Health Promotion and HEENT Flashcards
1
Q
. What is the common treatment for aphthous ulcers?
- A) Antibiotics
- B) Antifungals
- C) Supportive care
- D) Surgery
A
- C) Supportive care
2
Q
What is the main cause of denture-related stomatitis?
- A) Allergies
- B) Ill-fitting dentures
- C) Viral infection
- D) Fungal infection
A
- B) Ill-fitting dentures
2
Q
Which form of oral candidiasis is characterized by a white plaque that scrapes off?
- A) Erythematous form
- B) Pseudomembranous form
- C) Nicotinic form
- D) Angular form
A
B) Pseudomembranous form
3
Q
- What is a risk factor for oral candidiasis?
- A) Smoking
- B) Antibiotic use
- C) New toothpaste
- D) Oral trauma
A
B) Antibiotic use
3
Q
Which condition is also known as smoker’s palate?
- A) Denture-related stomatitis
- B) Vincent’s stomatitis
- C) Nicotinic stomatitis
- D) Pseudomembranous stomatitis
A
- C) Nicotinic stomatitis
4
Q
. Which type of stomatitis is associated with inflammation in the corners of the mouth?
- A) Angular stomatitis
- B) Allergic stomatitis
- C) Pseudomembranous stomatitis
- D) Nicotinic stomatitis
A
- A) Angular stomatitis
5
Q
What is another term for Vincent’s stomatitis?
- A) Canker sores
- B) Black hairy tongue
- C) Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
- D) Smoker’s palate
A
- C) Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
6
Q
What condition is also known as black hairy tongue?
- A) Angular stomatitis
- B) Allergic stomatitis
- C) Pseudomembranous stomatitis
- D) Nicotinic stomatitis
A
C) Pseudomembranous stomatitis
7
Q
What type of infection is herpes simplex?
- A) Bacterial
- B) Viral
- C) Fungal
- D) Parasitic
A
- B) Viral
8
Q
What is the treatment goal for herpes simplex?
- A) Cure the infection
- B) Treat to lessen the severity and frequency of outbreaks
- C) Remove the irritant
- D) Perform surgery
A
B) Treat to lessen the severity and frequency of outbreaks
9
Q
Which medication is used for pain management in stomatitis?
- A) Liquid antacid/BMX
- B) Antibiotics
- C) Antifungals
- D) Surgery
A
- A) Liquid antacid/BMX
10
Q
What is the primary symptom of mononucleosis?
- A) Sore throat
- B) Tinnitus
- C) Hearing loss
- D) Dizziness
A
- A) Sore throat
10
Q
Which diagnostic test is used to confirm mononucleosis?
- A) Mono spot test
- B) Sputum culture
- C) ABG
- D) Chest X-ray
A
A) Mono spot test
11
Q
What is the best management for a patient with mononucleosis?
- A) Antivirals
- B) Antibiotics
- C) Supportive care
- D) Surgery
A
C) Supportive care
11
Q
What is a red flag for immediate referral in eye conditions?
- A) Mild itching
- B) Slight dryness
- C) Severe pain and vision changes
- D) Occasional tearing
A
C) Severe pain and vision changes
11
Q
What is a common cause of anterior nosebleeds?
- A) High humidity
- B) Low humidity and dry air
- C) Excessive exercise
- D) High salt diet
A
- B) Low humidity and dry air
11
Q
What is a primary recommendation for patients with mononucleosis regarding physical activity?
- A) Engage in regular exercise
- B) Avoid contact sports
- C) Increase protein intake
- D) Resume normal activities immediately
A
- B) Avoid contact sports
12
Q
What is a common complication to avoid in patients with mononucleosis?
- A) Severe nasal congestion
- B) Splenic rupture
- C) Chronic ear infections
- D) Severe eye pain
A
- B) Splenic rupture
13
Q
What is a common symptom of mononucleosis?
- A) Frequent sneezing
- B) Chronic ear pain
- C) prolonged Fatigue, malaise, fever, sore throat, tender cervical lymphadenopathy
- D) Severe nasal congestion
A
- C) prolonged Fatigue, malaise, fever, sore throat, tender cervical lymphadenopathy
14
Q
What is a common complication to avoid in untreated streptococcal pharyngitis?
