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Clin Med I Disease Key Notes > HEENT (Exam 2) > Flashcards

HEENT (Exam 2) Flashcards

1
Q

What oral lesion condition has adherent white patches/plaques?

A

Leukoplakia

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2
Q

What oral lesion condition is usually benign but can be precancerous for SCC?

A

Leukoplakia

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3
Q

What oral lesion condition has red, velvety patches?

A

Erythroplakia

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4
Q

What oral lesion condition has very high risk for malignancy?

A

Erythroplakia

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5
Q

What oral lesion condition has white mucosal plaques with red, speckled appearance?

A

Leukoerythroplakia

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6
Q

What oral lesion condition has vertically corrugated adherent white lesions on lateral surface of tongue?

A

Oral Hairy Leukoplakia

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7
Q

Is Oral Hairy Leukoplakia benign, premalignant or malignant?

A

Benign

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8
Q

What oral lesion condition has ulcers or masses that do NOT heal?

A

Oral Squamous Cell Carcinoma (SCC)

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9
Q

What two risk factors is oral SCC typically associated with?

A

Tobacco use and alcohol use

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10
Q

What oral lesion condition should be considered if there is any pigmentation?

A

Oral Melanoma

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11
Q

What oral lesion condition has pinkish/blue soft papules or nodules filled with gelatinous fluid?

A

Mucoceles

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12
Q

What oral lesion condition has grouped vesicles on an erythematous base?

A

Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)

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13
Q

What is the most common clinical manifestation of primary HSV in childhood?

A

Herpetic gingivostomatitis

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14
Q

What is first line treatment for HSV (3)?

A

Acyclovir, Valacyclovir or Famciclovir

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15
Q

What oral lesion condition spares the gingiva and lips? What is the virus name associated with this?

A

Hand, Foot & Mouth Disease

- Coxsackie A16 virus

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16
Q

What oral lesion condition has creamy, white patches/plaques with underlying erythema?

A

Oropharyngeal Candidiasis (“Thrush”)

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17
Q

How is Oropharyngeal Candidiasis (“Thrush”) diagnosed?

A

KOH prep

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18
Q

What is first line treatment for Oropharyngeal Candidiasis (“Thrush”) (2)?

A

Topical antifungal (Nystatin, Clotrimazole)

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19
Q

What oral lesion condition has “target-like” lesions on skin accompanied by mucosal erythema, painful erosions or bullae?

A

Erythema Multiforme Major (EMM)

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20
Q

What virus is commonly associate with Erythema Multiforme Major (EMM)?

A

HSV

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21
Q

What oral lesion condition has painful, erosive lesions (flaccid, fragile bullae)?

A

Pemphigus

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22
Q

What is the treatment for Pemphigus and Pemphigoid?

A

Topical, systemic corticosteroids

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23
Q

What oral lesion condition has tense bullae?

A

Pemphigoid

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24
Q

What oral lesion condition has shallow, round/oval, painful lesions with a grayish base? What is another name for this condition?

A

Aphthous Ulcers

- “Canker sores”

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25
Q

What oral lesion condition has painful, recurrent oral and genital ulcers?

A

Behçhet Syndrome

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26
Q

How is Behçhet Syndrome diagnosed?

A

Must be recurrent AND include 2 other clinical findings (recurrent genital ulcers, ocular lesions or cutaneous lesions, or positive pathergy test)

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27
Q

If ulcerative oral lesions are present, what differential diagnosis should always be ruled out?

A

Lupus

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28
Q

What oral lesion condition has reticular involves Wickham’s striae (lacy, white plaques)?

A

Oral Lichen Planus

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29
Q

What oral lesion condition is benign and involves elongated filiform papillae?

A

Black Hairy Tongue

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30
Q

What oral lesion condition has erythematous patches on dorsal tongue with circumferential white borders?

A

Geographic Tongue

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31
Q

What oral lesion condition has atrophy of filiform papillae giving the tongue a smooth, glossy, erythematous appearance?

A

Atrophic Glossitis

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32
Q

Generally, what type of treatment application should be considered for a few, localized lesions in the mouth?

A

Gel application

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33
Q

Generally, what type of treatment application should be considered for more widespread lesions in the mouth?

A

Rinse

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34
Q

What oral lesion condition should be educated about with use of topical immunosuppressants?

