Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Clin Med I Disease Key Notes > Hem/Imm (Final Exam) > Flashcards

Hem/Imm (Final Exam) Flashcards

1
Q

What is considered anemia in men? In women?

A
  • Men: Hb <14

- Women: Hb <12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the normal Hb:Hct ratio?

A

Hb:Hct = 1:3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the three likely causes of anemia if there is decreased RBC production?

A
  • Nutritional deficiencies (iron, B12/folate)

- Chronic disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the likely cause of anemia if there is increased RBC destruction?

A

Hemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the three likely causes of anemia if there is blood loss?

A
  • Menstruation
  • GI
  • Trauma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are four signs of anemia?

A
  • Pallor
  • Heme in stool
  • Orthostatic changes
  • Tachycardia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are six symptoms of anemia?

A
  • Fatigue
  • Weakness
  • Headache
  • Dizziness
  • Dyspnea
  • Palpitations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the three causes of microcytic anemia?

A
  • Iron deficiency anemia
  • Thalassemia anemia
  • Sideroblastic anemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the three causes of normocytic anemia?

A
  • Chronic disease
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Liver disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the two causes of macrocytic anemia?

A
  • Folate deficiency

- Vitamin B12 deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the most common cause of anemia worldwide?

A

Iron Deficiency Anemia (IDA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the most common cause of Iron Deficiency Anemia (IDA) in adults?

A

Blood loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What type of anemia involves atrophic glossitis, angular cheilitis, koilonychia; pica?

A

Iron Deficiency Anemia (IDA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What type of anemia has labs that show:

  • Low MCV (low RBCs, Hb, Hct)
  • Low Serum Fe
  • High TIBC
  • Low Ferritin
  • High RDW
A

Iron Deficiency Anemia (IDA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What type of anemia has a peripheral smear that shows Microcytic, hypochromic RBCs; anisocytosis, poikilocytosis?

A

Iron Deficiency Anemia (IDA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the recommended treatment for Iron Deficiency Anemia (IDA)?

A

Oral ferrous sulfate 325 mg TID daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What type anemia can lead to ineffective erythropoiesis and hemolysis (low RBC production and high RBC destruction) and then bone changes, impaired growth, iron overload?

A

Thalassemia Anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What type of anemia shows:

  • VERY low MCV
  • Normal/high Serum Fe
  • Normal/low TIBC
  • Normal/high Ferritin
  • Normal RDW
A

Thalassemia Anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What type of anemia uses Hemoglobin Electrophoresis to help with diagnosis?

A

Thalassemia Anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What type of anemia involves ONE beta-globin chain dysfunction; asymptomatic?

A

Beta Thalassemia Minor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What type of anemia involves BOTH beta-globin chains dysfunction, but less severe?

A

Beta Thalassemia Intermedia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What type of anemia involves BOTH beta-globin chains dysfunction but more severe?

A

Beta Thalassemia Major

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What type of anemia involves severe hemolytic anemia and is transfusion-dependent?

A

Beta Thalassemia Major

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What type of anemia is acquired more common in adults; often a variant of myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS)?

A

Sideroblastic Anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What type of anemia involves Bone Marrow Aspirate that shows ring sideroblasts?

A

Sideroblastic Anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What type of anemia involves systemic iron overload?

A

Sideroblastic Anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the second most common cause of anemia worldwide?

A

Anemia of Chronic Anemia (ACD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What type of anemia involves hepcidin-induced alterations of iron metabolism?

A

Anemia of Chronic Anemia (ACD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What type of anemia shows:

  • Normal MCV
  • Normal/low Serum Fe – low due to inflammation
  • Normal/low TIBC – low due to inflammation
  • Normal/high Ferritin
A

Anemia of Chronic Anemia (ACD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

If reticulocyte count is HIGH with macrocytic anemia, what two causes should be considered?

A
  • Hemorrhage

- Hemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

If reticulocyte count is LOW with macrocytic anemia, what two causes should be considered?

A

Megaloblastic:

  • B12 deficiency
  • Folate deficiency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What type of anemia involves anemia-related symptoms plus glossitis, vague GI (NO neuro issues)?

A

Folic Acid Deficiency Anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What type of anemia shows:

  • High MCV
  • Low serum folate level
  • High homocysteine
  • Normal serum MMA
A

Folic Acid Deficiency Anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What TWO types of anemia shows macro-ovalocytes, hypersegmented neutrophils on peripheral smear?