- A) Chronic sinusitis
- B) Acute rheumatic fever
- C) Chronic otitis media
- D) Asthma exacerbation
A
- B) Acute rheumatic fever
15
Q
What is the first-line antibiotic treatment for streptococcal pharyngitis?
- A) Amoxicillin
- B) Azithromycin
- C) Ciprofloxacin
- D) Bactrim
A
- A) Amoxicillin
16
Q
What is the key diagnostic tool for streptococcal pharyngitis?
- A) Chest X-ray
- B) Monospot test
- C) Centor criteria
- D) Blood culture
A
- C) Centor criteria
17
Q
What is the recommended treatment for epiphora caused by dry eyes?
- A) Oral antibiotics
- B) Nasal corticosteroids
- C) Topical antibiotics and managing allergic responses
- D) Steroid injections
A
- C) Topical antibiotics and managing allergic responses
18
Q
What is the first level of treatment for dry eye syndrome?
- A) Anti-inflammatory agents
- B) Autologous serum
- C) Environmental adjustments and wraparound sunglasses
- D) Steroid injections
A
- C) Environmental adjustments and wraparound sunglasses
19
What is the primary treatment for chronic blepharitis?
- A) Oral antibiotics
- B) Antivirals
- C) Warm compresses and eyelid hygiene
- D) Surgical removal
- C) Warm compresses and eyelid hygiene, 1:1 baby shampoo 2to 4 times a day
20
What is a common symptom of chronic blepharitis?
- A) Severe eye pain
- B) Brittle eyelashes, ulcers at the eyelid margins
- C) Excessive tearing
- D) Nasal congestion
B) Brittle eyelashes, ulcers at the eyelid margins
21
What is the primary treatment for a hordeolum (stye)?
- A) Oral antibiotics
- B) Topical steroids
- C) Warm compresses; 1:1 baby shampoo
- D) Surgical removal
- C) Warm compresses; 1:1 baby shampoo
22
What is a common differential diagnosis for red eyes with severe pain and photophobia?
- A) Allergic conjunctivitis
- B) Acute glaucoma
- C) Chronic blepharitis
- D) Nasal congestion
B) Acute glaucoma
23
What is the difference between a chalazion and a hordeolum (stye)?
- A) Chalazion is painful, hordeolum (stye) is painless
- B) Chalazion is painless, hordeolum (stye) is painful
- C) Both are painless
- D) Both are painful
- B) Chalazion is painless, hordeolum (stye) is painful
24
What is a red flag symptom for red eyes?
-
- C) Severe Pain and vision changes, blurred vision, diplopia,
photophobia
25
What is the first-line antibiotic for bacterial conjunctivitis in contact lens wearers?
- A) Amoxicillin
- B) Ciprofloxacin
- C) Azithromycin
- D) Polymyxin B
B) Ciprofloxacin
26
What is the primary patient education point for bacterial conjunctivitis?
- A) Avoiding antibiotic use
- B) Hand washing to prevent auto-inoculation
- C) Increasing salt intake
- D) Using nasal decongestants
B) Hand washing to prevent auto-inoculation
27
What is a common risk factor for chronic blepharitis?
- A) Staphylococcal infection
- B) Viral infection
- C) Fungal infection
- D) Parasitic infection
- A) Staphylococcal infection
28
What is the primary treatment for a chalazion (painless)?
- A) Warm compresses, 1:1 baby shampoo
- B) Oral antibiotics
- C) Topical steroids
- D) Surgical removal
A) Warm compresses and 1:1 baby shampoo
29
* Treatment for Epiphora include
* Topical antibiotics for trauma/corneal abrasion or infection
* Removal of foreign body if present
* Eye rest
* Treatment of allergic causes
30
What type of rhinitis is triggered by environmental factors?
- A) Allergic rhinitis
- B) Vasomotor rhinitis
- C) Atrophic rhinitis
- D) Hormonal rhinitis
- A) Allergic rhinitis
31
What is the treatment for allergic rhinitis?