A

Oral candidiasis (“Thrush”)

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35
Q

What ear condition has otalgia (ear pain) worse with manipulation of external ear, and discharge?

A

Otitis Externa

- “swimmer’s ear”

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36
Q

What is the most common etiology of Otitis Externa (2)?

A

Bacteria (Pseudomonas, Staph)

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37
Q

What is the first line treatment for bacterial Otitis Externa without TM perforation?

A

Cortisporin Otic, Ciprodex

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38
Q

What is the first line treatment for bacterial Otitis Externa with TM perforation?

A

Floxin Otic

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39
Q

What is the first line treatment for fungal Otitis Externa?

A

Clotrimazole 1%

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40
Q

What type of treatment application is preferred for the ear? Why?

A

Otic suspensions are preferred to solutions due to lower acidity = less tissue irritation

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41
Q

What ear condition has granulation tissue in external auditory canal (EAC)?

A

Malignant Otitis Externa

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42
Q

What ear condition has pain worse at night, with chewing? Why is this?

A

Malignant Otitis Externa

- May be due to infection spreading from skin of EAC to temporal bone (osteomyelitis)

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43
Q

What is the most common etiology of Malignant Otitis Externa?

A

Pseudomonas

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44
Q

What population is most at risk for Malignant Otitis Externa?

A

Elderly diabetics

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45
Q

What is the first line treatment for Malignant Otitis Externa?

A

Admit to hospital for IV Cipro

- Possible surgical debridement by ENT

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46
Q

What ear condition has amber-colored fluid present, but no acute symptoms (no pain, purulence, bulging, inflammation)?

A

Otitis Media with Effusion (OME/SOM)

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47
Q

What ear condition has inflammation/blockage resulting in negative middle ear pressure?

A

Eustachian Tube Dysfunction

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48
Q

What Tympanogram result is seen with Eustachian Tube Dysfunction?

A

Tympanogram Type C

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49
Q

What is the first line treatment for Eustachian Tube Dysfunction?

A

Afrin

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50
Q

What ear condition has painful, bulging, erythematous TM with poor mobility?

A

Acute Otitis Media (AOM)

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51
Q

What ear condition involves the mastoid air cells?

A

Acute Otitis Media (AOM)

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52
Q

What are the two most common etiologies of Acute Otitis Media (AOM)?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenza

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53
Q

What is the diagnosis for Acute Otitis Media (AOM) (3)?

A

Includes any of the following criteria for children ages 6 months to 12 years:

  • Moderate/severe TM bulging
  • New onset otorrhea not due to acute OE
  • Mild bulging AND ear pain for <48 hours or erythematous TM
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54
Q

What is the first line treatment for Acute Otitis Media (AOM)? - include dose

A

Amoxicillin (90 mg/kg/day)

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55
Q

What is the second line treatment for Acute Otitis Media (AOM)?

A

Augmentin

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56
Q

When would you treat Acute Otitis Media (AOM) for 5-7 days (2)? When would you treat Acute Otitis Media (AOM) for 10 days (2)?

A
  • Treat for 5-7 days if >2 years with intact TM/no history of recurrent AOM
  • Treat for 10 days if <2 years, TM perforation or history of recurrent AOM
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57
Q

What ear condition has inflammation of TM with bulla formation?

A

Bullous Myringitis

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58
Q

What constitutes Recurrent AOM?

A

Symptoms return within 30 days after completion of successful treatment

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59
Q

With treatment of Recurrent AOM, what is the first line for if its been <15 days?

A

IM Rocephin (ceftriaxone)

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60
Q

With treatment of Recurrent AOM, what is the first line for if its been >15 days?

A

Augmentin

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61
Q

What is scarring, white plaques in TM? What ear condition is this a complication of?

A

Tympanosclerosis

- AOM complication

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62
Q

What is abnormal growth of squamous epithelium in middle ear/mastoid? What ear condition is this a complication of?

A

Cholesteatoma

- AOM complication

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63
Q

What condition involves post-auricular pain, edema and erythema? What ear condition is this a complication of?

A

Mastoiditis

- AOM complication

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64
Q

What condition involves acute onset of severe vertigo; N/V, unilateral hearing loss? What ear condition is this a complication of?

