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HEMA > HEMA by Ms. Deborde > Flashcards

HEMA by Ms. Deborde Flashcards

1
Q

All the following items should be discarded in a puncture-resistant
container, EXCEPT:

A. Transfer pipette
B. Needles
C. Broken Glass
D. None of the choices

A

None of the choices

*Anything that could cause puncture similar
to a needle should be discarded in a
puncture-resistant container.

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2
Q

Most preferred anticoagulant in platelet count

A. EDTA
B. Citrate
C. Heparin
D. Non-additive

A

EDTA

Citrate
*For coagulation/platelet studies

Heparin
*viral culture; a natural anticoagulant

Non-additive
*chemistry tests

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3
Q

When do you release the tourniquet if sufficient blood is collected?
(MARCH 2023 & AUGUST 2023 RECALL)

A. As soon as there is blood flow
B. Before withdrawing the needle
C. Before drawing blood
D. After the first tube is filled

A

A. As soon as there is blood flow
B. Before withdrawing the needle

*The answer depends on which reference is
used. But, either of the two is considered
correct. READ CAREFULLY.

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4
Q

Stromal cells are formed when mesenchymal cells move into the bone’s central cavity. Stromal cells include the following EXCEPT:

A. Fat cells
B. Cytokines
C. Fibroblasts
D. Float cells

A

Float cells

*There’s no such thing as FLOAT CELL. Stromal cells include endothelial cells,
adipocytes (fat cells), macrophages and
lymphocytes, osteoblasts, osteoclasts, and reticular adventitial cells (fibroblasts).

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5
Q

Which of the following cleansing technique is considered as superior?

A. Concentric circles
* Old preference/practice
B. Back and forth
C. Both of them
D. Any of them

A

Back and forth

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6
Q

If a blood specimen is spilled on a laboratory bench or floor area, the
first step in cleanup should be

A. wear gloves and a lab coat
B. absorb blood with disposable towels
C. clean with freshly prepared 1%
chlorine solution
D. wash with water

A

absorb blood with disposable towels

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7
Q

A blood cuff used as an alternative tourniquet should be inflated at:

A. 40 mmHg
B. 50 mmHg
C. 60 mmHg
D. 100 mmHg

A

60 mmHg

40 mmHg
*Ivy’s method

50 mmHg
*Capillary Resistance test; 10 mins

100 mmHg
*Capillary Resistance test; 5 mins

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8
Q

It results when a large amount of fluid leaks around the puncture site
that could lead to swelling.

A. Purpura
B. Petechiae
C. Hematoma
D. Ecchymosis

A

Hematoma

Purpura
*round purplish spots, bigger than petechiae

Petechiae
*purplish red PINPOINT

Ecchymosis
*Bruising; leakage of SMALL amount of blood

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9
Q

Which of the following may be used as a substitute for blood clotting closure to correct the phenomenon called platelet satellitism?

A. Green ET
B. Pink ET
C. Gray ET
D. EDTA

A

Green ET

Pink ET
*usually used for Blood bank tests

Gray ET
*not associated with this
phenomenon

EDTA
*could cause platelet satellitism

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10
Q

Most suitable stain to visualize reticulocytes is:

A. New Methylene blue
B. Methylene blue
C. Romanowsky stain
D. Feulgen stain

A

New Methylene blue

Methylene blue
*simple stain

Feulgen stain
*does not stain retics

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11
Q

Referred to as the “graveyard” of RBCS and considered as the largest
lymphoid organ

A. Lymph node
B. Bone Marrow
C. Spleen
D. Liver

A

Spleen

Lymph node
*a lymphoid organ but is not the largest

Bone Marrow
*in medullary phase, hematopoiesis begins

Liver
*not a major site of RBC production

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12
Q

A RBC precursor where hemoglobin appears for the first time and has
wheel with broad spoke chromatin pattern

A. Rubriblast
B. Prorubricyte
C. Rubricyte
D. None of the choices

A

None of the choices

Rubriblast
*earliest recognizable precursor

Prorubricyte
*Broad spoke chromatin pattern

Rubricyte
*hemoglobin appears for the first time

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13
Q

In the blood smear of a patient suffering from megaloblastic anemia, the erythrocyte
abnormalities that would be observed include:
I. Howell-Jolly bodies
II. Basophilic stippling
III. Hypersegmented neutrophils
IV. Hyposegmented neutrophils

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4

A

1 and 3

**3 and 4 are LEUKOCYTE abnormalities;
**Howell-Jolly bodies – nuclear remnants of DNA
**Basophilic stippling – blue-berry bagel
appearance

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14
Q

Which of the following statements below concerning Sickle Cell Anemia is not true?