Avoid triggers, intranasal steroids, new-generation oral antihistamines, leukotriene receptor antagonists
32
What is a common symptom of atrophic rhinitis?
- A) Nasal dryness and crusting
- B) Frequent sneezing
- C) Nasal polyps
- D) Severe nasal congestion
A) Nasal dryness and crusting
32
What is the recommended management for hormonal rhinitis during pregnancy?
- A) Nasal corticosteroids
- B) Avoidance of medications harmful during pregnancy
- C) High dose antihistamines
- D) Antibiotics
B) Avoidance of medications harmful during pregnancy
33
What is the key symptom duration indicating the need for antibiotic treatment in sinusitis?
- A) Symptoms lasting more than 3 days
- B) Symptoms lasting more than 7 (5 to 7) days
- C) Symptoms lasting more than 10 days
- D) Symptoms lasting more than 14 days
- B) Symptoms lasting more than 7 (5 to 7) days
34
What is the first-line antibiotic for sinusitis?
- A) Azithromycin
- B) Ciprofloxacin
- C) Amoxicillin-Clavulanate (Augmentin)
- D) Bactrim
- C) Amoxicillin-Clavulanate (Augmentin)
35
Subacute/chronic sinusitis infection treatment
treat for 3–6 weeks
* Augmentin 1,000 mg/125 mg PO BID
* Cefuroxime 250–500 mg PO twice daily
36
What is the treatment duration for subacute/chronic sinusitis?
A) 5-7 days
B) 10-14 days
C) 3-6 weeks
D) 6-8 weeks
C) 3-6 weeks
37
When is antimicrobial therapy indicated for sinusitis?
A) For all cases of acute sinusitis
B) For mild viral sinusitis
C) For acute, moderate to severe bacterial infections
D) For chronic allergic sinusitis
C) For acute, moderate to severe bacterial infections
38
Which antibiotic and dosage is recommended for a patient at risk for pseudomonas infection?
A) Amoxicillin 1000 mg PO TID
B) High dose Augmentin (2 gm/125 mg ER) BID
C) Cefuroxime 250 mg PO twice daily
D) Augmentin 1,000 mg/125 mg PO BID
B) High dose Augmentin (2 gm/125 mg ER) BID
39
What is a common initial management step for sinusitis symptoms lasting less than 7 days?
- A) Immediate antibiotic therapy
- B) Nasal saline sprays and humidification
- C) Steroid injections
- D) Surgical intervention
- B) Nasal saline sprays and humidification
40
What are Differential Diagnoses for sinusitis
Viral/bacterial/allergic rhinitis
* Dental abscess
* Headache (migraine, trigeminal neuralgia,
and cluster headache)
* Myofascial pain
* Chronic sinusitis
41
how is sinusitis diagnosed
Diagnosis
* URI for at least seven days and two or more
of the following
* Colored nasal drainage
* Poor response to decongestants
* Facial or sinus pain
* Headache
42
When should a patient with recurrent sinus infections be referred to an ENT specialist?
- A) After one episode
- B) After two episodes
- C) After three episodes
- D) After five episodes
C) After three episodes
43
What is a characteristic symptom of acute otitis media?
- A) Ear fullness without pain
- B) Chronic ear drainage
- C) Ear pain, redness, and bulging eardrum
- D) Itching in the ear canal
- C) Ear pain, redness, and bulging eardrum
44
What is the first-line treatment for acute otitis media in adults?
- A) Amoxicillin
- B) Azithromycin
- C) Ciprofloxacin
- D) Polymyxin B
- A) Amoxicillin
45
What is a recommended treatment duration for acute otitis media?
- A) 3 days
- B) 5 days
- C) 7 days
- D) 10 days
- D) 10 days
46
What is a key factor in the diagnosis of otitis media with effusion?
- A) Presence of ear pain
- B) Presence of ear drainage
- C) Presence of fluid behind the tympanic membrane
- D) Presence of external ear canal inflammation
- C) Presence of fluid behind the tympanic membrane
47
What is the primary treatment for anterior nosebleeds?