A

Acute Labyrinthitis

- AOM complication

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65
Q

What physical exam test is positive with Acute Labyrinthitis? What does this look like?

A

Head Thrust

- Cannot maintain visual fixation when head turned to affected side

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66
Q

What ear condition has painless TM perforation and otorrhea for >2 weeks?

A

Chronic Otitis Media

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67
Q

What is the most common etiology of Chronic Otitis Media (2)?

A

Pseudomonas, S. aureus

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68
Q

What does a Tympanogram B result look like? What condition is it associated with?

A

Little/no mobility of TM (i.e. fluid present or TM perforation)
- Occurs with OME

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69
Q

What does a Tympanogram C result look like? What condition is it associated with?

A

TM retracted

- Occurs with Eustachian Tube Dysfunction

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70
Q

What condition has rhinorrhea, nasal congestion, “scratchy throat?

A

Common Cold

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71
Q

What is the most common etiology of Common Cold? What is another, non-seasonal related etiology?

A

Rhinovirus

- Adenovirus if no seasonal pattern

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72
Q

What condition involves abrupt onset of fever, myalgias, sore throat?

A

Influenza

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73
Q

When is Influenza most contagious? What treatment can be given during this time?

A 
2 days (peak of viral shedding)
- Tamiflu within 2 days
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74
Q

What is the preferred quick diagnosis used for Influenza? What is the gold standard for lab diagnosis?

A

NAAT (Rapid Molecular Assay) within 3-4 days of symptoms

- Viral culture is gold standard for lab diagnosis

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75
Q

To which population is the high dose of Influenza vaccine given?

A

High dose if >65 years

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76
Q

What type of pharyngitis is less likely to present with pharyngeal exudate? What are the two pathogen exceptions to this?

A

Viral Pharyngitis

- Exceptions (aka DO cause pharyngeal exudate): Adenovirus or Mononucleosis

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77
Q

What condition presents with pharyngeal exudate, fever, splenomegaly (50% of time)?

A

Mononucleosis (Epstein- Barr virus)

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78
Q

What will a CBC test for Mononucleosis (EBV) show?

A

CBC will show increased atypical lymphocytes

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79
Q

What condition has grey exudate tightly adhered to throat?

A

Corynebacterium Diphtheria

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80
Q

What is the first line treatment for Diphtheria?

A

Diphtheria antitoxin and Penicillin or erythromycin

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81
Q

What is the treatment for Mycoplasma pneumoniae?

A

Azithromycin

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82
Q

What type of bacterial pharyngitis is common in MSM?

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

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83
Q

What is the first line treatment for Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

A

Rocephin IM (ceftriaxone)

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84
Q

What condition has purulent exudate and palatal petechiae?

A

Strep pyogenes (Group A Strep)

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85
Q

What are the 4 presentations of Strep pyogenes (Group A Strep) that are evaluated for on exam? How many of the 4 are required to make a diagnosis?

A

Any 3 of the 4 are present:

  • Tonsillar exudate
  • Tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy
  • Fever
  • No cough
86
Q

What is the first line treatment for Strep pyogenes (Group A Strep) (4)?

A

IM Penicillin G, oral Penicillin V, oral Amoxicillin, oral Keflex (cefalexin)

87
Q

What is the second line treatment for Strep pyogenes (Group A Strep) (2)?

A

Azithromycin, Clindamycin

88
Q

What condition has “strawberry tongue”, Pastia’s lines, facial flushing/mouth pallor? What is the a complication of?

A

Scarlet Fever

- Complication of Strep pyogenes (Group A Strep)

89
Q

What condition has severe sore throat (unilateral usually), trismus?

A

Peritonsillar Abscess (PTA)

90
Q

What condition has “hot potato voice”; uvula deviation to opposite side?

A

Peritonsillar Abscess (PTA)

91
Q

What are the two non-oral first line treatments for Peritonsillar Abscess (PTA)?

A

Unasyn (ampicillin-sulbactum) IV, Clindamycin IV

92
Q

What are the two oral first line treatments for Peritonsillar Abscess (PTA)?

A

Augmentin, Clindamycin

93
Q

How do you differentiate Peritonsillar Abscess (PTA) from Peritonsillar Cellulitis?

