HEMA by Ms. Deborde Flashcards by Dead Braincells

All the following items should be discarded in a puncture-resistant
container, EXCEPT:

A. Transfer pipette
B. Needles
C. Broken Glass
D. None of the choices

None of the choices

*Anything that could cause puncture similar
to a needle should be discarded in a
puncture-resistant container.

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Most preferred anticoagulant in platelet count

A. EDTA
B. Citrate
C. Heparin
D. Non-additive

EDTA

Citrate
*For coagulation/platelet studies

Heparin
*viral culture; a natural anticoagulant

Non-additive
*chemistry tests

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When do you release the tourniquet if sufficient blood is collected?
(MARCH 2023 & AUGUST 2023 RECALL)

A. As soon as there is blood flow
B. Before withdrawing the needle
C. Before drawing blood
D. After the first tube is filled

A. As soon as there is blood flow
B. Before withdrawing the needle

*The answer depends on which reference is
used. But, either of the two is considered
correct. READ CAREFULLY.

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Stromal cells are formed when mesenchymal cells move into the bone’s central cavity. Stromal cells include the following EXCEPT:

A. Fat cells
B. Cytokines
C. Fibroblasts
D. Float cells

Float cells

*There’s no such thing as FLOAT CELL. Stromal cells include endothelial cells,
adipocytes (fat cells), macrophages and
lymphocytes, osteoblasts, osteoclasts, and reticular adventitial cells (fibroblasts).

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Which of the following cleansing technique is considered as superior?

A. Concentric circles
* Old preference/practice
B. Back and forth
C. Both of them
D. Any of them

Back and forth

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If a blood specimen is spilled on a laboratory bench or floor area, the
first step in cleanup should be

A. wear gloves and a lab coat
B. absorb blood with disposable towels
C. clean with freshly prepared 1%
chlorine solution
D. wash with water

absorb blood with disposable towels

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A blood cuff used as an alternative tourniquet should be inflated at:

A. 40 mmHg
B. 50 mmHg
C. 60 mmHg
D. 100 mmHg

60 mmHg

40 mmHg
*Ivy’s method

50 mmHg
*Capillary Resistance test; 10 mins

100 mmHg
*Capillary Resistance test; 5 mins

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It results when a large amount of fluid leaks around the puncture site
that could lead to swelling.

A. Purpura
B. Petechiae
C. Hematoma
D. Ecchymosis

Hematoma

Purpura
*round purplish spots, bigger than petechiae

Petechiae
*purplish red PINPOINT

Ecchymosis
*Bruising; leakage of SMALL amount of blood

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Which of the following may be used as a substitute for blood clotting closure to correct the phenomenon called platelet satellitism?

A. Green ET
B. Pink ET
C. Gray ET
D. EDTA

Green ET

Pink ET
*usually used for Blood bank tests

Gray ET
*not associated with this
phenomenon

EDTA
*could cause platelet satellitism

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Most suitable stain to visualize reticulocytes is:

A. New Methylene blue
B. Methylene blue
C. Romanowsky stain
D. Feulgen stain

New Methylene blue

Methylene blue
*simple stain

Feulgen stain
*does not stain retics

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Referred to as the “graveyard” of RBCS and considered as the largest
lymphoid organ

A. Lymph node
B. Bone Marrow
C. Spleen
D. Liver

Spleen

Lymph node
*a lymphoid organ but is not the largest

Bone Marrow
*in medullary phase, hematopoiesis begins

Liver
*not a major site of RBC production

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A RBC precursor where hemoglobin appears for the first time and has
wheel with broad spoke chromatin pattern

A. Rubriblast
B. Prorubricyte
C. Rubricyte
D. None of the choices

None of the choices

Rubriblast
*earliest recognizable precursor

Prorubricyte
*Broad spoke chromatin pattern

Rubricyte
*hemoglobin appears for the first time

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In the blood smear of a patient suffering from megaloblastic anemia, the erythrocyte
abnormalities that would be observed include:
I. Howell-Jolly bodies
II. Basophilic stippling
III. Hypersegmented neutrophils
IV. Hyposegmented neutrophils

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4

1 and 3

**3 and 4 are LEUKOCYTE abnormalities;
**Howell-Jolly bodies – nuclear remnants of DNA
**Basophilic stippling – blue-berry bagel
appearance

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Which of the following statements below concerning Sickle Cell Anemia is not true?