A. It is characterized by a normal MCV and
increased RDW.
B. Drepanocytes are an expected finding in
this condition
C. One can observe a low reticulocyte count in this condition.
D. One should use hemoglobin
electrophoresis in confirming the presence of this disorder.

A

One can observe a low reticulocyte count in this condition.

It is characterized by a normal MCV and
increased RDW.
*Sickle Cell Anemia (Normo, normo)

Drepanocytes are an expected finding in
this condition
*Drepanocytes = Sickle cells

One should use hemoglobin
electrophoresis in confirming the presence of this disorder.
*Citrate Agar Hgb Electrophoresis is a
confirmatory test for the presence of Hgb S

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15
Q

Which of the following correctly describes primitive erythropoiesis?
(RECALL MARCH 2023)

A. Blood islands
B. Beginning of definitive
hematopoiesis
*Hepatic phase
C. Hb A is the most predominant
hemoglobin
*For medullary phase
D. Seen in compensatory state

A

Blood islands

Beginning of definitive
hematopoiesis
*Hepatic phase

Hb A is the most predominant
hemoglobin
*For medullary phase

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16
Q

EPO is the primary regulator of Erythropoiesis. Which of the following produces EPO?

A. Liver
B. Kidneys
C. Both of them
D. Neither of the two

A

Both of them

NOTE: Primary organ that produces EPO is KIDNEYS

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17
Q

The majority of iron found in an adult is a constituent of

A. Ferritin
B. Myoglobin
C. Hemoglobin
D. Peroxidase

A

Hemoglobin

Ferritin
*stores iron

Myoglobin
* aids in storing oxygen in the muscles

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18
Q

1st statement: Hephaestin is a
copper-containing oxidase enzyme that oxidizes iron as it exits the enterocyte.
2nd statement: Erythrocytes are
specialized cells that contain hemoglobin that carries oxygen to the
tissues. It also stores iron, an essential
component of RBC.

A. Both statements are correct
B. Both statements are incorrect
C. Only the 1st statement is correct
D. Only the 2nd statement is correct

A

Only the 1st statement is correct

*2nd statement is incorrect because
hemoglobin does not store iron

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19
Q

Which of the following conditions shows a decreased level of ESR?

A. Polycythemia
B. Anemia
C. Multiple myeloma
D. Leukemia

A

Polycythemia

Anemia
*Increased ESR

Multiple myeloma
*Increased ESR

Leukemia
*Increased ESR

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20
Q

IDA and ACD are likely to have the same laboratory results. But, which of the following parameter differs the two?

A. Serum Iron
B. Serum ferritin
C. Serum TIBC
D. ZPP

A

Serum TIBC

*IDA = Increased TIBC
*ACD = Decreased ACD

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21
Q

Which of the following is a folded cell?

A. Hemoglobin C
B. Hemoglobin E
C. Hemoglobin D
D. Hemoglobin A

A

Hemoglobin C

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22
Q

Hemoglobin H disease

A. α -, - -
B. –,αα
*Alpha thalassemia minor
C. -α, αα
*Silent carrier
D. –,–
*Hydrops fetalis

A

α -, - -

–,αα
*Alpha thalassemia minor

-α, αα
*Silent carrier

–,–
*Hydrops fetalis

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23
Q

Reticulocyte count is commonly visualized using a supravital stain,
specifically______:

A. New methylene blue
B. Methylene blue
C. Thiazole dye
D. Both A and B

A

New methylene blue

NOTE: NMB and Methylene blue are not
the same. They have different chemical
composition

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24
Q

What is the formula used for computing the adjustment for the
amount of sodium citrate?