A
  • Folic Acid Deficiency Anemia

- Vitamin B12 Deficiency Anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What should ALWAYS be ruled out with Folic Acid Deficiency Anemia?

A

RULE OUT CO-EXISTING B12 DEFICIENCY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the most common cause of Vitamin B12 Deficiency Anemia?

A

Pernicious Anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Where is folate absorbed in the body? Where is B12 absorbed in the body?

A
  • Folate: jejunum

- Vitamin B12: ileum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What type of anemia can be caused by decreased intake (vegan), medications (Metformin), malabsorption (elderly)?

A

Vitamin B12 Deficiency Anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What type of anemia involves anemia-related symptoms plus glossitis, vague GI, atrophic glossitis; NEURO?

A

Vitamin B12 Deficiency Anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What type of anemia is associated with increased risk of gastric cancer?

A

Vitamin B12 Deficiency Anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the neuro symptoms in Vitamin B12 Deficiency Anemia caused by?

A

Defective myelin synthesis in CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What type of anemia shows:

  • High MCV
  • Low serum B12 level
  • High homocysteine
  • High MMA
A

Vitamin B12 Deficiency Anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Why can’t you treat B12 deficiency with folic acid only?

A

If B12 is not ALSO replaced, patient can develop serious, possibly irreversible neuro damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What group of anemias involve anemia-related plus jaundice, gallstones, dark urine?

A

Hemolytic Anemias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What type of anemias show:

  • High reticulocyte count
  • High unconjugated bilirubin
  • High LDH
  • Low haptoglobin
A

Hemolytic Anemias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What type of anemias shows immature RBCs (reticulocytes), nucleated RBCs, fragmented RBCs on peripheral smear?

A

Hemolytic Anemias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the difference between Extravascular Hemolysis and Intravascular Hemolysis (think location)?

What is another name of Intravascular Hemolysis?

A
  • Extravascular Hemolysis: RBC destruction in reticuloendothelial system (spleen)
  • Intravascular Hemolysis aka “Footstrike Hemolysis”: destruction of RBCs within blood stream
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What type of anemia involves pain crisis, acute chest syndrome?

A

Sickle Cell Anemia, (Hemolytic Anemia, EXTRA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What type of anemia involves o aplastic crisis associated with Parvovirus 19 infections (Fifth Disease)?

A

Sickle Cell Anemia, (Hemolytic Anemia, EXTRA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What type of anemia involves Howell-Jolly bodies?

A

Sickle Cell Anemia (Hemolytic Anemia, EXTRA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What type of anemia involves IgM (“cold” agglutinins) vs. IgG (“warm” agglutinins)?

A

Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA), (Hemolytic Anemia, EXTRA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What type of anemia can be caused by SLE, CLL, Mycoplasma, EBV?

A

Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA), (Hemolytic Anemia, EXTRA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What type of anemia involves a Positive Coombs Test (DAT)?

A

Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA), (Hemolytic Anemia, EXTRA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

How does treatment differ between “cold” and “warm” Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (AIHA), (Hemolytic Anemia, EXTRA)? What can both be treated with?

A

Both: Rituximab

  • Cold: avoid cold
  • Warm: STEROIDS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What symptom is most often associated with Hemolytic Transfusion Reaction (Hemolytic Anemia, INTRA)?

A

Fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What type of anemia involves pallor, jaundice, splenomegaly, dark urine at night/early morning?

A

Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria (Hemolytic Anemia, INTRA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What two pharmacologic treatments can often help Hemolytic Anemia? What type of surgery is often advised with Hemolytic Anemia?

A
  • Tx: steroids can help, Folic Acid supplements

- Surgery: splenectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What type of anemia uses the Osmotic Fragility Test diagnostically?

A

Hereditary Spherocytosis (Hemolytic Anemia, EXTRA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What type of anemia is often asymptomatic; may have mild jaundice/icterus, pigmented black gallstones, splenomegaly?

A

Hereditary Spherocytosis (Hemolytic Anemia, EXTRA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What type of anemia often shows pancytopenia (anemia/reticulocytopenia + leukopenia + thrombocytopenia)?

A

Aplastic Anemias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What type of anemia involves bone marrow that lacks precursor platelets, RBCs and WBCs?

A

Aplastic Anemias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is often the recommended treatment for Aplastic Anemias?