A. It is characterized by a normal MCV and
increased RDW.
B. Drepanocytes are an expected finding in
this condition
C. One can observe a low reticulocyte count in this condition.
D. One should use hemoglobin
electrophoresis in confirming the presence of this disorder.

One can observe a low reticulocyte count in this condition.

It is characterized by a normal MCV and
increased RDW.
*Sickle Cell Anemia (Normo, normo)

Drepanocytes are an expected finding in
this condition
*Drepanocytes = Sickle cells

One should use hemoglobin
electrophoresis in confirming the presence of this disorder.
*Citrate Agar Hgb Electrophoresis is a
confirmatory test for the presence of Hgb S

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Which of the following correctly describes primitive erythropoiesis?
(RECALL MARCH 2023)

A. Blood islands
B. Beginning of definitive
hematopoiesis
*Hepatic phase
C. Hb A is the most predominant
hemoglobin
*For medullary phase
D. Seen in compensatory state

Blood islands

Beginning of definitive
hematopoiesis
*Hepatic phase

Hb A is the most predominant
hemoglobin
*For medullary phase

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EPO is the primary regulator of Erythropoiesis. Which of the following produces EPO?

A. Liver
B. Kidneys
C. Both of them
D. Neither of the two

Both of them

NOTE: Primary organ that produces EPO is KIDNEYS

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The majority of iron found in an adult is a constituent of

A. Ferritin
B. Myoglobin
C. Hemoglobin
D. Peroxidase

Hemoglobin

Ferritin
*stores iron

Myoglobin
* aids in storing oxygen in the muscles

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1st statement: Hephaestin is a
copper-containing oxidase enzyme that oxidizes iron as it exits the enterocyte.
2nd statement: Erythrocytes are
specialized cells that contain hemoglobin that carries oxygen to the
tissues. It also stores iron, an essential
component of RBC.

A. Both statements are correct
B. Both statements are incorrect
C. Only the 1st statement is correct
D. Only the 2nd statement is correct

Only the 1st statement is correct

*2nd statement is incorrect because
hemoglobin does not store iron

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Which of the following conditions shows a decreased level of ESR?

A. Polycythemia
B. Anemia
C. Multiple myeloma
D. Leukemia

Polycythemia

Anemia
*Increased ESR

Multiple myeloma
*Increased ESR

Leukemia
*Increased ESR

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IDA and ACD are likely to have the same laboratory results. But, which of the following parameter differs the two?

A. Serum Iron
B. Serum ferritin
C. Serum TIBC
D. ZPP

Serum TIBC

*IDA = Increased TIBC
*ACD = Decreased ACD

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Which of the following is a folded cell?

A. Hemoglobin C
B. Hemoglobin E
C. Hemoglobin D
D. Hemoglobin A

Hemoglobin C

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Hemoglobin H disease

A. α -, - -
B. –,αα
*Alpha thalassemia minor
C. -α, αα
*Silent carrier
D. –,–
*Hydrops fetalis

α -, - -

–,αα
*Alpha thalassemia minor

-α, αα
*Silent carrier

–,–
*Hydrops fetalis

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Reticulocyte count is commonly visualized using a supravital stain,
specifically______:

A. New methylene blue
B. Methylene blue
C. Thiazole dye
D. Both A and B

New methylene blue

NOTE: NMB and Methylene blue are not
the same. They have different chemical
composition

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What is the formula used for computing the adjustment for the
amount of sodium citrate?