- A) Cauterization
- B) Packing and ice packs
- C) Direct pressure and nasal decongestants
- D) Antibiotics
C) Direct pressure and nasal decongestants
48
What is the recommended action for severe posterior nosebleeds?
- A) Application of ice packs
- B) Direct pressure for 10 minutes
- C) Immediate medical intervention, possibly hospitalization
- D) Oral antihistamines
C) Immediate medical intervention, possibly hospitalization
49
What is a common cause of nosebleeds in dry climates?
- A) High humidity
- B) Frequent swimming
- C) Low humidity and dry air
- D) Excessive exercise
- C) Low humidity and dry air
50
What should be avoided in patients prone to nosebleeds?
- A) Aspirin/NSAIDs
- B) Antihistamines
- C) Decongestants
- D) Antifungals
- A) Aspirin/NSAIDs
51
What is a characteristic of a chalazion?
- A) Painful, acute infection of eyelid gland
- B) Painless, chronic, rubbery mass
- C) Severe eye pain and vision loss
- D) Excessive tearing
B) Painless, chronic, rubbery mass
52
What is a primary symptom of dry eye syndrome?
- A) Excessive tearing
- B) Red, itchy eyes
- C) Nasal congestion
- D) Chronic eye dryness
- D) Chronic eye dryness
53
What are the contributing factor to seborrheic blepharitis?
exposure to chemical or
environmental irritants, use of eye makeup and contact
lenses
54
How should the eyelids be cleansed in the management of non-ulcerative blepharitis?
A) With a mild antiseptic solution
B) Gently with baby shampoo one-to-one with water on a cotton ball
C) Using alcohol-based wipes
D) With plain water
B) Gently with baby shampoo one-to-one with water on a cotton ball
55
What is a key part of managing non-ulcerative blepharitis to empty the meibomian glands?
A) Cold compresses
B) Lid massage following warm, moist compresses
C) Steroid injections
D) Surgical intervention
B) Lid massage following warm, moist compresses
56
What is a crucial step to prevent recurrence of non-ulcerative blepharitis?
A) Regular use of topical corticosteroids
B) Lifelong gentle lid cleansing and management
C) Avoiding all forms of medication
D) Using contact lenses regularly
B) Lifelong gentle lid cleansing and management
57
What treatment is recommended for ulcerative blepharitis caused by resistant staph infections?
A) Bacitracin ointment
B) Erythromycin ointment
C) Quinolone ointment
D) Antifungal cream
C) Quinolone ointment
58
What additional treatment may be used for severe cases of ulcerative blepharitis?
A) Topical corticosteroids
B) Antihistamine drops
C) Oral antibiotics
D) Vitamin supplements
C) Oral antibiotics
59
What is the purpose of applying Bacitracin or erythromycin 0.5% ointment to the lids for ulcerative blepharitis?
A) To relieve dryness
B) To treat bacterial infection
C) To enhance vision
D) To reduce itching
B) To treat bacterial infection
60
What is a preventive measure for contact lens wearers to avoid blepharitis recurrence?
A) Regularly disinfecting lenses
B) Discarding contact lenses and replacing them once treated
C) Wearing lenses continuously
D) Avoiding lens use entirely
B) Discarding contact lenses and replacing them once treated
61
Level 1 for dry eye
education on environmental and dietary modifications
* Elimination of offending systemic medications
* Ocular lubricants, non-preserved artificial tear substitutes
* Consider eyelid therapy
62
What is a common cause of inadequate tear production?
A) Overuse of antibiotics
B) Mechanical abnormalities that interfere with the spread or maintenance of tears
C) Excessive blinking
D) High humidity
B) Mechanical abnormalities that interfere with the spread or maintenance of tears
63
2 causes of dry eyes
inadequate tear production and decreased tear production
64
Causes of inadequate tear
production
* Mechanical abnormalities that interfere
with the spread or maintenance of tears
over the eyeball surface
* Abnormalities of the eyelid structure
and function, protrusion of the eyeballs,
or misuse of contact lenses
* Lacrimal gland malfunction
* Mucin deficiency
65
Causes of decreased tear
production
* Medication induced: overuse of artificial
tears, anticholinergic agents, beta-adrenergic blockers, and
antihistamines
* Aging, especially women during
menopause
* May also have a diminished blink rate
due to working at a computer or a
microscope
66
Epiphora (excessive tearing) causes
Key causes
Allergies
* Contact lenses
* Screen time
Related to
Autoimmune disease
Malfunction of lacrimal apparatus or nervous control of the lacrimal apparatus
* Blockage of the drainage system from the accumulation of discharge from conjunctivitis
67
Treatment of Epiphora
based on cause
* Topical antibiotics for trauma/corneal abrasion or infection
* Removal of foreign body if present
* Eye rest
* Treatment of allergic causes
68
Which class of medications is known to reduce tear production?