A

Bone marrow transplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What condition involves Virchow’s Triad? What are the three components?

A

Venous Thromboembolism

  • Stasis
  • Hypercoagulability
  • Vessel wall injury
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What condition is associated with Factor V Leiden mutation; Prothrombin gene mutation?

A

Venous Thromboembolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

For a DVT, what should be ordered next if there is a high Wells score? Moderate/low Wells score?

A
  • If high Wells: order compression ultrasound

- If moderate/low Wells: order D-Dimer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

For a DVT or PE, if D-Dimer was negative, what’s next? What if D-Dimer was positive?

A
  • If D-Dimer is negative, testing STOPS (<500 ng/mL)

- If D-Dimer is positive, order US for DVT, or CPTA for PE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is considered a POSITIVE D-Dimer test?

A

> 500 ng/mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is one of the most common risk factors for a DVT?

A

Previous thrombotic event

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are the two most common symptoms associated with a PE?

A
  • SOB

- Pleuritic pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

For a PE, what should be ordered next if there is a high Wells score? Moderate/low Wells score?

A
  • If high Wells: order CTPA

- If moderate/low Wells: apply PERC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

For a PE, what should be ordered next if there is a positive PERC score? Negative PERC score?

A
  • If PERC positive, order D-Dimer

- If PERC is negative, testing STOPS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the treatment for a patient with PE that has severe renal failure, a hemodynamically unstable PE, or has a massive iliofemoral DVT?

A

UFH (IV unfractionated heparin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

For a patient with PE that is pregnant or has active cancer, what is the DOC?

A

Lovenox (LMWH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is typically used for long-term anticoagulation therapy? What must be considered?

A

Warfarin

- Must monitor PT and INR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

To avoid the burden of PT/INR monitoring, what two groups of medications can be considered?

A
  • Oral Factor Xa inhibitors

- Oral thrombin inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is the recommended course of treatment for a DVT?PE that was provoked? Unprovoked?

A
  • Provoked (i.e. surgery): 3 months

- Unprovoked: consider longer therapy (6-12 months)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What course of treatment would be considered for 1st or recurrent episode of unprovoked proximal PE/symptomatic PE, or if underlying thrombophilia or active malignancy?

A

Lifelong treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is the one Anticoagulation Reversal Therapy we discussed in class?

A

aPCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What are the “clot busters” for DVT/PE and when are they used?

A

Thrombolytics

- Used for unstable PE patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What two treatments are used for unstable PE patients?

A
  • Thrombolytics

- Thrombectomy/Embolectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Under what four conditions might a patient now be considered for discharge home after diagnosis or DVT/PE?

A
  • Pain controlled
  • Compliant/reliable
  • Capable of administering injections if subQ tx
  • Pay for injectable agents while transitioning to oral Warfarin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What type of immune system is the first line of defense, rapid response (minutes/hours), non-specific defense, no memory?

A

Innate Immune System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What type of immune system is the second line of defense, more sophisticated response, highly specific, long-lasting response, develops memory with each exposure?

A

Acquired Immune System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What are the five steps associated with the complement system? What immune system is the complement system associated with?

A

Innate Immune System

  1. Activation via classical pathway
  2. Formation of enzyme C3 Convertase
  3. Opsonization and phagocytosis
  4. Inflammation
  5. Membrane Attack Complex (MAC) formation and lysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is the distribution of WBCs from most numerous → least (think of the mnemonic)?

A

Neutrophils → Lymphocytes → Monocytes → Eosinophils → Basophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What type of WBC is the first responder, most active against bacteria?

A

Neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What type of WBC is associated with a “left shift”, and what does this indicate?

A

Neutrophils

- “Left shift” on CBC = sign of acute bacterial infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What does Neutrophilia often indicate? Neutropenia?

A
  • Neutrophilia: high neutrophils = bacterial infection

- Neutropenia: low neutrophils = viral infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What type of WBC is the largest?

A

Monocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What type of WBC become tissue resident macrophages or dendritic cells; found in blood and SPLEEN?

A

Monocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What type of WBC is most active against large parasites; found in mucous membranes?

A

Eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What two types of WBCs release histamines?

A
  • Basophils

- Mast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What two types of WBCs are involved in the allergy response?

A
  • Eosinophils

- Basophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What type of WBCs are involves in anaphylaxis reactions?

A

Mast cells

95
Q

What lymphatic organ hosts B cell maturation?