A

Peritonsillar Cellulitis has no trismus or uvular deviation

94
Q

What condition has drooling, stridor, severe sore throat, toxic appearance?

A

Epiglottis

95
Q

How does Epiglottis progress and what should be done first when treating?

A

RAPID course, be sure to secure airway immediately

96
Q

How can Epiglottis be diagnosed radiographically?

A

“Thumb Sign” will show on lateral neck x-ray

97
Q

What condition is most associated with hoarseness? What group of etiology is most common?

A

Laryngitis

- Viruses are most common

98
Q

What condition has purulent drainage AND nasal obstruction and/or facial pain/pressure/fullness? What group of etiology is most common?

A 
Acute Rhinosinusitis (ARS)
- Viral is more common
99
Q

What is the progression timeline (acute vs. subacute vs. chronic) for Acute Rhinosinusitis (ARS)? What is considered recurrent ARS?

A
  • Acute is <4 weeks
  • Subacute is 4-12 weeks
  • Chronic is >12 weeks
  • Recurrent: 4+ episodes/year
100
Q

How does bacterial Rhinosinusitis (ARS) typically develop? How is it diagnosed?

A

Viral infection THEN secondary bacterial infection

- Diagnosis: Sinus Aspirate culture (ENT)

101
Q

When should antibiotics be started for treatment of bacterial Rhinosinusitis (ARS) (3 “or” options)?

  • This is a bitch of a card, I apologize…
A

Persistent symptoms for >10 days with no improvement
OR
Onset with severe symptoms lasting 3-4 days (high fever, purulent drainage, facial pain)
OR
Viral URI lasting 5-6 days with initial improvement then severe symptoms “double worsening”

102
Q

What is the first line treatment for bacterial Rhinosinusitis (ARS) (4)? - include timing

A

Augmentin, Doxycycline, Levaquin (levofloxacin), Avelox (moxifloxacin) for 5-7 days

103
Q

What is the second line treatment for bacterial Rhinosinusitis (ARS) (4)? - include timing

A

Augmentin, Doxycycline, Levaquin (levofloxacin), Avelox (moxifloxacin) for 7-10 days

104
Q

What is a possible complication of bacterial Rhinosinusitis (ARS)?

A

Osteomyelitis of frontal bone

105
Q

What condition has mucopurulent nasal drainage, nasal obstruction and congestion, facial pain/pressure/fullness, reduction/loss of sense of smell?

A

Chronic Rhinosinusitis

106
Q

What are the 4 cardinal symptoms of Chronic Rhinosinusitis? How does this change for children?

A
  • Mucopurulent nasal drainage
  • Nasal obstruction and congestion
  • Facial pain/pressure/fullness
  • Reduction/loss of sense of smell)

In children, first three are the same, but loss of smell is replaced with COUGH

107
Q

How is Chronic Rhinosinusitis diagnosed ( _ AND _, PLUS _ or _)?

  • This is a bitch of a card, I apologize…
A

Presence of at least 2/4 cardinal symptoms AND infection lasting >12 weeks PLUS…
- Sinus mucosal disease with imaging (non-contrast CT) showing mucosal thickening or partial/complete opacification of sinuses
OR
- Direct visualization of mucosal inflammation, nasal polyps and/or purulent mucous/edema

108
Q

What condition has hemotympanum (blood on TM) with possible TM rupture?

A

Barotrauma

109
Q

What condition has unilateral sensorineural hearing loss and tinnitus?

A

Acoustic Neuroma (Vestibular Schwannoma)

110
Q

What CN is associated with Acoustic Neuroma (Vestibular Schwannoma)? What type of tumor cells are present?

A

Schwann cell tumors that arise from CN VIII vestibular portion

111
Q

What is a genetic disease considered a risk factor for Acoustic Neuroma (Vestibular Schwannoma)? How does this present differently from normal presentation?

A

NF Type 2 (often bilateral presentation)

112
Q

What condition has a perception of buzzing, ringing, hissing, other noise in one or both ears?

A

Tinnitus

113
Q

What etiology should be considered with pulsatile Tinnitus?

A

Vascular-related

114
Q

What type of Allergic Rhinitis occurs at particular times of year via trees, grass, ragweed, etc.?

A

Seasonal Allergic Rhinitis, or “Hay Fever”

115
Q

What type of Allergic Rhinitis year-round via dust mites, cockroaches, mold, animal dander, etc.?