A) Beta-adrenergic blockers
B) Calcium channel blockers
C) Diuretics
D) Antidepressants
A) Beta-adrenergic blockers
69
Which symptom is NOT included in the diagnostic criteria for pharyngitis/tonsillitis?
A) Tonsillar exudate
B) Tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy
C) Absence of cough
D) Presence of nasal congestion
D) Presence of nasal congestion
70
What action should be taken if a patient has 2-3 criteria points for pharyngitis/tonsillitis?
Two to three criteria: check rapid strep; if negative, send culture
if positive treat it.
71
What action should be taken if a patient has three or more criteria points for pharyngitis/tonsillitis?
A) Check rapid strep test; if negative, send culture and treat empirically
B) No testing needed
C) Immediate antibiotic treatment
D) Referral for surgery
A) Check rapid strep test; if negative, send culture and treat empirically
72
What are common symptoms of staphylococcus blepharitis (ulcerative)?
A) Thick and healthy lashes
B) Thin and brittle lashes with small ulcers at the eyelid margin
C) Blurred vision
D) Severe eye pain
B) Thin and brittle lashes with small ulcers at the eyelid margin
73
When should a patient with blepharitis be referred to a specialist?
* Referral: ophthalmology
* Severe infections
* No improvement despite
treatment for one month
* Vision change/eye pain
73
What is the recommended treatment for staphylococcus (ulcerative) blepharitis?
A) Bacitracin or erythromycin ointment
B) Oral antibiotics
C) Antifungal drops
D) Antihistamine tablets
A) Bacitracin or erythromycin ointment
74
What characterizes seborrheic (non-ulcerative) blepharitis?
A) Acute inflammation of the eyelid
B) Chronic inflammation with scales along the lid margin that are easily removed
C) Presence of ulcers
D) Severe pain and vision loss
B) Chronic inflammation with scales along the lid margin that are easily removed
75
viral rhinitis treatment
supportive care
76
What part of the eye is affected by staphylococcus blepharitis (ulcerative)?
A) Conjunctiva
B) Cornea
C) Lash follicle and meibomian glands of the eyelid
D) Retina
C) Lash follicle and meibomian glands of the eyelid
77
causes of allergic rhinitis
seasonal/perennial
78
causes of non-allergic rhinitis
viral, vasomotor, hormone, rhinitis medicamentosa, atrophic
79
treatment for vasomotor rhinitis
trigger avoidance, symptom management
80
treatment for medicamentosa,
stop taking the medication that is causing it
81
Treatment for atrophic rhinitis
mupirocin ointment to nasal, and saline irrigation
82
what are the causes of epistaxis
* Cause
* Excessive dryness
* Foreign bodies
* Epistaxis digitorum
* Septal deviation
* Malignant growths in nasal cavity
* Coagulopathies
* Cirrhosis, kidney disease, cancer,
hypertension
* Vascular disease
* Medications
* Cocaine
* Febrile infections
83
Management of Posterior epistaxis
* Posterior nasal packing
* Ganglion nerve block
* Surgical ligation of vessels
* Nasal balloon packing
84
What is the recommended first step in managing an acute minor anterior nosebleed?
A) Apply a warm compress
B) Use an antihistamine
C) Apply an ice pack over the nose
D) Tilt the head backward
C) Apply an ice pack over the nose
85
What additional step should be taken for recurrent minor anterior nosebleeds?