A. 100-Hct/595-Hct x ml of WB
B. (1.85 x 10-3)(100-Hct)(Vol of WB)
C. Either of the two
D. Neither of the two

A

Either of the two

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25
Q

Mean Cell Volume (MCV) is calculated using the following formula

A. (Hgb ÷ RBC) × 10
B. (Hct ÷ RBC) × 10
C. (Hgb ÷ Hct) × 100
D. (Hgb ÷ RBC) × 100

A

(Hct ÷ RBC) × 10

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26
Q

In the 5 RBC central squares, 350 cells were counted. A dilution of
1:100 is used. What would be the RBC count?

A. 1,750/ul
B. 1,750,000/ml
C. 1,750,000/ul
D. 17,500,000/ul

A

1,750,000/ul

Formula:
Total cells ctd. x df
area ctd. X depth

Solution:
350 x 100
0.2 x 0.1
Answer: 1, 750, 000/ul

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27
Q

Cytokine that can be used for allergy
treatment, adjuvants, and asthma

A. IL-3
B. IL-2
C. IL-6
D. IL-12

A

IL-12

IL-3
*proliferation of HSC

IL-2
*cell growth of T cells

IL-6
*cytokine production

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28
Q

The most abundant leukocyte in the blood smear of a healthy adult person is the:

A. Monocyte
B. Lymphocyte
C. Neutrophils
D. Basophils

A

Neutrophils

Lymphocyte
*predominant WBC in children

Basophils
*least concentrated WBC

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29
Q

Which WBC is predominantly seen in
stool specimen?

A. Neutrophils
B. Eosinophils
*rarely observed in stool specimens
C. Basophils
*rarely observed in stool specimens
D. None of the choices

A

Neutrophils

Eosinophils
*rarely observed in stool specimens

Basophils
*rarely observed in stool specimens

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30
Q

The least concentrated leukocyte remains in the maturation phase for
how long?

A. 8 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 6 days

A

12 hours

8 hours
*lifespan of Basophil sa peripheral blood

24 hours
*promyelocyte stage only lasts for 24 hours

6 days
*Transit time of neutrophil from
myeloblast through myelocyte

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31
Q

In WHO classification, defines that presence of ____ blast in the PBS
classifies acute leukemia.

A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 40%

A

20%

30%
*FAB Classification

ALL L1
✓ Lymphoblasts are small, homogenous. MOST COMMON
CHILDHOOD ALL
✓ Best prognosis

ALL L2
✓ Lymphoblasts are large,
heterogenous.
✓ COMMON IN ADULTS

ALL L3
✓ BURKIT-TYPE LEUKEMIA
✓ Rare in children & adults
✓ Poor prognosis

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32
Q

A normal WBC would give a ____ color in NBT

A. BLUE
B. YELLOW
*colorless/yellow colored-reaction
in NBT may indicate presence of CGD
C. PINK
D. RED

A

BLUE

YELLOW
*colorless/yellow colored-reaction in NBT may indicate presence of CGD

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33
Q

Placenta

A. Type A cells
B. Hoffbauer cells
C. Mesangial cells
D. Langherhans cell

A

Hoffbauer cells

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34
Q

Kidneys

A. Type A cells
B. Hoffbauer cells
C. Mesangial cells
D. Langerhans cell

A

Mesangial cells

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35
Q

Which diseases are involved in abnormal functions of leukocytes?
1. May-hegglin anomaly
2. Hurler’s disease
3. Hyperimmunoglobulin E syndrome
4. Chronic Granulomatous disease

A. 1,3,4
B. 1,2
C. 2,4
D. 3,4

A

3,4

**May-hegglin anomaly & Hurler’s disease = abnormal cytoplasm
**Hyperimmunoglobulin E syndrome (Job’s syndrome) =
characterized by abnormal chemotactic activity
**CGD = No respiratory burst

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36
Q

RBC MASS: Normal
EPO: Normal
HCT: Increase

A. Absolute Polycythemia
B. Relative polycythemia
C. Leukemoid reaction
D. CML

A

Relative polycythemia

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37
Q

Chronic smokers has elevated count of which leukocyte?

