
activation:
A. Prostacyclin
*vasodilator
B. Nitric oxide
*should be the answer if the term
used was ‘RELAXED’ not ‘TENSED’
C. Thrombomodulin
*cofactor of thrombin
D. None of the choices
None of the choices
Prostacyclin
*vasodilator
Nitric oxide
*should be the answer if the term used was ‘RELAXED’ not ‘TENSED’
Thrombomodulin
*cofactor of thrombin
A complex system of procoagulant activities and control activities to
contain and limit clot formation
A. Primary Hemostasis
B. Secondary hemostasis
C. Fibrinolysis
D. None of the choices
Secondary hemostasis
Primary Hemostasis
*formation of hemostatic plugs
Fibrinolysis
*process of breaking down fibrin clot
Which of the following lists the steps of the hemostatic response in the correct order?
A. Fibrinolysis → injury_→ secondary
hemostasis → primary hemostasis
B. Injury → primary hemostasis →
secondary hemostasis →
fibrinolysis
C. Injury → secondary hemostasis →
primary hemostasis → fibrinolysis
D. Injury → fibrinolysis → primary hemostasis → secondary
hemostasis
Injury → primary hemostasis →
secondary hemostasis →
fibrinolysis
It coats the endothelial cell surface and weakly enhances activity of anti-thrombin III
A. Prostacyclin
B. Thrombomodulin
C. Heparan Sulfate
D. Protamine Sulfate
Heparan Sulfate
1st statement: Pour wound healing can be due to excess hemostasis
2nd statement: An excess fibrinolysis, on the other hand, may cause clot
extension
A. Both statements are incorrect
B. Both statements are correct
C. Only the 1st statement is correct
D. Only the 2nd statement is correct
Both statements are incorrect
The hemorrhagic problems associated
with scurvy are due to a deficiency of which of the following?
A. Vitamin C
B. Prothrombin
C. Vitamin K
D. Protein C
Vitamin C
Vitamin K
*bleeding disorder
Protein C
*deficiency is associated with purpura fulminans
The physician suspected that his 45-year-old patient has Chronic liver
disease. The most useful test to order is:
A. Platelet count
B. Prothrombin time
C. 5.0 M urea solubility test
D. Bleeding time
Bleeding time
Platelet count
*quantitative
Prothrombin time
*Secondary hemostasis
5.0 M urea solubility test
*FXIII deficiency
Hereditary Afibrogenemia, Essential
thrombia, and Uremia are defects of which platelet function?
A. Platelet adhesion
*Bernard-Soulier syndrome
*VWF
B. Platelet aggregation
C. Platelet secretion
*Storage pool diseases
D. Passive surveillance
Platelet aggregation
Platelet adhesion
*Bernard-Soulier syndrome
*VWF
Platelet secretion
*Storage pool diseases
Normal aggregation with
Epinephrine, Collagen, ADP; Abnormal aggregation with
Ristocettin.
A. Glanzmann thrombasthenia
B. VWD
C. Both of the choices
D. None of the choices
VWD
Glanzmann thrombasthenia
*Ristocettin: Normal
*Epinephrine, Collagen, ADP: Abnormal
It is the most prevalent congenital bleeding disorder.
A. Bernard-Soulier Syndrome
B. Von Willebrand Factor
C. Either of the two
D. Neither of the two
Neither of the two
**Most congenital bleeding disorder is
VON WILLEBRAND DISEASE. VWF is
different from VWD.
Bernard-Soulier Syndrome
*This is a very rare congenital
bleeding disorder
An alpha-granule deficiency which is
characterized by large platelets and shows an observable gray
appearance in Wright’s stain.
A. Gray platelet syndrome
B. Quebec platelet disorder
C. Wiskott Aldrich syndrome
D. Hermansky Pudlak
Gray platelet syndrome
Quebec platelet disorder
*deficiency of multimerism
Wiskott Aldrich syndrome
*X-linked disorder
Hermansky Pudlak
*storage-pool deficiency
Which of the following clotting factors are not consumed during
coagulation
I. Fibrinogen
II. Prothrombin
III. Stuart-Prower factor
IV. Fibrinoligase
A. I,II,II,IV
B. I,IV
C. II,III
D. II, IV
II,III
Fibrinogen Group
- Consumed during coagulation
*Factors I, V, VIII,
XIII
Prothrombin Group
- NOT consumed
during coagulation
*Factors 2, 7,9, 10
A clotting factor that functions as a
cofactor
A. Factor VII
B. Factor X
C. Factor V
D. All of the above
Factor V
Factor VII
*inactive zymogen
Factor X
*inactive zymogen
Which clotting factor is not thrombin sensitive?