A) Use a vasoconstrictor agent
B) Perform chemical cauterization
C) Apply anterior nasal packing
D) Increase fluid intake
A) Use a vasoconstrictor agent
86
What is a recommended treatment for severe anterior nosebleeding?
A) Use a humidifier
B) Apply a warm compress
C) Anterior nasal packing and chemical cauterization/vasoconstrictor agents
D) Take oral antibiotics
C) Anterior nasal packing and chemical cauterization/vasoconstrictor agents
87
What is the recommended position for a patient with an anterior nosebleed to minimize vascular pressure and prevent aspiration?
A) Lying down with head elevated
B) Seated upright with head tilted forward
C) Seated upright with head tilted backward
D) Lying flat on the back
B) Seated upright with head tilted forward
88
How long should continuous pressure be applied to the nose during an acute minor anterior nosebleed?
A) 5-10 minutes
B) 10-15 minutes
C) 15-20 minutes
D) 20-25 minutes
B) 10-15 minutes
89
What is the common name for aphthous ulcers?
- A) Cold sores
- B) Canker sores
- C) Oral thrush
- D) Black hairy tongue
- B) Canker sores
90
*Which characteristic is typical of aphthous ulcers?
- A) Vesicular lesions
- B) Non-vesicular lesions with fibrinous yellow membrane
- C) Speckled white and red appearance
- D) Membrane-like exudate
B) Non-vesicular lesions with fibrinous yellow membrane
91
What is the main treatment approach for aphthous ulcers?
- A) Antifungals
- B) Antibiotics
- C) Supportive care
- D) Allergen avoidance
- C) Supportive care
92
Which form of oral candidiasis is characterized by white plaques that can be scraped off?**
- A) Erythematous form
- B) Pseudomembranous form
- C) Nicotinic form
- D) Angular form
B) Pseudomembranous form
93
What happens when the white plaques of pseudomembranous oral candidiasis are scraped off?**
- A) Nothing happens
- B) The mucosa appears erythematous
- C) The plaques reappear immediately
- D) Ulcers form
- B) The mucosa appears erythematous
94
What is the typical treatment for oral candidiasis?**
- A) Supportive care
- B) Antifungals
- C) Antibiotics
- D) Antivirals
- B) Antifungals
95
What is another name for nicotinic stomatitis?**
- A) Cold sores
- B) Canker sores
- C) Smoker’s palate
- D) Trench mouth
- C) Smoker’s palate
96
What causes the speckled white and red appearance in nicotinic stomatitis?
- A) Hyperkeratosis and minor salivary gland openings
- B) Erythematous mucosa
- C) Vesicular lesions
- D) Membrane-like exudate
- A) Hyperkeratosis and minor salivary gland opening
97
How can nicotinic stomatitis be reversed?
- A) Antifungal treatment
- B) Removing the irritant
- C) Antiviral treatment
- D) Oral antibiotics
B) Removing the irritant
98
What is a common cause of denture-related stomatitis?
- A) Poor oral hygiene
- B) Ill-fitting dentures
- C) Viral infection
- D) Smoking
- B) Ill-fitting dentures
99
What type of tissue changes are associated with denture-related stomatitis?**
- A) White plaques
- B) Erythematous and edematous tissue on the hard palate
- C) Black hairy tongue
- D) Vesicular lesions
- B) Erythematous and edematous tissue on the hard palate
100
What is another name for Vincent stomatitis?
- A) Canker sores
- B) Trench mouth
- C) Smoker’s palate
- D) Cold sores
- B) Trench mouth
101
What is a key treatment component for denture-related stomatitis?
- A) Systemic antibiotics
- B) Improved denture fit, Good oral care
* Candidiasis
- C) Avoiding dentures entirely
- D) Using antihistamines
- B) Improved denture fit, Good oral care
* Candidiasis
102
What type of infection causes Vincent stomatitis?**
- A) Fusospirochetal infection
- B) Viral infection
- C) Fungal infection
- D) Allergic reaction
- A) Fusospirochetal infection
103
What is a key component of the treatment for Vincent stomatitis?