A. Eosinophil
B. Neutrophil
C. Basophil
D. Macrophage

A

Neutrophil

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38
Q

the nuclear envelope disassembles, the centrosomes move to opposite poles of the cell and serve as a point
of origin of the mitotic spindle fibers; the sister chromatids attach to the
mitotic spindle fibers.

A. Prometaphase
B. Prophase
C. Metaphase
D. Telophase

A

Prometaphase

Prophase
*duplicate centrosomes beam to separate

Metaphase
*sister chromatids align on the mitotic spindle

Telophase
*reassembling of nuclear membrane

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39
Q

Nucleated RBCs are immature cells that still contain nucleus. These cells may falsely elevate the count of which blood cell?

A. RBC
B. WBC
C. Platelet
D. ALL OF THE ABOVE

A

WBC

40
Q

At least how many NRBCs should be present in an adult so that correction would be performed?

A. 5 NRBCs
B. 10 NRBCs
C. 15 NRBCs
D. 20 NRBCs

A

5 NRBCs

10 NRBCs
*Children

41
Q

After the differential count is performed, the Medtech counted 78
neutrophils. The total WBC count is 4x109/L. Compute the absolute
count using which formula?

A. Relative WBC ct x Total RBC ct
B. Total RBC ct. x Lymphocyte ct.
C. Relative WBC ct. x Total WBC ct.
D. Lymphocyte ct./Total WBC ct

A

Relative WBC ct. x Total WBC ct.

42
Q

It is advisable to count at least how many cells when WBC is greater than/equal 100 x 1012/L?

A. 50 cells
B. 200 cells
C. 300 cells
D. None of the choices

A

None of the choices

*wrong exponent. Raise to 12 is used for RBC.
*At least 300 cells should be counted when WBC is greater than or equal to 100 x 109/L
*At least 200 cells should be counted when WBC is greater than or equal to 40 x 109/L

43
Q

Compute for the LAP score
Score No. of
Neutrophils
0 14
1+ 15
2+ 35
3+ 29
4+ 7

A. 159
B. 201
C. 179
D. 214

A

201

44
Q

Compute for the LAP score
Score No. of
Neutrophils
0 23
1+ 24
2+ 31
3+ 15
4+ 7

A. 143
B. 159
C. 162
D. 118

A

159

45
Q

A WBC count is performed on a
hemacytometer using a 1:20 dilution. 308 cells are seen in a total area of 8 mm2. What is the WBC count?

A. 3.8X109/L
B. 7.7X109/L
C. 15.4X109/L
D. 38.5X109/L

A

7.7X109/L

Formula:
Total cells ctd. x df
area ctd. X depth

Solution:
308 x 20
8 x 0.1

Answer: 7, 700 or
7.7 x 109/L

46
Q

In the thrombopoiesis, it is considered as the first recognizable stage.

A. Promegakaryocyte
B. Megakaryocyte
C. Megarkaryoblast
D. Platelet

A

Megarkaryoblast

Promegakaryocyte
*2nd stage

Megakaryocyte
*Granular = fine & diffused
*Mature = coarsed clump cytoplasm

47
Q

The maturational sequence of the
thrombocyte is:

A. megakaryoblast—
promegakaryocyte—
megakaryocyte—
metamegakaryocyte—thrombocyte
B. promegakaryocyte—
megakaryocyte—
metamegakaryocyte—thrombocyte
C. megakaryoblast—
promegakaryocyte—
megakaryocyte—thrombocyte
D. megakaryoblast—
promegakaryocyte—
metamegakaryocyte—thrombocyte

A

megakaryoblast—
promegakaryocyte—
megakaryocyte—thrombocyte

48
Q

Which of the following is expressed by platelets?
I. GPIIb/IIIa
II. CD4
III. VN receptor
IV. CD8

A. I, III
B. II, III
C. I, IV
D. II, IV

A

I, III

*CD4 and CD8 are expressed by T cells
*GpIIb/IIIa & VN receptor – platelet
aggregation & adhesion

49
Q

Which thrombocyte stage has the following characteristics?
Nucleus: Round
Chromatin: Homogenous
Demarcation system: Present

A. MK-I
B. MK-II
C. MK-III
D. MK-IV

A

MK-I

50
Q

1st statement: All thrombocyte
maturation stages have
demarcation system
2nd statement: The major source of
energy of platelet is a nonreducing sugar.