A. 100-Hct/595-Hct x ml of WB
B. (1.85 x 10-3)(100-Hct)(Vol of WB)
C. Either of the two
D. Neither of the two

Either of the two

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Mean Cell Volume (MCV) is calculated using the following formula A. (Hgb ÷ RBC) × 10 B. (Hct ÷ RBC) × 10 C. (Hgb ÷ Hct) × 100 D. (Hgb ÷ RBC) × 100

(Hct ÷ RBC) × 10

In the 5 RBC central squares, 350 cells were counted. A dilution of 1:100 is used. What would be the RBC count? A. 1,750/ul B. 1,750,000/ml C. 1,750,000/ul D. 17,500,000/ul

1,750,000/ul Formula: Total cells ctd. x df area ctd. X depth Solution: 350 x 100 0.2 x 0.1 Answer: 1, 750, 000/ul

Cytokine that can be used for allergy treatment, adjuvants, and asthma A. IL-3 B. IL-2 C. IL-6 D. IL-12

IL-12 IL-3 *proliferation of HSC IL-2 *cell growth of T cells IL-6 *cytokine production

The most abundant leukocyte in the blood smear of a healthy adult person is the: A. Monocyte B. Lymphocyte C. Neutrophils D. Basophils

Neutrophils Lymphocyte *predominant WBC in children Basophils *least concentrated WBC

Which WBC is predominantly seen in stool specimen? A. Neutrophils B. Eosinophils *rarely observed in stool specimens C. Basophils *rarely observed in stool specimens D. None of the choices

Neutrophils Eosinophils *rarely observed in stool specimens Basophils *rarely observed in stool specimens

The least concentrated leukocyte remains in the maturation phase for how long? A. 8 hours B. 12 hours C. 24 hours D. 6 days

12 hours 8 hours *lifespan of Basophil sa peripheral blood 24 hours *promyelocyte stage only lasts for 24 hours 6 days *Transit time of neutrophil from myeloblast through myelocyte

In WHO classification, defines that presence of ____ blast in the PBS classifies acute leukemia. A. 10% B. 20% C. 30% D. 40%

20% 30% *FAB Classification ALL L1 ✓ Lymphoblasts are small, homogenous. MOST COMMON CHILDHOOD ALL ✓ Best prognosis ALL L2 ✓ Lymphoblasts are large, heterogenous. ✓ COMMON IN ADULTS ALL L3 ✓ BURKIT-TYPE LEUKEMIA ✓ Rare in children & adults ✓ Poor prognosis

A normal WBC would give a ____ color in NBT A. BLUE B. YELLOW *colorless/yellow colored-reaction in NBT may indicate presence of CGD C. PINK D. RED

BLUE YELLOW *colorless/yellow colored-reaction in NBT may indicate presence of CGD

Placenta A. Type A cells B. Hoffbauer cells C. Mesangial cells D. Langherhans cell

Hoffbauer cells

Kidneys A. Type A cells B. Hoffbauer cells C. Mesangial cells D. Langerhans cell

Mesangial cells

Which diseases are involved in abnormal functions of leukocytes? 1. May-hegglin anomaly 2. Hurler’s disease 3. Hyperimmunoglobulin E syndrome 4. Chronic Granulomatous disease A. 1,3,4 B. 1,2 C. 2,4 D. 3,4

3,4 **May-hegglin anomaly & Hurler’s disease = abnormal cytoplasm **Hyperimmunoglobulin E syndrome (Job’s syndrome) = characterized by abnormal chemotactic activity **CGD = No respiratory burst

RBC MASS: Normal EPO: Normal HCT: Increase A. Absolute Polycythemia B. Relative polycythemia C. Leukemoid reaction D. CML

Relative polycythemia

Chronic smokers has elevated count of which leukocyte? A. Eosinophil B. Neutrophil C. Basophil D. Macrophage

Neutrophil

the nuclear envelope disassembles, the centrosomes move to opposite poles of the cell and serve as a point of origin of the mitotic spindle fibers; the sister chromatids attach to the mitotic spindle fibers. A. Prometaphase B. Prophase C. Metaphase D. Telophase

Prometaphase Prophase *duplicate centrosomes beam to separate Metaphase *sister chromatids align on the mitotic spindle Telophase *reassembling of nuclear membrane

Nucleated RBCs are immature cells that still contain nucleus. These cells may falsely elevate the count of which blood cell? A. RBC B. WBC C. Platelet D. ALL OF THE ABOVE

WBC

At least how many NRBCs should be present in an adult so that correction would be performed? A. 5 NRBCs B. 10 NRBCs C. 15 NRBCs D. 20 NRBCs

5 NRBCs 10 NRBCs *Children

After the differential count is performed, the Medtech counted 78 neutrophils. The total WBC count is 4x109/L. Compute the absolute count using which formula? A. Relative WBC ct x Total RBC ct B. Total RBC ct. x Lymphocyte ct. C. Relative WBC ct. x Total WBC ct. D. Lymphocyte ct./Total WBC ct

Relative WBC ct. x Total WBC ct.