A

Bone marrow (primary)

96
Q

What lymphatic organ hosts T cell maturation?

A

Thymus (primary)

97
Q

What lymphatic organ is largest; removes old RBCs, stores RBCs and recycles iron; synthesizes antibodies?

A

Spleen (secondary)

98
Q

What lymphatic organ has increased susceptibility to encapsulated bacteria (like Strep pneumoniae, H. influenzae and N. meningitidis)?

A

Spleen (secondary)

99
Q

What lymphatic organ filters foreign molecules and cancer cells?

A

Lymph nodes (secondary)

100
Q

What lymphatic organ is the 1st line of defense against ingested/inhaled pathogens; combats common cold?

A

Tonsils/Adenoids (secondary)

101
Q

What lymphatic organ attacks antigens passing through mucosal epithelium?

A

MALT (secondary)

102
Q

What are the two types of adaptive immunity?

A
  • Humoral

- Cell-Mediated

103
Q

What type of adaptive immunity involves antibody-mediated, B-lymphocyte cells, extracellular pathogens?

A

Humoral (Adaptive Immunity)

104
Q

What type of adaptive immunity involves direct cell-to-cell contact, T-lymphocyte cells, intracellular pathogens?

A

Cell-Mediated (Adaptive Immunity)

105
Q

What type of Adaptive Immunity involves ONE step activation? Which involves TWO step activation?

A
  • ONE: Humoral

- TWO: Cell-Mediated

106
Q

What type of antibody is the first responder, activates complement system, LARGE; NOT cross placenta?

107
Q

What type of antibody is the second responder; most abundant and longest half-life; good at opsonization?

108
Q

What type of antibody is found primarily in mucosal membranes?

109
Q

What type of antibody binds to mast cells → release of histamine?

110
Q

What type of immunity is obtained via breastfeeding or infusion?

A

Passive immunity

111
Q

What type of immunity is obtained via exposure to antigen OR vaccine?

A

Active immunity

112
Q

What is the growth pathway by which B cells and T cells progress (3 steps)?

A
  1. Immature (bone marrow)
  2. Mature naïve (bone marrow OR thymus)
  3. Activated (secondary lymph organs)
113
Q

Which type of cell is activated via TCR binds to MHC-antigen complex of antigen-presenting cell (APC), THEN TCR CD28 binds with B7, located on the APC?

114
Q

What type of T cell has CD4+ surface receptors; binds to MHC II?

A

Helper T cells

115
Q

What type of T cell has CD8+ surface receptors; binds to MHC I?

A

Cytotoxic T cells

116
Q

What type of T cell distinguish self vs. non-self?

A

Suppressor T cells

117
Q

What type of T cell recognizes antigens from previous exposures?

A

Memory T cells

118
Q

What type of cell are Antigen-Presenting Cells (APCs)?

A

ANY nucleated cell in body

119
Q

What is found on surface of ALL nucleated cells?

120
Q

What surface complex presents to cytotoxic T-cells (which contain CD8+ receptors)?

121
Q

What surface complex presents to helper T-cells (which contain CD4+ receptors)?

122
Q

What is found only on surface of B-cells, dendritic cells, macrophages?

123
Q

What are the three B symptoms?

A
  • Weight loss
  • Fever
  • Night sweats
124
Q

What is the most common acute leukemia in ADULTS (age 65 years)?

A

Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML)

125
Q

What is CA of bone marrow and lymphatic system?

A

Leukemia (4 types: AML, CML, ALL, CLL)

126
Q

What type of CA is associated with chemical exposure/radiation or myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS)?

A

Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML)

127
Q

What type of CA involves pancytopenia (reduced production of RBCs, WBCs, platelets); elevated LDH?

A

Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML)

128
Q

What type of CA involves Auer rods; leukemic blasts (>20% on bone marrow aspiration and biopsy)?

A

Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML)

129
Q

What condition involves risk for progression to AML?

A

Myelodysplastic Syndrome (MDS)

130
Q

What two conditions are often asymptomatic/found routinely on CBC?

A
  • Myelodysplastic Syndrome (MDS)

- Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML)

131
Q

What condition involves a tx of donor bone marrow transplant = only possible cure?

A

Myelodysplastic Syndrome (MDS)

132
Q

What condition is a oncologic emergency (high mortality)?