A. Factor I
B. Factor IX
C. Factor VIII
D. Factor V
Factor IX
Fibrinogen Group
- Thrombin
sensitive
*Factors I, V, VIII,
XIII
Prothrombin Group
- NOT thrombin
sensitive
*Factors 2, 7,9, 10
APTT is a clot-based screening test
wherein it is used to:
A. To monitor patients undergoing Warfarin therapy
B. To detect clotting factor deficiencies
both in Extrinsic and Common pathway
C. To monitor patients in
Unfractionated Heparin therapy
D. To detect only the clotting deficiencies in the INTRINSIC PATHWAY
To monitor patients in
Unfractionated Heparin therapy
A. To monitor patients undergoing Warfarin therapy
*Prothrombin time
B. To detect clotting factor deficiencies
both in Extrinsic and Common pathway
*Prothrombin time
D. To detect only the clotting deficiencies in the INTRINSIC PATHWAY
*Wrong! APTT can detect
deficiencies both in the INTRINSIC and COMMON pathway
Which clotting factors are included in the intrinsic pathway?
A. Factor III & VII
B. Factor VIII & IX
C. Either of the two
D. Neither of the two
Factor VIII & IX
TCT = Normal;
PT = Normal;
PTT = Normal
A. Factor I deficiency
B. Lupus Anticoagulant
C. Factor XIII deficiency
D. Factor VII deficiency
Factor XIII deficiency
TCT = ABNORMAL;
PT = ABNORMAL;
PTT = ABNORMAL
A. Fibrinogen deficiency
B. Factor XIII deficiency
C. Factor V deficiency
D. Factor X deficiency
Fibrinogen deficiency
Prolonged PT and Normal PTT would be indicative of a deficiency in which coagulation pathway?
A. Extrinsic pathway
B. Intrinsic pathway
C. Common pathway
D. All pathways
Extrinsic pathway
Prothrombinase complex activates which of the following clotting factor?
A. IX and X
B. X only
C. Prothrombin
D. VIII
Prothrombin
*Components of prothrombinase
complex are Factors Va, Xa, Phospholipid, and Calcium
Series of enzymatic reactions beginning with activation of factor VII by tissue factor (extrinsic pathway) or factor XII by a negatively charged surface (intrinsic pathway) and proceeding through the common pathway to the formation of an insoluble fibrin clot.
A. Coagulation cascade
B. Coagulation factors
*Part of the cascade
C. Hematopoiesis
*process of blood cell production
D. Protein metabolism
Coagulation cascade
Coagulation factors
*Part of the cascade
Hematopoiesis
*process of blood cell production
A 60-year-old patient is currently on Warfarin therapy. Which of the
following laboratory test will be affected?
A. Protein C levels
B. Factor V levels
C. Factor VIII levels
D. Antithrombin III levels
Protein C levels
*Vitamin-dependent
**All other choices are Vitamin-independent
Vitamin K absorption won’t take place if this substance is absent.
A. Carotene
B. Prothrombin
C. Insulin
D. Bile
Bile
**Vitamin K is a fat soluble vitamin that
is absorbed in the form of die
HMWK means:
A. High Molecular Weight Kallikrein
B. High Molecular Weight Kininogen
C. High Molarity Weight Kallikrein
D. High Molarity Weight Kininogen
High Molecular Weight Kininogen
If a child ingested rat poison, which of the following tests should be
performed to test the effect of the poison on the child’s coagulation
mechanism?