It is advisable to count at least how many cells when WBC is greater than/equal 100 x 1012/L? A. 50 cells B. 200 cells C. 300 cells D. None of the choices

None of the choices *wrong exponent. Raise to 12 is used for RBC. *At least 300 cells should be counted when WBC is greater than or equal to 100 x 109/L *At least 200 cells should be counted when WBC is greater than or equal to 40 x 109/L

Compute for the LAP score Score No. of Neutrophils 0 14 1+ 15 2+ 35 3+ 29 4+ 7 A. 159 B. 201 C. 179 D. 214

201

Compute for the LAP score Score No. of Neutrophils 0 23 1+ 24 2+ 31 3+ 15 4+ 7 A. 143 B. 159 C. 162 D. 118

159

A WBC count is performed on a hemacytometer using a 1:20 dilution. 308 cells are seen in a total area of 8 mm2. What is the WBC count? A. 3.8X109/L B. 7.7X109/L C. 15.4X109/L D. 38.5X109/L

7.7X109/L Formula: Total cells ctd. x df area ctd. X depth Solution: 308 x 20 8 x 0.1 Answer: 7, 700 or 7.7 x 109/L

In the thrombopoiesis, it is considered as the first recognizable stage. A. Promegakaryocyte B. Megakaryocyte C. Megarkaryoblast D. Platelet

Megarkaryoblast Promegakaryocyte *2nd stage Megakaryocyte *Granular = fine & diffused *Mature = coarsed clump cytoplasm

The maturational sequence of the thrombocyte is: A. megakaryoblast— promegakaryocyte— megakaryocyte— metamegakaryocyte—thrombocyte B. promegakaryocyte— megakaryocyte— metamegakaryocyte—thrombocyte C. megakaryoblast— promegakaryocyte— megakaryocyte—thrombocyte D. megakaryoblast— promegakaryocyte— metamegakaryocyte—thrombocyte

megakaryoblast— promegakaryocyte— megakaryocyte—thrombocyte

Which of the following is expressed by platelets? I. GPIIb/IIIa II. CD4 III. VN receptor IV. CD8 A. I, III B. II, III C. I, IV D. II, IV

I, III *CD4 and CD8 are expressed by T cells *GpIIb/IIIa & VN receptor – platelet aggregation & adhesion

Which thrombocyte stage has the following characteristics? Nucleus: Round Chromatin: Homogenous Demarcation system: Present A. MK-I B. MK-II C. MK-III D. MK-IV

MK-I

1st statement: All thrombocyte maturation stages have demarcation system 2nd statement: The major source of energy of platelet is a nonreducing sugar. A. Both statements are correct B. Both statements are incorrect C. Only the first statement is correct D. Only the second statement is correct

Only the first statement is correct NOTE: Glucose/Dextrose is the major source of energy of platelet. It is a REDUCING sugar.

1st statement: In hemostasis, failed delta checks should also encompass a review of specimen collection errors. 2nd statement: Plasma coagulation is the second component of hemostasis A. Both statements are correct B. Both statements are incorrect C. Only the first statement is correct D. Only the second statement is correct

Both statements are correct

Which of the following is considered as the most frequently used intravenous anticoagulant? A. Sodium fluoride *previously inhibits glycolysis B. Heparin C. Warfarin *prevents formation of blood clots D. EDTA *most commonly used anticoagulant in Hematology

Heparin Sodium fluoride *previously inhibits glycolysis Warfarin *prevents formation of blood clots EDTA *most commonly used anticoagulant in Hematology

In primary hemostasis, which of the following actions come first? A. Vasodilation B. Vasoconstriction C. Platelet adhesion D. Platelet activation

Vasoconstriction

It is a key collagen receptor that binds thrombospondin, an adhesive protein. A. GP IIb/IIIa *platelet aggregation B. GP Ib/IX/V *platelet adhesion C. GP VI D. VWF *carrier protein for Factor VIII