A

Perennial Allergic Rhinitis

116
Q

What condition has sneezing, rhinorrhea, nasal congestion with itchy eyes, nose and palate?

A

Allergic Rhinitis

117
Q

What condition involves a peak incidence in childhood and IgE antibodies?

A

Allergic Rhinitis

118
Q

What condition presents with “shiners”, Dennie-Morgan Lines and pale, boggy, “bluish” mucosa in nose?

A

Allergic Rhinitis

119
Q

What condition presents with throat “cobblestoning” with post-nasal drainage in posterior pharynx

A

Allergic Rhinitis

120
Q

What test can be used to confirm Allergic Rhinitis? What does a positive test look like?

A

Scratch (prick) test

- “Wheal-and-flare” >3 mm

121
Q

What is the first line treatment for mild Allergic Rhinitis (4)

A

2nd generation oral antihistamine (Zyrtec), antihistamine nasal spray (Astepro), nasal steroid spray (Nasacort), Cromolyn nasal spray

122
Q

What is the first line treatment for moderate Allergic Rhinitis? What treatment is recommended for children <2 years?

A

Nasal steroid spray

- For children, Cromolyn sodium nasal spray

123
Q

What type of response is Non-Allergic Rhinitis (Vasomotor Rhinitis)? What are the triggers?

A

Abnormal autonomic response

- Triggered by perfumes, cigarette smoke, stress, sexual arousal, temperature changes

124
Q

What condition has rhinorrhea, nasal congestion, postnasal drainage with NO ocular/nasal itching or sneezing?

A

Non-Allergic Rhinitis (Vasomotor Rhinitis)

125
Q

When does Non-Allergic Rhinitis (Vasomotor Rhinitis) typically present?

A

Occurs later in life (>20 years)

126
Q

What type of treatment for Non-Allergic Rhinitis (Vasomotor Rhinitis) should be used if rhinorrhea is the prominent symptom?

A

Ipratropium nasal spray

127
Q

What condition is the result of regular use of Afrin (>3 days) with rebound congestion

A

Rhinitis Medicamentosa

128
Q

What condition has non-tender, grey soft tissue growth?

A

Nasal Polyps

129
Q

What is the first line treatment for Nasal Polyps?

A

Nasal steroid spray

130
Q

What condition has pruritic, pale/bright erythematous, well-circumscribed raised wheals?

A

Urticaria (“Hives”)

131
Q

How can you differentiate Urticaria (“Hives”) from Urticarial Vasculitis?

A

Urticaria (“Hives”) are transient

- Urticarial Vasculitis are fixed and last longer than 24 hours with residual hyperpigmentation

132
Q

What is the etiology behind Urticaria (“Hives”)?

A

Histamine release by mast cells

133
Q

What is the first line treatment for Urticaria (“Hives”)?

A

H1 histamine blockers (Zyrtec or Xyzal)

134
Q

What is excessive tearing?

A

Epiphoria

135
Q

What is conjunctival swelling?

A

Chemosis

136
Q

What is leukocytic exudate in anterior chamber of eye?

A

Hypopyon

137
Q

What is dilated conjunctival and episcleral vessels adjacent and circumferential to corneal limbus?

A

Ciliary flush

138
Q

What is dilated conjunctival vessels?

A

Hyperemia

139
Q

What is inflammatory condition of cornea?

A

Keratitis

140
Q

What is eye protrusion (2 names)?

A

Proptosis aka Exophthalmos

141
Q

What is the name for measuring intraocular pressure (IOP)? What is a normal reading?

A

Tonometry

- Normal is 8-21

142
Q

What eye condition has chronic itching/burning/scratching in AM with NO vision changes?

A

Blepharitis

143
Q

What eye condition has chronic itching/burning/scratching at night with +/- vision changes?

A

Dry Eye

144
Q

What diagnostic test is used for Dry Eye?

A

Schirmer Test

145
Q

What eye condition involves a painful nodule of the eyelid with swelling?

A

Hordeolum (Cyst)

146
Q

What is the etiology of a Hordeolum (Cyst)?

A

Infected eye lash root

147
Q

What eye condition involves a typically painless nodule of the eyelid?

A

Chalazion

148
Q

What is the etiology of a Chalazion?