- A) Topical antifungals
- B) Good oral hygiene, Referral to dentistry for debridement
* Antibiotics for systemic symptoms
- C) Avoiding contact with allergens
- D) Liquid diet
- B) Good oral hygiene, Referral to dentistry for debridement
* Antibiotics for systemic symptom
104
What is a characteristic symptom of angular stomatitis?**
- A) Vesicular lesions
- B) Inflammation and small cracks in the corners of the mouth
- C) Black hairy tongue
- D) White plaques
- B) Inflammation and small cracks in the corners of the mouth
105
How should angular stomatitis be treated?
- A) Supportive care
- B) Treat the underlying cause
- C) Avoiding dentures
- D) Using antihistamines
- B) Treat the underlying cause
106
What is another name for pseudomembranous stomatitis?
- A) Cold sores
- B) Black hairy tongue
- C) Smoker’s palate
- D) Trench mouth
B) Black hairy tongue
106
What is a common secondary infection in angular stomatitis?
- A) Staph infection
- B) Viral infection
- C) Allergic reaction
- D) Nutritional deficiency
- A) Staph infection
107
What are common causes of pseudomembranous stomatitis?
- A) Bismuth, smoking, excessive coffee or black tea, poor oral hygiene
- B) Viral infections
- C) Nutritional deficiencies
- D) Allergic reactions
- A) Bismuth, smoking, excessive coffee or black tea, poor oral hygiene
108
What is the typical appearance of pseudomembranous stomatitis?**
- A) White plaques
- B) Membrane-like exudate
- C) Vesicular lesions
- D) Inflammation and small cracks
- B) Membrane-like exudate
109
What are the characteristic lesions of herpes simplex?
- A) Large ulcers
- B) Vesicular lesions that evolve into ulcers
- C) Black hairy tongue
- D) White plaques
- B) Vesicular lesions that evolve into ulcers
110
What symptoms precede the vesicular lesions in herpes simplex?
- A) Itching and burning
- B) Nausea and vomiting
- C) Severe pain
- D) High fever
- A) Itching and burning
111
How long do the vesicular lesions of herpes simplex typically crust over?
- A) 1-2 days
- B) 3-5 days
- C) 4-10 days
- D) 10-14 days
- C) 4-10 days
112
When are oral corticosteroids recommended in the management of stomatitis?
- A) For mild cases
- B) For severe cases of stomatitis and glossitis
- C) For chronic cases
- D) For all cases
- B) For severe cases of stomatitis and glossitis
113
Why should oral medications be monitored closely in patients with open oral ulcers?
- A) To ensure they are effective
- B) to avoid toxicity Because significantly more absorption than expected may result from open ulcers
- C) To prevent allergic reactions
- D) To avoid overuse
- B) to avoid toxicity Because significantly more absorption than expected may result from open ulcers
114
What is a recommended hygiene practice for managing stomatitis?
- A) Using alcohol-based mouthwash
- B) Oral rinses with baking soda and saltwater
- C) Brushing teeth with a hard-bristled toothbrush
- D) Avoiding mouth rinses
B) Oral rinses with baking soda and saltwater
115
What is the appearance of the mucosa in erythematous oral candidiasis?
- A) White and patchy
- B) Fiery red
- C) Black and hairy
- D) Speckled with white and red
- B) Fiery red
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What type of diet is recommended initially for patients with severe stomatitis?**
- A) High fiber diet
- B) Liquid diet
- C) High protein diet
- D) Low fat diet
- B) Liquid diet
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Viral Causes of Pharyngitis
* Rhinovirus
* Adenovirus
* Influenza
* Epstein-Barr virus
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Bacterial causes of pharyngitis
GABHS-- Group A beta hemolytic streptococcus
* Haemophilus influenza
* Mycoplasma pneumonia
* Chlamydia pneumonia
* Neisseria gonorrhea
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What age group receives a -1 point in the criteria for diagnosing pharyngitis/tonsillitis?
A) Under 15 years
B) Age 15-40 years
C) Age over 45 years
D) Age 20-30 years
C) Age over 45 years
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What age group receives a + 1point in the criteria for diagnosing pharyngitis/tonsillitis?
A) Under 15 years
B) Age 15-40 years
C) Age over 45 years
D) Age 20-30 years
A) Under 15 years
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What is the specificity of the rapid strep test for diagnosing pharyngitis/tonsillitis?