GP VI GP IIb/IIIa *platelet aggregation GP Ib/IX/V *platelet adhesion VWF *carrier protein for Factor VIII

Cyclooxygenase is a lipid signaling molecule that plays a key role in prostaglandin synthesis. Which of the following is converted by this molecule into prostaglandin? A. Thyroxine B. Arachidonic acid C. G proteins D. Oxygen

Arachidonic acid

In primary hemostasis, these cells are the key player in response to injury of the subendothelium. A. Platelets B. Coagulation factors C. WBC D. RBC

Platelets Coagulation factors *plays an important role in blood clotting WBC *plays a crucial role in the body’s defense against foreign pathogens RBC *transports oxygen to the rest of the body

It is defined as the vascular “tensed” factor which relaxes the smooth muscle and inhibits platelet activation: A. Prostacyclin *vasodilator B. Nitric oxide *should be the answer if the term used was ‘RELAXED’ not ‘TENSED’ C. Thrombomodulin *cofactor of thrombin D. None of the choices

None of the choices Prostacyclin *vasodilator Nitric oxide *should be the answer if the term used was ‘RELAXED’ not ‘TENSED’ Thrombomodulin *cofactor of thrombin

A complex system of procoagulant activities and control activities to contain and limit clot formation A. Primary Hemostasis B. Secondary hemostasis C. Fibrinolysis D. None of the choices

Secondary hemostasis Primary Hemostasis *formation of hemostatic plugs Fibrinolysis *process of breaking down fibrin clot

Which of the following lists the steps of the hemostatic response in the correct order? A. Fibrinolysis → injury_→ secondary hemostasis → primary hemostasis B. Injury → primary hemostasis → secondary hemostasis → fibrinolysis C. Injury → secondary hemostasis → primary hemostasis → fibrinolysis D. Injury → fibrinolysis → primary hemostasis → secondary hemostasis

Injury → primary hemostasis → secondary hemostasis → fibrinolysis

It coats the endothelial cell surface and weakly enhances activity of anti-thrombin III A. Prostacyclin B. Thrombomodulin C. Heparan Sulfate D. Protamine Sulfate

Heparan Sulfate

1st statement: Pour wound healing can be due to excess hemostasis 2nd statement: An excess fibrinolysis, on the other hand, may cause clot extension A. Both statements are incorrect B. Both statements are correct C. Only the 1st statement is correct D. Only the 2nd statement is correct

Both statements are incorrect

The hemorrhagic problems associated with scurvy are due to a deficiency of which of the following? A. Vitamin C B. Prothrombin C. Vitamin K D. Protein C

Vitamin C Vitamin K *bleeding disorder Protein C *deficiency is associated with purpura fulminans

The physician suspected that his 45-year-old patient has Chronic liver disease. The most useful test to order is: A. Platelet count B. Prothrombin time C. 5.0 M urea solubility test D. Bleeding time

Bleeding time Platelet count *quantitative Prothrombin time *Secondary hemostasis 5.0 M urea solubility test *FXIII deficiency

Hereditary Afibrogenemia, Essential thrombia, and Uremia are defects of which platelet function? A. Platelet adhesion *Bernard-Soulier syndrome *VWF B. Platelet aggregation C. Platelet secretion *Storage pool diseases D. Passive surveillance

Platelet aggregation Platelet adhesion *Bernard-Soulier syndrome *VWF Platelet secretion *Storage pool diseases

Normal aggregation with Epinephrine, Collagen, ADP; Abnormal aggregation with Ristocettin. A. Glanzmann thrombasthenia B. VWD C. Both of the choices D. None of the choices

VWD Glanzmann thrombasthenia *Ristocettin: Normal *Epinephrine, Collagen, ADP: Abnormal

It is the most prevalent congenital bleeding disorder. A. Bernard-Soulier Syndrome B. Von Willebrand Factor C. Either of the two D. Neither of the two

Neither of the two **Most congenital bleeding disorder is VON WILLEBRAND DISEASE. VWF is different from VWD. Bernard-Soulier Syndrome *This is a very rare congenital bleeding disorder

An alpha-granule deficiency which is characterized by large platelets and shows an observable gray appearance in Wright’s stain. A. Gray platelet syndrome B. Quebec platelet disorder C. Wiskott Aldrich syndrome D. Hermansky Pudlak