A. Both statements are correct
B. Both statements are incorrect
C. Only the first statement is correct
D. Only the second statement is correct

A

Only the first statement is correct

NOTE: Glucose/Dextrose is the major source of energy of platelet.
It is a REDUCING sugar.

51
Q

1st statement: In hemostasis, failed
delta checks should also encompass a review of specimen collection errors.
2nd statement: Plasma coagulation is the
second component of hemostasis

A. Both statements are correct
B. Both statements are incorrect
C. Only the first statement is correct
D. Only the second statement is correct

A

Both statements are correct

52
Q

Which of the following is considered as the most frequently used
intravenous anticoagulant?

A. Sodium fluoride
*previously inhibits glycolysis
B. Heparin
C. Warfarin
*prevents formation of blood clots
D. EDTA
*most commonly used
anticoagulant in Hematology

A

Heparin

Sodium fluoride
*previously inhibits glycolysis

Warfarin
*prevents formation of blood clots

EDTA
*most commonly used
anticoagulant in Hematology

53
Q

In primary hemostasis, which of the following actions come first?

A. Vasodilation
B. Vasoconstriction
C. Platelet adhesion
D. Platelet activation

A

Vasoconstriction

54
Q

It is a key collagen receptor that binds thrombospondin, an adhesive protein.

A. GP IIb/IIIa
*platelet aggregation
B. GP Ib/IX/V
*platelet adhesion
C. GP VI
D. VWF
*carrier protein for Factor VIII

A

GP VI

GP IIb/IIIa
*platelet aggregation

GP Ib/IX/V
*platelet adhesion

VWF
*carrier protein for Factor VIII

55
Q

Cyclooxygenase is a lipid signaling molecule that plays a key role in
prostaglandin synthesis. Which of the following is converted by this molecule into prostaglandin?

A. Thyroxine
B. Arachidonic acid
C. G proteins
D. Oxygen

A

Arachidonic acid

56
Q

In primary hemostasis, these cells are the key player in response to
injury of the subendothelium.

A. Platelets
B. Coagulation factors
C. WBC
D. RBC

A

Platelets

Coagulation factors
*plays an important role in blood clotting

WBC
*plays a crucial role in the body’s defense against foreign pathogens

RBC
*transports oxygen to the rest of the body

57
Q

It is defined as the vascular “tensed” factor which relaxes the smooth muscle and inhibits platelet
activation:

A. Prostacyclin
*vasodilator
B. Nitric oxide
*should be the answer if the term
used was ‘RELAXED’ not ‘TENSED’
C. Thrombomodulin
*cofactor of thrombin
D. None of the choices

A

None of the choices

Prostacyclin
*vasodilator

Nitric oxide
*should be the answer if the term used was ‘RELAXED’ not ‘TENSED’

Thrombomodulin
*cofactor of thrombin

58
Q

A complex system of procoagulant activities and control activities to
contain and limit clot formation

A. Primary Hemostasis
B. Secondary hemostasis
C. Fibrinolysis
D. None of the choices

A

Secondary hemostasis

Primary Hemostasis
*formation of hemostatic plugs

Fibrinolysis
*process of breaking down fibrin clot

59
Q

Which of the following lists the steps of the hemostatic response in the correct order?