A

Clogged oil gland (MGD)

149
Q

What eye condition involves lids/lashes everted?

A

Ectropion

150
Q

What eye condition involves lids/lashes inverted?

A

Entropion

151
Q

What eye condition has harmless clear, thin tissue covering sclera; does NOT cause vision loss?

A

Pinguecula

152
Q

What eye condition has thickening of bulbar conjunctiva; can interfere with vision?

A

Pterygium

153
Q

What eye condition has optic nerve unaffected, no impairment of vision or pain with ocular movement?

A

Preseptal Cellulitis

154
Q

What eye condition involves optic nerve, +/- impair vision or impaired/painful ocular movement; often involves fever?

A

Orbital Cellulitis

155
Q

What is the first line treatment for eye cellulitis in OUTpatient (hint: _ OR _, PLUS _ OR _)?

A

Clindamycin OR Bactrim DS, PLUS Augmentin OR Cefpodoxime

156
Q

What is the first line treatment for eye cellulitis in INpatient (hint: _ PLUS _ PLUS _)?

A

Vancomycin PLUS Ceftriaxone PLUS Metronidazole

157
Q

What eye condition has acute red, watery discharge (severe injection); often bilateral; preauricular lymphadenopathy?

A

Conjunctivitis (Viral)

158
Q

What eye condition has acute thick, yellow/mucopurulent discharge; unilateral or bilateral?

A

Conjunctivitis (Bacterial)

159
Q

What are two types of rare Conjunctivitis (Bacterial)? Which is sight-threatening?

A
  • C. trachomatis

- N. gonorrhea (sight-threatening)

160
Q

How is C. trachomatis diagnosed? How is it treated?

A
  • Diagnosis: PCR

- Treatment: oral Erythromycin or Azithromycin

161
Q

How is N. gonorrhea diagnosed? How is it treated?

A
  • Diagnosis: Giemsa stain, gram stain, culture

- Treatment: Rocephin IM (ceftriaxone) admitted and OP consult

162
Q

What eye condition has chronic symptoms bilaterally with mild injection, itching and chemosis; stringy discharge?

A

Conjunctivitis (Allergic)

163
Q

What eye condition has acute, often spontaneous, asymptomatic bleeding in conjunctiva; vision NOT affected?

A

Subconjunctival Hemorrhage

164
Q

What are the three subtypes of Scleritis?

A
  • Diffuse (50%): widespread inflammation of sclera; typically, no recurrence
  • Nodular (20-40%): localized area of inflammation with a distinct, visible nodule; can reoccur
  • Necrotizing (rare): often due to underlying autoimmune disorder; more severe symptoms with ocular comp.
165
Q

What eye condition has severe/constant eye pain worse in AM; radiates to face and worse with EOMs; hyperemia?

A

Anterior Scleritis

166
Q

What eye condition has milder symptoms; NO hyperemia?

A

Posterior Scleritis

167
Q

What eye condition presents with violaceous eye redness, pain with eyelid pressure; scleral edema on slit lamp exam?

A

Anterior Scleritis

168
Q

What eye condition has abrupt onset of bright red episcleral inflammation (uni or bi); typically, no pain; vision unaffected?

A

Episcleritis

169
Q

What eye condition has FB sensation with acute onset of pain; +/- vision affected?

A

Corneal Abrasion

170
Q

What treatment is NOT recommended for corneal injuries (or any eye conditions really)?

A

NO topical anesthetic drops (can lead to corneal toxicity or Anesthetic Keratitis)

171
Q

What is the first line treatment for a chemical eye injury?

A

IRRIGATE immediately

172
Q

What might develop in the eye if there is a metal corneal foreign body?

A

Rust ring

173
Q

What eye condition has acute onset of pain with white infiltrate +/- hypopyon?

A

Keratitis/Corneal Ulcer

174
Q

What eye condition is associated with contact lens abuse?

A

Keratitis/Corneal Ulcer

175
Q

What eye condition presents with appears with dendritic pattern around eye?

A

Keratitis (HSV)

176
Q

What eye condition has blood in anterior chamber with acute onset of pain, N/V, usually vision decrease?

A

Hyphema

177
Q

What condition presents with progressive pain; ciliary flush (ring of white around Limbus); hypopyon?