Gray platelet syndrome Quebec platelet disorder *deficiency of multimerism Wiskott Aldrich syndrome *X-linked disorder Hermansky Pudlak *storage-pool deficiency

Which of the following clotting factors are not consumed during coagulation I. Fibrinogen II. Prothrombin III. Stuart-Prower factor IV. Fibrinoligase A. I,II,II,IV B. I,IV C. II,III D. II, IV

II,III Fibrinogen Group - Consumed during coagulation *Factors I, V, VIII, XIII Prothrombin Group - NOT consumed during coagulation *Factors 2, 7,9, 10

A clotting factor that functions as a cofactor A. Factor VII B. Factor X C. Factor V D. All of the above

Factor V Factor VII *inactive zymogen Factor X *inactive zymogen

Which clotting factor is not thrombin sensitive? A. Factor I B. Factor IX C. Factor VIII D. Factor V

Factor IX Fibrinogen Group - Thrombin sensitive *Factors I, V, VIII, XIII Prothrombin Group - NOT thrombin sensitive *Factors 2, 7,9, 10

APTT is a clot-based screening test wherein it is used to: A. To monitor patients undergoing Warfarin therapy B. To detect clotting factor deficiencies both in Extrinsic and Common pathway C. To monitor patients in Unfractionated Heparin therapy D. To detect only the clotting deficiencies in the INTRINSIC PATHWAY

To monitor patients in Unfractionated Heparin therapy A. To monitor patients undergoing Warfarin therapy *Prothrombin time B. To detect clotting factor deficiencies both in Extrinsic and Common pathway *Prothrombin time D. To detect only the clotting deficiencies in the INTRINSIC PATHWAY *Wrong! APTT can detect deficiencies both in the INTRINSIC and COMMON pathway

Which clotting factors are included in the intrinsic pathway? A. Factor III & VII B. Factor VIII & IX C. Either of the two D. Neither of the two

Factor VIII & IX

TCT = Normal; PT = Normal; PTT = Normal A. Factor I deficiency B. Lupus Anticoagulant C. Factor XIII deficiency D. Factor VII deficiency

Factor XIII deficiency

TCT = ABNORMAL; PT = ABNORMAL; PTT = ABNORMAL A. Fibrinogen deficiency B. Factor XIII deficiency C. Factor V deficiency D. Factor X deficiency

Fibrinogen deficiency

Prolonged PT and Normal PTT would be indicative of a deficiency in which coagulation pathway? A. Extrinsic pathway B. Intrinsic pathway C. Common pathway D. All pathways

Extrinsic pathway

Prothrombinase complex activates which of the following clotting factor? A. IX and X B. X only C. Prothrombin D. VIII

Prothrombin *Components of prothrombinase complex are Factors Va, Xa, Phospholipid, and Calcium

Series of enzymatic reactions beginning with activation of factor VII by tissue factor (extrinsic pathway) or factor XII by a negatively charged surface (intrinsic pathway) and proceeding through the common pathway to the formation of an insoluble fibrin clot. A. Coagulation cascade B. Coagulation factors *Part of the cascade C. Hematopoiesis *process of blood cell production D. Protein metabolism

Coagulation cascade Coagulation factors *Part of the cascade Hematopoiesis *process of blood cell production

A 60-year-old patient is currently on Warfarin therapy. Which of the following laboratory test will be affected? A. Protein C levels B. Factor V levels C. Factor VIII levels D. Antithrombin III levels

Protein C levels *Vitamin-dependent **All other choices are Vitamin-independent

Vitamin K absorption won’t take place if this substance is absent. A. Carotene B. Prothrombin C. Insulin D. Bile

Bile **Vitamin K is a fat soluble vitamin that is absorbed in the form of die

HMWK means: A. High Molecular Weight Kallikrein B. High Molecular Weight Kininogen C. High Molarity Weight Kallikrein D. High Molarity Weight Kininogen

High Molecular Weight Kininogen

If a child ingested rat poison, which of the following tests should be performed to test the effect of the poison on the child’s coagulation mechanism? A. aPTT B. PT C. Fibrinogen assay D. Thrombin time