A) 80%
B) 85%
C) 90%
D) 95%
C) 90%
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What is the sensitivity range of the rapid strep test for diagnosing pharyngitis/tonsillitis?
A) 70-80%
B) 80-90%
C) 85-95%
D) 90-100%
B) 80-90%
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Which diagnostic test is used to confirm the presence of Group A Streptococcus if the rapid strep test is negative?
A) CBC
B) Strep culture
C) Chest X-ray
D) Throat swab
B) Strep culture
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What CBC finding is indicative of bacterial pharyngitis/tonsillitis?
A) Decreased RBC
B) Increased WBC with left shift
C) Normal WBC count
D) Decreased WBC count
B) Increased WBC with left shift
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What symptom adds one point to the criteria for diagnosing pharyngitis/tonsillitis?
A) Presence of cough
B) Fever over 100.5°F, tonsillar exudate, tender anterior cervical LAD, absence of cough
C) Absence of fever
D) Age over 45 years
B) Fever over 100.5°F, tonsillar exudate, tender anterior cervical LAD, absence of cough
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What age group receives a 0 point in the criteria for diagnosing pharyngitis/tonsillitis?
A) Under 15 years
B) Age 15-40 years
C) Age over 45 years
D) Age 20-30 years
age 15–40
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Treatment for Pharyngitis
* Group A strep
* Penicillin V potassium (PenVK) 500 mg PO BID for 10 days
Supportive care
* Analgesia
* Warm saltwater gargles
* Increased fluids
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Complications of pharyngitis
acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, rheumatic fever
reddish, tea-colored urine 2–3 weeks post-infection
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Strep Patient education
Contagious until completed 24 hours of
antibiotics
* Replace toothbrush when sore throat begins and when antibiotics complete
* Warm compresses to enlarged, tender cervical nodes
* Finish complete antibiotics course
* Liquid/soft diet
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Infectious mononucleosis is caused by:
A) Coxsackie virus
B) Epstein–Barr virus
C) Herpes simplex
D) Viral hepatitis A
B) Epstein–Barr virus (Correct)
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The common cold is caused by:
A) Haemophilus influenza
B) Streptococcus
C) Rhinovirus
D) Herpes virus
C) Rhinovirus (Correct)
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The clinician is assessing a patient complaining of hearing loss. The clinician places a tuning fork over the patient’s mastoid process, and when the sound fades away, the fork is placed without restriking it over the external auditory meatus. The patient is asked to let the clinician know when the sound fades away. This is an example of which type of test?
A) Weber test
B) Auditory brainstem response (ABR) test
C) Rinne test
D) Schwabach test
C) Rinne test
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What is the most common physical finding associated with strep pharyngitis?
A) Exudative tonsils
B) Unilateral tonsillar edema
C) Injected uvula
D) Ulceration on buccal mucosa
A) Exudative tonsils (Correct)
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A patient presents to the clinician complaining of ear pain. On examination, the clinician finds that the patient has tenderness on traction of the pinna as well as when applying pressure over the tragus. Which condition are these findings classic signs of?
A) Otitis media
B) Tinnitus
C) Ménière’s disease
D) Otitis externa
D) Otitis externa
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A 40-year-old male accountant presents with a 3-day history of left eye irritation. On physical exam, there is moderate conjunctival injection, watery discharge, palpable preauricular lymph nodes, and visual acuity of 20/20 both eyes. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Viral conjunctivitis
B) Blepharitis
C) Bacterial conjunctivitis
D) Acute glaucoma
A) Viral conjunctivitis
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Ototoxic drugs are a potential cause of sensorineural hearing loss. Which of the following drugs may cause hearing loss?
A) Minocycline
B) Cephalexin
C) Gentamicin
D) Penicillin
C) Gentamicin
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What is the primary treatment for allergic rhinitis?
A) Humidified air and cough suppressants
B) Allergy avoidance and antihistamines
C) Topical nasal sprays and antibiotics
D) Systemic steroids and decongestants
B) Allergy avoidance and antihistamines
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