A

Anterior Uveitis

178
Q

What condition presents with painless; floaters and blurred vision?

A

Posterior Uveitis

179
Q

What is the preferred topical antibiotics used to treat eye conditions?

A

Erythromycin ointment

180
Q

What is perceived flash of light in field of vision?

A

Photopsia

181
Q

What is yellow, fatty protein/lipid deposits under retina that occurs naturally with age?

A

Drusen

182
Q

What is an area of partial alteration in field of vision with surrounding areas of normal visual acuity?

A

Scotoma

183
Q

What is visual defect in which linear objects look curved or rounded?

A

Metamorphopsia

184
Q

Which two vision loss disease are considered painful?

A

Angle-Closure Glaucoma and Optic Neuritis

185
Q

What is the Afferent Pupillary Defect? With what two conditions might it be positive?

A

Lesion of CN II leads to… with light on affected side, BOTH do NOT constrict, or with light on unaffected side, BOTH constrict (normal)
- Can be positive with Open-Angle Glaucoma and Retinal Detachment

186
Q

What eye condition has pain; halos around lights; optic nerve damage, visual field loss; nausea/vomiting?

A

Angle-Closure Glaucoma

187
Q

What is the etiology behind Angle-Closure Glaucoma?

A

Increase in intraocular pressure due to obstruction

188
Q

What is the gold standard diagnostic test used for Angle-Closure Glaucoma? What two other findings on exam may be seen?

A

Gonioscopy

- Also mid-dilated pupil and “crescent moon” on penlight exam

189
Q

What eye condition involves early, asymptomatic; later, chronic painless visual field loss?

A

Open-Angle Glaucoma

190
Q

What is the etiology behind Open-Angle Glaucoma?

A

Increased intraocular pressure due to increased aqueous production and/or decreased outflow

191
Q

What two findings present with Macular Degeneration?

A
  • Metamorphopsia

- Central scotoma

192
Q

What eye condition has slow, gradual vision loss in one or both eyes; drusen present?

A

Dry Macular Degeneration

193
Q

What eye condition has rapid vision distortion commonly in one eye; neovascularization and “leaky vessels”?

A

Wet Macular Degeneration

194
Q

What eye condition has gradual, chronic, painless loss of vision; glare from headlights with night driving?

A

Cataracts

195
Q

What eye condition has history of myopia, “curtain-like” vision loss, floaters/photopsia?

A

Retinal Detachment (RD)

196
Q

What eye condition involves “copper wiring”, “silver siring”, “A:V nicking”, soft exudates?

A

Hypertensive Retinopathy

197
Q

What are the two subtypes of Diabetic Retinopathy? Which can cause traction retinal detachment?

A
  • Non-proliferative (no neovascularization)

- Proliferative (+ neovascularization) = can cause traction retinal detachment

198
Q

What eye condition has “cherry red spot” due to embolic event?

A

Central Retinal Artery Occlusion (CRAO)

199
Q

What eye condition has “blood and thunder” due to thrombotic event?

A

Central Retinal Vein Occlusion (CRVO)

200
Q

Which of the two eye vascular occlusion conditions involves TOTAL loss of vision?

A

Central Retinal Artery Occlusion (CRAO)

201
Q

What eye condition has painful, worse with EOMIs; abnormal color vision?

A

Optic Neuritis

202
Q

How does Optic Neuritis present on exam?

A

Inflammatory demyelination of optic nerve

203
Q

What chronic condition is Optic Neuritis associated with?

A

Multiple Sclerosis (MS)

204
Q

Which of Angela’s cats does Dwight freeze?

A

SPRINKLESSSSSS

205
Q

Which office employee did Michael Scott hit with his car?

A

Meredith lmao aka Dancing With the Stars star

206
Q

Who started the fire?

A

RYAN STARTED THE FIYAAAA

207
Q

What is Michael Scott’s username for the online dating website?

A

Little Kid Lover <3

208
Q

What vegetable does Michael Scott force feed Kevin?

A

Broccoli

209
Q

Which type of exudate(s) seen with Diabetic Retinopathy?

A

Soft exudates AND hard exudates

210
Q

Which type of exudate(s) seen with Hypertensive Retinopathy?

A

Soft exudates

Clin Med I Disease Key Notes (4 decks)

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