PT *According to Turgeon, rat poison is a coumarin containing substance which can prolong PT once this is ingested

Presence of this insoluble protein in the circulation is abnormal A. Fibrinogen B. Fibrin C. Cholesterol D. Neutral fat

Fibrin *If present, it could indicate an ongoing clotting or thrombosis Fibrinogen *soluble plasma glycoprotein Cholesterol *not typically considered as an insoluble protein Neutral fat **not typically considered as an insoluble protein

The clot retraction test is: (March 2023 recall) A. a visible reaction to the activation of platelet actomyosin (thrombosthenin) B. a reflection of the quantity and quality of platelets and other factors C. a measurement of the ability of platelets to stick to glass D. a measurement of the cloudiness of blood

a reflection of the quantity and quality of platelets and other factors

In rumpel-leed test, what should be observed after 5 minutes of maintaining the inflated pressure? A. Ecchymosis (aka Bruising) B. Petechiae C. Hematoma D. Menorrhagia

Petechiae *Tourniquet method/ Capillary Fragility test/ Capillary Resistance test Menorrhagia *menstrual bleeding/ heavy bleeding

It is used to neutralize heparin therapy. A. Heparan sulfate B. FFP C. Protamine sulfate D. Any of them

Protamine sulfate Heparan sulfate *cofactor for antithrombin III FFP *blood product

Which of the choices below is the most common inherited vascular bleeding disorder? A. Osler-Weber-Rendu Disease B. Cutis hyperelastica C. Senile Pupura D. Marfan’s syndrome

Osler-Weber-Rendu Disease Cutis hyperelastica *Ehlers-Danlos syndrome; rare Senile Pupura *common in elderly people Marfan’s syndrome *rare bleeding disorder

The sample collected was less than the required ratio (9:1 or 90% blood, 10% anticoagulant). What would be the error? A. Specimen clotting *can be due to inadequate mixing & improper collection B. Hemolysis *breakdown of RBCs C. Short draw D. Lipemia

Short draw Specimen clotting *can be due to inadequate mixing & improper collection Hemolysis *breakdown of RBCs

A specimen is received for a prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time. The 5 mL tube has 2.5 mL of blood in it. Expected test results are A. PT and aPTT both falsely short B. PT and aPTT both falsely long C. PT and aPTT both unaffected D. PT unaffected, APTT falsely short

PT and aPTT both falsely long *9:1 blood to anticoagulant ratio was not met.

How many platelets per oil immersion field should be observed in order to evaluate normal platelet number in an appropriate area of a blood smear? a. 7-11 b. 4-17 c. 8-20 d. 20-40

8-20

In counting thrombocytes, which is used? A. 4 mm2 B. 1 mm2 C. 4 cm D. 1 cm *cm unit is not used when counting blood cells

1 mm2 4 mm2 *WBC *cm unit is not used when counting blood cells

A standard 4.5-mL blue-top tube filled with 3.0mL of blood was submitted to the laboratory for PT and APTT tests. The sample is from a patient undergoing surgery the following morning for a tonsillectomy. Which of the following is the necessary course of action by the technologist? A. Run both tests in duplicate and report the average result B. Reject the sample and request a new sample C. Report the PT result D. Report the APTT result

Reject the sample and request a new sample *PT and PTT results cannot be reported because the sample was insufficient, and results might not be accurate.

A clotting factor that is considered as an acute-phase reactant and is a labile factor wherein within 12 hours, a 50% loss may be expected. A. Factor VII B. Factor VIII C. Factor I D. Factor III

Factor VIII Factor VII *also, Factor XI prematurely activate when stored at a cold temperature

It is the physiologically active form calcium A. Ionized calcium B. Deionized calcium C. Heparinized calcium D. Calcium has no active form

Ionized calcium

The medical technologist collected a blood sample at 8 am. This is subjected for Prothrombin time. The MT processed the sample at 10 am the next day. A. Sample should be recollected because PT should be processed within 24 hours B. Sample is still acceptable C. Sample should be centrifuged for it to be acceptable D. None of the choices

Sample should be recollected because PT should be processed within 24 hours

In unopipette systeme, which anticoagulant is more preferred? A. Citrate B. Heparin C. EDTA D. Any of these

EDTA