A

Tumor Lysis Syndrome

133
Q

What condition is often caused by chemotherapy initiation (<1 day); can be spontaneous?

A

Tumor Lysis Syndrome

134
Q

What type of CA is associated with BCR-ABL1/Philadelphia chromosome?

A

Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML)

135
Q

What type of CA involves ionizing radiation as a risk factor?

A

Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML)

136
Q

What is the most common phase of Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML)?

A

Chronic phase: most common

137
Q

What type of CA involves a tx of donor stem cell transplant = only possible cure?

A

Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML)

138
Q

What type of CA involves complications of tumor lysis syndrome; hyperviscosity syndrome; hyperleukocytosis = emergency?

A

Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML)

139
Q

What is the most common cancer in children/teens (age 2-5 years)?

A

Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia/Lymphoma (ALL)

140
Q

What type of ALL is most cases of childhood ALL?

A

Precursor B-cell ALL

141
Q

What type of ALL involves older age/mostly males; very high WBC count at dx?

A

T-cell ALL

142
Q

What type of ALL is also called Burkitt cell; favorable prognosis?

A

Mature B-cell ALL

143
Q

What type of CA involves LAD, hepatosplenomegaly, pallor, bone/MSK pain, fever?

A

Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia/Lymphoma (ALL)

144
Q

What type of CA shows lymphoblasts on peripheral smear and on bone marrow or tissue biopsy?

A

Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia/Lymphoma (ALL)

145
Q

What two conditions indicate a better diagnosis for Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia/Lymphoma (ALL)?

A
  • Child

- B-cell ALL

146
Q

What is the ONLY adult leukemia (age 70 years)?

A

Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL)

147
Q

What type of CA involves B-cell lymphocytosis?

A

Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL)

148
Q

How can you differentiate the two stages of Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL)?

A
  • Indolent stage: often asymptomatic

- Advanced stage/Terminal phase: inclusion of B symptoms

149
Q

What type of CA involves organomegaly (lymph, spleen, liver); skin involvement?

A

Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL)

150
Q

What is the only cancer that involves a tx of observation (that we discussed)? Under what conditions would this be considered?

A

Asymptomatic or early stage 1 Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL)

151
Q

What is the recommended treatment for symptomatic or advanced stage Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL)?

A

Rituximab/other monoclonal antibodies

152
Q

What type of CA begins in lymphocytes (lymph nodes, spleen, thymus, bone marrow, tonsils/adenoids)?

153
Q

What three symptoms present with both types of Lymphoma?

A
  • Painless LAD
  • Mediastinal mass
  • B symptoms
154
Q

What type of CA is associated with EBV as a risk factor?

A

Hodgkin Lymphoma (HL)

155
Q

In what age group is Hodgkin Lymphoma (HL) more common/ What about for Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma (NHL)?

A
  • Hodgkin Lymphoma (HL): 15-34 years

- Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma (NHL): 66 years

156
Q

What type of CA involves painless LAD, mediastinal mass, severe pain after alcohol, B symptoms, fatigue, pruritis/no rash?

A

Hodgkin Lymphoma (HL)

157
Q

What type of CA shows Reed-Sternberg cells (“popcorn” cells) on peripheral smear?

A

Hodgkin Lymphoma (HL)

158
Q

What type of CA can lead to other cancer or heart disease?

A

Hodgkin Lymphoma (HL)

159
Q

What type of CA has a worse prognosis if bilateral LAD, bulky disease, distant spread?

A

Hodgkin Lymphoma (HL)

160
Q

What type of CA involves extra lymph sites, painless LAD, mediastinal mass, B symptoms?

A

Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma (NHL)

161
Q

What type of CA is diagnosed by biopsy (prefer 2+ cm lymph nodes); CT/PET scan; bone marrow aspiration and biopsy (specifically discussed)?

A

Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma (NHL)

162
Q

What type of CA involves malignancy of plasma cells?

A

Multiple Myeloma (MM)

163
Q

In what population is Multiple Myeloma (MM) more common?

A

African Americans

164
Q

What type of CA involves back pain, neurologic changes, bone pain, fatigue?

A

Multiple Myeloma (MM)

165
Q

What type of CA shows paraproteins on Protein Electrophoresis?

A

Multiple Myeloma (MM)

166
Q

What type of CA involves an M spike? What does this indicate?

A 
Multiple Myeloma (MM)
- Early indication of malignancy
167
Q

What type of CA involves anemia (Rouleaux formation)?

