Heart Failure Flashcards

1
Q

SGLT inhibitors

A

dapagliflozin (farxiga), empagliflozin (jardiance), sotagliflozin (inpefa)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

sglt inhibitor moa

A

increases urine output by osmotic diuresis
SGLTI: decrease absorption of glucose

increases excretion of water, decreases preload and afterload, reduces edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

sglti contraindications

A

dapagliflozin and sotagliflozin require an eGFR >25 for initiation
empagliflozin does not need renal adjustment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

sglti adr

A

dehydration, genital myotic infection/uti, hypoglycemia, euglycemic ketoacidosis (stop surrounding surgery)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

sglti notes

A

may require loop diuretic does adjustment (increased dehydration), discontinue 3 days prior to surgery to prevent euglycemic ketoacidosis
SGLT 1 increases gi side effects
mortality reducing drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

vaso/venodilators

A

hydralazine + isosorbide dinitrate (BiDil)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

vasodilator

A

hydralazine (apresoline)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

hydralazine moa

A

direct vasodilation of arterioles (reduces afterload), increases cardiac output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

hydralazine contraindications

A

CAD- may cause reflex tachycardia, can cause angina, MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

hydralazine adr

A

dizziness, reflex tachycardia, DILE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

hydralazine notes

A

dosing in HF is 3x daily even with combination BiDil tablet
mortality reducing drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

isosorbide dinitrate moa

A

increases cGMP, stimulating NO, allowing for vasodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

isosorbide dinitrate contraindications

A

use with PDE5 inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

isosorbide dinitrate adr

A

ha, dizziness, syncope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

isosorbide dinitrate notes

A

pk/pd depends on formulation, F is low as it undergoes extensive first pass
mortality reducing drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

If channel inhibitor

A

ivabradine (corlanor)

16
Q

ivabradine moa

A

acts on SA node “funny channel”, slowing firing and reducing HR

17
Q

ivabradine contraindications

A

severe hepatic impairment, acute decompensated HF, clinically significant hypotension, sick sinus syndrome, sinoatrial block, third degree AV block

18
Q

ivabradine adr

A

bradycardia, atrial fibrillation

19
Q

ivabradine notes

A

use with food to ensure adequate absorption
major substrate of CYP3A4

20
Q

soluble guanylate cyclase stimulator

A

vericiguat (verquvo)

21
Q

vericiguat moa

A

enhances production cGMP, stimulating NO, allowing for vasodilation

22
Q

vericiguat contraindications

A

pregnancy

23
Q

vericiguat adr

A

hypotension, anemia

24
Q

vericiguat notes

A

use with food to ensure adequate absorption, category X use with PDE5, formulation may contain lactose, must show negative pregnancy test to administer

25
Q

cardiac glycoside

A

digoxin

26
Q

digoxin moa

A

increased intracellular Na and Ca –> increased contractility
may also improve baroreceptor sensitivity

27
Q

digoxin contraindications

A

none

28
Q

digoxin adr

A

arrhythmia, heart block, gi side effects, neurologic side effects, tachycardia or bradycardia, anorexia, nausea, vomiting,

29
Q

digoxin notes

A

major substrate of PGP, minor CYP3A4 substrate
monitor HR and SCr- ideally 0.5-0.9ng/ml
almost exclusively used in patients with HFrEF and atrial fibrillation, beers list
toxicity risk
high volume of distribution- 6-8hrs to distribution, 36-40hr t1/2 in normal renal function
levels must be drawn at least 10-12 hrs after administration and at steady state (5-7 days after)