A. aPTT
B. PT
C. Fibrinogen assay
D. Thrombin time
PT
*According to Turgeon, rat poison is a coumarin containing substance which can prolong PT once this is ingested
Presence of this insoluble protein in the circulation is abnormal
A. Fibrinogen
B. Fibrin
C. Cholesterol
D. Neutral fat
Fibrin
*If present, it could indicate an ongoing clotting or thrombosis
Fibrinogen
*soluble plasma glycoprotein
Cholesterol
*not typically considered as an insoluble protein
Neutral fat
**not typically considered as an insoluble protein
The clot retraction test is:
(March 2023 recall)
A. a visible reaction to the activation of
platelet actomyosin (thrombosthenin)
B. a reflection of the quantity and quality of platelets and other factors
C. a measurement of the ability of platelets to stick to glass
D. a measurement of the cloudiness of blood
a reflection of the quantity and quality of platelets and other factors
In rumpel-leed test, what should be observed after 5 minutes of maintaining the inflated pressure?
A. Ecchymosis (aka Bruising)
B. Petechiae
C. Hematoma
D. Menorrhagia
Petechiae
*Tourniquet method/ Capillary Fragility test/ Capillary Resistance test
Menorrhagia
*menstrual bleeding/ heavy bleeding
It is used to neutralize heparin therapy.
A. Heparan sulfate
B. FFP
C. Protamine sulfate
D. Any of them
Protamine sulfate
Heparan sulfate
*cofactor for antithrombin III
FFP
*blood product
Which of the choices below is the most common inherited vascular bleeding disorder?
A. Osler-Weber-Rendu Disease
B. Cutis hyperelastica
C. Senile Pupura
D. Marfan’s syndrome
Osler-Weber-Rendu Disease
Cutis hyperelastica
*Ehlers-Danlos syndrome; rare
Senile Pupura
*common in elderly people
Marfan’s syndrome
*rare bleeding disorder
The sample collected was less than the required ratio (9:1 or 90% blood,
10% anticoagulant). What would be the error?
A. Specimen clotting
*can be due to inadequate mixing &
improper collection
B. Hemolysis
*breakdown of RBCs
C. Short draw
D. Lipemia
Short draw
Specimen clotting
*can be due to inadequate mixing &
improper collection
Hemolysis
*breakdown of RBCs
A specimen is received for a prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time. The 5 mL tube has 2.5 mL of blood in it. Expected test results are
A. PT and aPTT both falsely short
B. PT and aPTT both falsely long
C. PT and aPTT both unaffected
D. PT unaffected, APTT falsely short
PT and aPTT both falsely long
*9:1 blood to anticoagulant ratio was
not met.
How many platelets per oil immersion field should be observed
in order to evaluate normal platelet number in an appropriate area of a blood smear?
a. 7-11
b. 4-17
c. 8-20
d. 20-40
8-20
In counting thrombocytes, which is
used?
A. 4 mm2
B. 1 mm2
C. 4 cm
D. 1 cm
*cm unit is not used when counting
blood cells
1 mm2
4 mm2
*WBC
*cm unit is not used when counting blood cells
A standard 4.5-mL blue-top tube filled with 3.0mL of blood was submitted to the laboratory for PT and APTT tests. The sample is from a patient undergoing surgery the following morning for a tonsillectomy. Which of
the following is the necessary course of
action by the technologist?
A. Run both tests in duplicate and report
the average result
B. Reject the sample and request a new sample
C. Report the PT result
D. Report the APTT result
Reject the sample and request a new sample
*PT and PTT results cannot be reported
because the sample was insufficient, and
results might not be accurate.
A clotting factor that is considered as an acute-phase reactant and is a
labile factor wherein within 12 hours, a 50% loss may be expected.
A. Factor VII
B. Factor VIII
C. Factor I
D. Factor III
Factor VIII
Factor VII
*also, Factor XI prematurely activate
when stored at a cold temperature
It is the physiologically active form calcium
A. Ionized calcium
B. Deionized calcium
C. Heparinized calcium
D. Calcium has no active form
Ionized calcium
The medical technologist collected a blood sample at 8 am. This is subjected for Prothrombin time. The MT processed the sample at 10 am the next day.
A. Sample should be recollected
because PT should be processed
within 24 hours
B. Sample is still acceptable
C. Sample should be centrifuged for it
to be acceptable
D. None of the choices
Sample should be recollected because PT should be processed
within 24 hours
In unopipette systeme, which anticoagulant is more preferred?
A. Citrate
B. Heparin
C. EDTA
D. Any of these
EDTA