A

Multiple Myeloma (MM)

168
Q

What type of CA involves Bence-Jones proteins in urine?

A

Multiple Myeloma (MM)

169
Q

What type of CA involves lytic lesions and generalized osteoporosis on axial skeleton x-ray?

A

Multiple Myeloma (MM)

170
Q

What type of CA involves CRAB (diagnostically), and what does each letter stand for?

A

Multiple Myeloma (MM)

  • Calcium
  • Renal
  • Anemia
  • Bony lesions
171
Q

What type of CA is associated with hyperviscosity syndrome?

A

Multiple Myeloma (MM)

172
Q

What is the treatment for Multiple Myeloma (MM)?

A

IV bisphosphonates

173
Q

What is the primary cause of Atherosclerosis?

A

Endothelial dysfunction

174
Q

What are the steps in Atherosclerosis?

A
  1. Fatty streak
  2. Fibrous plaque
  3. Atherosclerotic plaque (calcification)
  4. Plaque rupture/fissure with thrombosis
175
Q

What condition involves insufficient blood flow/O2 to meet metabolic demand due to thrombus or embolus?

176
Q

What condition is underdiagnosed but highly prevalent?

A

Peripheral Artery Disease (PAD)

177
Q

What condition is an independent mortality predictor?

A

Peripheral Artery Disease (PAD)

178
Q

What is the most common etiology of Peripheral Artery Disease (PAD)?

A

Atherosclerosis of LE

179
Q

What are the seven most common risk factors of Peripheral Artery Disease (PAD)?

A
  • HTN
  • DM
  • Dyslipidemia
  • Smoking
  • Age
  • Obesity
  • FH
180
Q

What condition involves a relationship between HBA1c and risk for amputation?

A

Peripheral Artery Disease (PAD)

181
Q

What condition involves claudication in calf (worse with exercise, better with rest; pain worse with elevation?

A

Peripheral Artery Disease (PAD)

182
Q

What condition involves Leriche syndrome? What are the three aspects of this syndrome?

A

Peripheral Artery Disease (PAD)

  • Claudication
  • Absent/diminished femoral pulses
  • ED
183
Q

What condition involves pallor with foot elevation, rubor when lowered; hairless skin; ulcers; diminished/absent pulses?

A

Peripheral Artery Disease (PAD)

184
Q

What condition uses Ankle-Brachial Index/ABI diagnostically? What is an abnormal result?

A

Peripheral Artery Disease (PAD)

- <0.90 with exertional symptoms

185
Q

What is the gold standard diagnostic test for Peripheral Artery Disease (PAD)?

A

CTA or MRA (MRA is more expensive/longer but better)

186
Q

What is the primary treatment for Peripheral Artery Disease (PAD)?

A

Lifestyle modifications and aggressive risk factor reduction

187
Q

What is the recommended treatment for claudication?

A

WALK (creates collateral blood flow)

188
Q

What condition involves possible treatment of endovascular (PTA +/- stents, atherectomy) or surgery (bypass graft)?

A

Peripheral Artery Disease (PAD)

189
Q

What two conditions are an EMERGENCY due to threatened limb?

A
  • Critical Limb Ischemia

- Acute Arterial Occlusion

190
Q

What condition involves ischemic rest pain: pain forefoot/toes aggravated by elevation (hang legs over side of bed); non-healing wounds/ulcers; gangrene?

A

Critical Limb Ischemia

191
Q

What is the recommended tx for Critical Limb Ischemia?

A

Endovascular vs. surgery urgently

192
Q

What is the most common cause of Acute Arterial Occlusion?

A

Thromboembolism

193
Q

What condition involves the 6 P’s, and what are they?

A

Acute Arterial Occlusion

  • Paresthesia
  • Pain (distal)
  • Pallor
  • Pulselessness
  • Poikilothermia/coolness
  • Paralysis
194
Q

What condition is caused by valvular incompetence OR DVT with residual vein damage?

A

Chronic Venous Insufficiency

195
Q

What condition involves late stage symptoms of significant edema, skin changes, ulcers?

A

Chronic Venous Insufficiency

196
Q

What condition involves telangiectasias, prominent superficial veins; stasis dermatitis; ulcerations; edema?

A

Chronic Venous Disease (CVD)

197
Q

What condition involves risk factors of older age, obesity, smoking, prior DVT, pregnancy, prior trauma, FH, standing occupation?