A. Fibrinolysis → injury_→ secondary
hemostasis → primary hemostasis
B. Injury → primary hemostasis →
secondary hemostasis →
fibrinolysis
C. Injury → secondary hemostasis →
primary hemostasis → fibrinolysis
D. Injury → fibrinolysis → primary hemostasis → secondary
hemostasis

A

Injury → primary hemostasis →
secondary hemostasis →
fibrinolysis

60
Q

It coats the endothelial cell surface and weakly enhances activity of anti-thrombin III

A. Prostacyclin
B. Thrombomodulin
C. Heparan Sulfate
D. Protamine Sulfate

A

Heparan Sulfate

61
Q

1st statement: Pour wound healing can be due to excess hemostasis
2nd statement: An excess fibrinolysis, on the other hand, may cause clot
extension

A. Both statements are incorrect
B. Both statements are correct
C. Only the 1st statement is correct
D. Only the 2nd statement is correct

A

Both statements are incorrect

62
Q

The hemorrhagic problems associated
with scurvy are due to a deficiency of which of the following?

A. Vitamin C
B. Prothrombin
C. Vitamin K
D. Protein C

A

Vitamin C

Vitamin K
*bleeding disorder

Protein C
*deficiency is associated with purpura fulminans

63
Q

The physician suspected that his 45-year-old patient has Chronic liver
disease. The most useful test to order is:

A. Platelet count
B. Prothrombin time
C. 5.0 M urea solubility test
D. Bleeding time

A

Bleeding time

Platelet count
*quantitative

Prothrombin time
*Secondary hemostasis

5.0 M urea solubility test
*FXIII deficiency

64
Q

Hereditary Afibrogenemia, Essential
thrombia, and Uremia are defects of which platelet function?

A. Platelet adhesion
*Bernard-Soulier syndrome
*VWF
B. Platelet aggregation
C. Platelet secretion
*Storage pool diseases
D. Passive surveillance

A

Platelet aggregation

Platelet adhesion
*Bernard-Soulier syndrome
*VWF

Platelet secretion
*Storage pool diseases

65
Q

Normal aggregation with
Epinephrine, Collagen, ADP; Abnormal aggregation with
Ristocettin.

A. Glanzmann thrombasthenia
B. VWD
C. Both of the choices
D. None of the choices

A

VWD

Glanzmann thrombasthenia
*Ristocettin: Normal
*Epinephrine, Collagen, ADP: Abnormal

66
Q

It is the most prevalent congenital bleeding disorder.

A. Bernard-Soulier Syndrome
B. Von Willebrand Factor
C. Either of the two
D. Neither of the two

A

Neither of the two
**Most congenital bleeding disorder is
VON WILLEBRAND DISEASE. VWF is
different from VWD.

Bernard-Soulier Syndrome
*This is a very rare congenital
bleeding disorder

67
Q

An alpha-granule deficiency which is
characterized by large platelets and shows an observable gray
appearance in Wright’s stain.

A. Gray platelet syndrome
B. Quebec platelet disorder
C. Wiskott Aldrich syndrome
D. Hermansky Pudlak

A

Gray platelet syndrome

Quebec platelet disorder
*deficiency of multimerism

Wiskott Aldrich syndrome
*X-linked disorder

Hermansky Pudlak
*storage-pool deficiency

68
Q

Which of the following clotting factors are not consumed during
coagulation
I. Fibrinogen
II. Prothrombin
III. Stuart-Prower factor
IV. Fibrinoligase

A. I,II,II,IV
B. I,IV
C. II,III
D. II, IV

A

II,III

Fibrinogen Group
- Consumed during coagulation
*Factors I, V, VIII,
XIII

Prothrombin Group
- NOT consumed
during coagulation
*Factors 2, 7,9, 10

69
Q

A clotting factor that functions as a
cofactor

A. Factor VII
B. Factor X
C. Factor V
D. All of the above

A

Factor V

Factor VII
*inactive zymogen

Factor X
*inactive zymogen

70
Q

Which clotting factor is not thrombin sensitive?

A. Factor I
B. Factor IX
C. Factor VIII
D. Factor V

A

Factor IX

Fibrinogen Group
- Thrombin
sensitive
*Factors I, V, VIII,
XIII

Prothrombin Group
- NOT thrombin
sensitive
*Factors 2, 7,9, 10

71
Q

APTT is a clot-based screening test
wherein it is used to:

A. To monitor patients undergoing Warfarin therapy
B. To detect clotting factor deficiencies
both in Extrinsic and Common pathway
C. To monitor patients in
Unfractionated Heparin therapy
D. To detect only the clotting deficiencies in the INTRINSIC PATHWAY

A

To monitor patients in
Unfractionated Heparin therapy

A. To monitor patients undergoing Warfarin therapy
*Prothrombin time

B. To detect clotting factor deficiencies
both in Extrinsic and Common pathway
*Prothrombin time

D. To detect only the clotting deficiencies in the INTRINSIC PATHWAY
*Wrong! APTT can detect
deficiencies both in the INTRINSIC and COMMON pathway

72
Q

Which clotting factors are included in the intrinsic pathway?

A. Factor III & VII
B. Factor VIII & IX
C. Either of the two
D. Neither of the two

A

Factor VIII & IX

73
Q

TCT = Normal;
PT = Normal;
PTT = Normal

A. Factor I deficiency
B. Lupus Anticoagulant
C. Factor XIII deficiency
D. Factor VII deficiency

A

Factor XIII deficiency

74
Q

TCT = ABNORMAL;
PT = ABNORMAL;
PTT = ABNORMAL

A. Fibrinogen deficiency
B. Factor XIII deficiency
C. Factor V deficiency
D. Factor X deficiency

A

Fibrinogen deficiency

75
Q

Prolonged PT and Normal PTT would be indicative of a deficiency in which coagulation pathway?

A. Extrinsic pathway
B. Intrinsic pathway
C. Common pathway
D. All pathways

A

Extrinsic pathway

76
Q

Prothrombinase complex activates which of the following clotting factor?

A. IX and X
B. X only
C. Prothrombin
D. VIII

A

Prothrombin

*Components of prothrombinase
complex are Factors Va, Xa, Phospholipid, and Calcium

77
Q

Series of enzymatic reactions beginning with activation of factor VII by tissue factor (extrinsic pathway) or factor XII by a negatively charged surface (intrinsic pathway) and proceeding through the common pathway to the formation of an insoluble fibrin clot.

A. Coagulation cascade
B. Coagulation factors
*Part of the cascade
C. Hematopoiesis
*process of blood cell production
D. Protein metabolism

A

Coagulation cascade

Coagulation factors
*Part of the cascade

Hematopoiesis
*process of blood cell production

78
Q

A 60-year-old patient is currently on Warfarin therapy. Which of the
following laboratory test will be affected?

A. Protein C levels
B. Factor V levels
C. Factor VIII levels
D. Antithrombin III levels

A

Protein C levels
*Vitamin-dependent

**All other choices are Vitamin-independent

79
Q

Vitamin K absorption won’t take place if this substance is absent.

A. Carotene
B. Prothrombin
C. Insulin
D. Bile

A

Bile
**Vitamin K is a fat soluble vitamin that
is absorbed in the form of die

80
Q

HMWK means:

A. High Molecular Weight Kallikrein
B. High Molecular Weight Kininogen
C. High Molarity Weight Kallikrein
D. High Molarity Weight Kininogen

A

High Molecular Weight Kininogen

81
Q

If a child ingested rat poison, which of the following tests should be
performed to test the effect of the poison on the child’s coagulation
mechanism?

A. aPTT
B. PT
C. Fibrinogen assay
D. Thrombin time

A

PT
*According to Turgeon, rat poison is a coumarin containing substance which can prolong PT once this is ingested

82
Q

Presence of this insoluble protein in the circulation is abnormal

A. Fibrinogen
B. Fibrin
C. Cholesterol
D. Neutral fat

A

Fibrin
*If present, it could indicate an ongoing clotting or thrombosis

Fibrinogen
*soluble plasma glycoprotein

Cholesterol
*not typically considered as an insoluble protein

Neutral fat
**not typically considered as an insoluble protein

83
Q

The clot retraction test is:
(March 2023 recall)

A. a visible reaction to the activation of
platelet actomyosin (thrombosthenin)
B. a reflection of the quantity and quality of platelets and other factors
C. a measurement of the ability of platelets to stick to glass
D. a measurement of the cloudiness of blood

A

a reflection of the quantity and quality of platelets and other factors

84
Q

In rumpel-leed test, what should be observed after 5 minutes of maintaining the inflated pressure?

A. Ecchymosis (aka Bruising)
B. Petechiae
C. Hematoma
D. Menorrhagia

A

Petechiae
*Tourniquet method/ Capillary Fragility test/ Capillary Resistance test

Menorrhagia
*menstrual bleeding/ heavy bleeding

85
Q

It is used to neutralize heparin therapy.

A. Heparan sulfate
B. FFP
C. Protamine sulfate
D. Any of them

A

Protamine sulfate

Heparan sulfate
*cofactor for antithrombin III

FFP
*blood product

86
Q

Which of the choices below is the most common inherited vascular bleeding disorder?

A. Osler-Weber-Rendu Disease
B. Cutis hyperelastica
C. Senile Pupura
D. Marfan’s syndrome

A

Osler-Weber-Rendu Disease

Cutis hyperelastica
*Ehlers-Danlos syndrome; rare

Senile Pupura
*common in elderly people

Marfan’s syndrome
*rare bleeding disorder

87
Q

The sample collected was less than the required ratio (9:1 or 90% blood,
10% anticoagulant). What would be the error?

A. Specimen clotting
*can be due to inadequate mixing &
improper collection
B. Hemolysis
*breakdown of RBCs
C. Short draw
D. Lipemia

A

Short draw

Specimen clotting
*can be due to inadequate mixing &
improper collection

Hemolysis
*breakdown of RBCs

88
Q

A specimen is received for a prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time. The 5 mL tube has 2.5 mL of blood in it. Expected test results are

A. PT and aPTT both falsely short
B. PT and aPTT both falsely long
C. PT and aPTT both unaffected
D. PT unaffected, APTT falsely short

A

PT and aPTT both falsely long
*9:1 blood to anticoagulant ratio was
not met.

89
Q

How many platelets per oil immersion field should be observed
in order to evaluate normal platelet number in an appropriate area of a blood smear?

a. 7-11
b. 4-17
c. 8-20
d. 20-40

A

8-20

90
Q

In counting thrombocytes, which is
used?

A. 4 mm2
B. 1 mm2
C. 4 cm
D. 1 cm
*cm unit is not used when counting
blood cells

A

1 mm2

4 mm2
*WBC

*cm unit is not used when counting blood cells

91
Q

A standard 4.5-mL blue-top tube filled with 3.0mL of blood was submitted to the laboratory for PT and APTT tests. The sample is from a patient undergoing surgery the following morning for a tonsillectomy. Which of
the following is the necessary course of
action by the technologist?

A. Run both tests in duplicate and report
the average result
B. Reject the sample and request a new sample
C. Report the PT result
D. Report the APTT result

A

Reject the sample and request a new sample

*PT and PTT results cannot be reported
because the sample was insufficient, and
results might not be accurate.

92
Q

A clotting factor that is considered as an acute-phase reactant and is a
labile factor wherein within 12 hours, a 50% loss may be expected.

A. Factor VII
B. Factor VIII
C. Factor I
D. Factor III

A

Factor VIII

Factor VII
*also, Factor XI prematurely activate
when stored at a cold temperature

93
Q

It is the physiologically active form calcium

A. Ionized calcium
B. Deionized calcium
C. Heparinized calcium
D. Calcium has no active form

A

Ionized calcium

94
Q

The medical technologist collected a blood sample at 8 am. This is subjected for Prothrombin time. The MT processed the sample at 10 am the next day.

A. Sample should be recollected
because PT should be processed
within 24 hours
B. Sample is still acceptable
C. Sample should be centrifuged for it
to be acceptable
D. None of the choices

A

Sample should be recollected because PT should be processed
within 24 hours

95
Q

In unopipette systeme, which anticoagulant is more preferred?
A. Citrate
B. Heparin
C. EDTA
D. Any of these

A

EDTA

HEMA (6 decks)

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