A

Chronic Venous Disease (CVD)

198
Q

What condition involves venous HTN → dysfunction of venous valves, failure of “venous pump”?

A

Chronic Venous Disease (CVD)

199
Q

What is pigmentation due to Hb byproduct? What condition is it associated with?

A

Hemosiderin staining

- Chronic Venous Disease (CVD)

200
Q

What condition involves lipodermatosclerosis and stasis dermatitis?

A

Chronic Venous Disease (CVD)

201
Q

What is inflammation, scaling, pruritis (commonly medial ankle)?

A

Stasis dermatitis

202
Q

For all peripheral vascular diseases, what diagnostic tool is often used in office, if available?

A

Doppler US

203
Q

What is the gold standard diagnostic tool for Chronic Venous Disease (CVD)?

A

Venography

204
Q

What condition involves recommended tx of elevate legs; compression therapy? What MUST be ruled out before beginning compression therapy (3)?

A

Chronic Venous Disease (CVD)

- Only if arterial disease/DVT/cellulitis ruled out

205
Q

What condition involves recommended tx of ablations; sclerotherapy; surgery (vein stripping/grafting)?

A

Chronic Venous Disease (CVD)

206
Q

Is pain upon walking, resolves with rest associated with arterial PVD or venous PVD?

207
Q

Is cramping associated with arterial PVD or venous PVD?

208
Q

Is worsening pain when leg is elevated associated with arterial PVD or venous PVD?

209
Q

Is relief of pain in dependent position associated with arterial PVD or venous PVD?

210
Q

Is pain worse with standing associated with arterial PVD or venous PVD?

211
Q

Is tired, heavy legs associated with arterial PVD or venous PVD?

212
Q

Is relief of pain with leg elevation associated with arterial PVD or venous PVD?

213
Q

Is increased discomfort with limb dependency associated with arterial PVD or venous PVD?

214
Q

Are ulcers of the toe joints, malleoli, anterior shin, base of heel or pressure points associated with arterial PVD or venous PVD?

215
Q

Are ulcers with a dry, often pale/necrotic base associated with arterial PVD or venous PVD?

216
Q

Are ulcers WITHOUT a pulse associated with arterial PVD or venous PVD?

217
Q

Is skin with atrophy, shiny, taut, loss of hair associated with arterial PVD or venous PVD?

218
Q

Are ulcers of the malleoli above bony prominences, posterior calf, large/circumferential associated with arterial PVD or venous PVD?

219
Q

Are ulcers with a pulse associated with arterial PVD or venous PVD?

220
Q

Are ulcers with a pink/red, yellow, exudate base associated with arterial PVD or venous PVD?

221
Q

Is skin with erythema, hyperpigmentation, edema, dry, varicosities associated with arterial PVD or venous PVD?

222
Q

What is the most common cause of aortic disease?

A

Atherosclerosis

223
Q

What type of aortic dissection has the worst prognosis?

224
Q

What condition involves sudden onset severe/persistent chest pain, that radiates to back; syncope; CVA-like symptoms; Hypertensive → Hypotensive/Shock?

A

Aortic disease

225
Q

What is the test of choice for Aortic disease?

A

CT chest/abdomen

226
Q

What might a CXR for Aortic disease show?

A

Widened mediastinum

227
Q

What type of Aortic disease is catastrophic (no time for emergent repair)?

A

Thoracic Aortic Aneurysm (TAA) that RUPTURES

228
Q

What is the most common site for an Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA)?

A

Infrarenal abdominal aorta

229
Q

What condition involves excruciating abdominal pain radiation to back just before rupture?

A

Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA)

230
Q

What is the test of choice for Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA) SCREENING?

A

Abdominal US

231
Q

What condition involves TIA; Amaurosis fugax (transient blindness)?

A

Cerebrovascular Disease: Carotid Artery Stenosis

232
Q

What condition involves carotid bruit, absent pupillary light reflex?

A

Cerebrovascular Disease: Carotid Artery Stenosis

233
Q

What diagnostic tool should be considered first with Cerebrovascular Disease: Carotid Artery Stenosis?

A

Carotid duplex

234
Q

What is the gold standard diagnostic test for Cerebrovascular Disease: Carotid Artery Stenosis?

A

Cerebral angiography

Clin Med I Disease Key Notes (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions