Health Flashcards

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1
Q

Describe the role of seminiferous tubules in the male reductive system

A

To produce the sperm

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2
Q

Describe the role of interstitial cells in the male reproductive system

A

To produce the hormone testosterone

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3
Q

Describe the role of testosterone in the male reproductive system

A

Stimulates the production of sperm in seminiferous tubules

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4
Q

Describe the role of the prostate gland in the male reproductive system

A

Secret enzymes that keep fluid at the right consistency

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5
Q

Describe the role of seminal vesicles in the male reproductive system

A

Secret fructose and prostaglandins to prove energy and cause muscles in the female reproductive system to contract

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6
Q

Name the site of fertilisation in the female reproductive system

A

Oviduct

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7
Q

Name the cell formed by the process of fertilisation

A

Zygote

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8
Q

Name three pituitary hormones

A

FSH ,LH ,ICSH

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9
Q

What is the role of FSH in the male reproductive system

A

Promotes sperm production in the seminiferous tubules

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10
Q

What is the role of ICSH in the male reproductive system

A

Stimulates the interstitial cells in the testes to produce testosterone

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11
Q

State three roles of testosterone in the male reproductive system

A
  • stimulates sperm production
  • actives prostate gland
  • actives seminal vesicles
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12
Q

By what mechanism do FSH and ICSH affect testosterone production

A

Negative feedback

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13
Q

Describe the role of FSH in the female reproductive system

A

FSH - stimulates maturation of follicles and the release of oestrogen from them

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14
Q

Describe the role of LH in the female reproductive system

A

LH - stimulates the corpus luteum to release the hormone progesterone

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15
Q

Describe the role of oestrogen in the female reproductive system

A

Stimulates the repair of the endometrium,thinking it and preparing it for implantation

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16
Q

Named the two phases of the menstrual cycle

A
  • follicular phase

- luteal phase

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17
Q

What is a follicle

A

A fluid filled sac that contains an immature egg

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18
Q

What is the corpus luteum

A

A developed follicle after ovulation

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19
Q

At wha

T stage of development does the developing baby implant in the endometrium

A

Luteal phase- 8-13 days after fertilisation

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20
Q

Name one pituitary hormone and one ovarian hormone which leads to menstruation

A

FSH and oestrogen

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21
Q

Describe how a woman fertile period can be calculated

A
  • slight rise of body temperature

- thinning of cervical mucus

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22
Q

Give two potential uses for knowledge of the fertile period

A

To increase the chances of becoming pregnant

Or a means of contraception through timing

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23
Q

Describe how drugs which stimulate ovulation bring about there effect

A

The drugs mimic FSH or LH or interfere with the normal negative feedback control

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24
Q

How may artificial inseminination be modified to help a couple with a low sperm count

A

Several samples of semen are collected and combined over a period of time

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25
Q

Briefly describe IVF

A

Ova are removed after stimulated by hormones, they are then mixed with sperm in a culture dish out side the body, the fertilised egg is then cultured then implanted

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26
Q

Under what conditions might ICSI be used to treat infertility

A

Very high number of active sperm

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27
Q

Briefly describe ICSI

A

Head of an active sperm is drawn into a needle then injected directly into the ovum yo achieve fertilisation

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28
Q

Give one physical and chemical method of contraception

A

Physical-condom,diaphragm,vasectomy,IDU

Chemical-mini pill, morning after pill, combination contraceptive pill

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29
Q

Briefly describe how the combination contraceptive pill works

A

Contains synthetic progesterone and oestrogen which inhibits secretion of FSH and LH by the pituitary gland

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30
Q

What is pre -implantation genetic screening used for

A

To identify single gene disorders and chromosome abnormalities

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31
Q

What is an anomaly scan used for during pregnancy

A

Used to detect the presence of serious physical problems in the fetus

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32
Q

What is a dating scan used for in pregnancy

A

Used to determine the stage of the pregnancy and the date that the baby is due

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33
Q

What other test are used along side dating scans to determine a baby’s due date

A

Used with tests for marker chemicals

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34
Q

Briefly describe amniocentesis

A

Amniotic fluid it withdrawn , then the cells from the fluid are then cultured for several weeks to then produce a karyotype

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35
Q

What does CVS stand for

A

Chorionic villus sampling

36
Q

Briefly describe CVS

A

Suctioned tube is inserted through cervix fetal cellos are then taken from the chronic vili and are cultured for several hours then a karyotype is made

37
Q

What are the advantages of aminocentesis compared to cvs

A

That there is a lower risk of miscarriage

38
Q

What are the disadvantages of amniocentesis compared to cvs

A

It is done much later on in the pregnancy

39
Q

Under what circumstances might anit-rhesus antibodies be given to the mother

A

Given to a rhesus negative mother after a potentially sensitising even and after the first pregnancy so that the the fetal rhesus positive red bold cells are destroyed

40
Q

Give an example of a metabolic disorder detected by postnatal screening

A

Phenylketonuria (PKU)

41
Q

Give an example of a genotype of someone with an autosomal recessive disorder (use letter h)

A

hh

42
Q

Give two examples of possible genotype software someone with an autosomal dominant disorder ( use letter h )

A

Hh
Or
HH

43
Q

Give an example of a genotype of someone with a sex-linked recessive disorder

A

X(h) X(h)
Or
X(h)Y

44
Q

What does PGD stand for

A

Pre-implantation genetic diagnosis

45
Q

Briefly describe PGD

A

Used in conjunction with IVF , it’s used to identify single gene disorders or gene abnormalities before selecting embryos to be implanted into the uterus

46
Q

Where in blood vessels are the elastic fibres and smooth muscles found

A

Muscular inner wall of arteries and veins

47
Q

When would vasoconstriction be used to control blood flow to peripheral tissue

A

During ventricular systole

48
Q

When would vasodilation be used to control blood flow to peripheral tissues

A

During atrial diastole

49
Q

What substance found in plasma is not present in tissue fluid

A

Blood plasma

50
Q

What process moves soluble substances between tissue fluid and plasma

A

Diffusion

51
Q

During which part(s) of the cardiac cycle would the av valves be closed

A

Ventricular systole

52
Q

Name the three parts of the cardiac cycle

A
  • atrial and ventricular diastole
  • atrial systole (ventricular diastole)
  • ventricular systole (atrial diastole)
53
Q

Durning what part (s) of the cardiac cycle would the SL values be closed

A
  • atrial and ventricular diastole

- atrial systole

54
Q

Name two parts of the autonomic nervous system and state in what direction they affect heart rate

A

Sympathetic-speeds up heart rate

Parasympathetic-slows down heart rate

55
Q

State an name of a hormone and what’s its effects are on heart rate

A

Adrenaline- speeds up heart rate

56
Q

What is the full name of the SAN and what’s its function

A

Sino-atrial node , the hearts own pace maker, ensures both atria contract simultaneous

57
Q

What’s the full name and function of the AVN

A

Automatic nervous system,sends impulses into a bundle of conducting fibres which cause the ventricules to conduct simultaneously

58
Q

Explain the word ‘antagonistic ‘ in terms of the heart rate by the autonomic nervous system

A

Opposing actions of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems , effecting the same organ but has opposite effects

59
Q

What hormone is released by sympathetic accelerator nerves in the control of heart rate

A

NorAdrenaline (norepinephrine)

60
Q

What neurotransmitters is released by parasympathetic nerves in the control of heart rate

A

Acetylcholine

61
Q

At what stage of the cardiac cycle would blood pressure in the aorta be at its maximum value

A

Ventricular systole

62
Q

At what stage of the cardiac cycle would blood pressure in the aorta be at its minimum val

A

Atrial and ventricular diastole

63
Q

What instrument is used to measure blood pressure

A

Sphygmomanometer

64
Q

What is meant by the term hypertension

A

Abnormally high blood pressure in arteries

65
Q

Name a disease that hypertension is a risk factor for

A

Coronary heart disease //stroke

66
Q

What is meant by CVD

A

Cardiovascular disease

67
Q

What is the effect of atherosclerosis on the arteries

A

Restricted blood flow and increase blood pressure. Also looses arteries elasticity

68
Q

What is the effect of atherosclerosis on blood pressure

A

Raised blood pressure

69
Q

In what way is atherosclerosis linked to CVD

A

It’s the root cause of various cardiovascular diseases

70
Q

What is a thrombus

A

A blood clot in a vessel

71
Q

Briefly describe how a thrombus could lead to a myocardial infarction (MI)

A

Is the thrombus is in a coronary artery

72
Q

What are the roles of fibrinogen and fibrin in blood clotting

A

Thrombin causes molecules of soluble plasma proteins fibrinogen to form threads of fibrin, fibrin then form a mesh work that plates join to forming a blood clot

73
Q

Briefly describe how a thrombus could lead to a stroke

A

Thrombosis in an artery in the brain could lead to a stroke

74
Q

What are the roles of prothrombin and thrombin in blood clotting

A

Clotting factors lead the enzyme prothrombin to be converted into its active thrombin which then helps to form fibrin form fibrinogen

75
Q

Name three causes of peripheral vascular disorder

A

Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
Atherosclerosis
Pulmonary embolism

76
Q

What is an embolus and what effect might it have in the body

A

If a thrombus breaks loose it forms a embolus, which travels through the blood stream and could block a blood vessel

77
Q

What does HDL stand for and what’s does it do in the body

A

Night -density lipoprotein, transports excess cholesterol form the body cells to the liver

78
Q

What’s does LDL stand for and what does it do in the body

A

Low-density lipoprotein, transports cholesterol to the body cells

79
Q

Is it a night or a low ratio of HDL to LDL associated with good health

A

High

80
Q

Name the genetic disease that leads to high concentrations of blood cholesterol

A

Familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH)

81
Q

How is FH treated

A

Lifestyle modification and drugs such as statins

82
Q

What is the role of insulin in controlling blood glucose levels

A

Stimulates the conversion of glucose into glycogen in the liver

83
Q

What is the role of glucagon in controlling blood glucose levels

A

The higher glucagon concentration causes glycogen to be converted to glucose in the liver increasing blood glucose

84
Q

What is the role of adrenaline in controlling blood glucose levels

A

Adrenaline stimulates glucagon secretion and inhibits insulin secretion

85
Q

In what type of diabetes is there a problem with the body’s insulin receptors

A

Type 2 diabetes

86
Q

What type of diabetes is there a problem with the synthesis of insulin

A

Type 1 diabetes

87
Q

Give the formula for calculating BMI

A

BMI(kg m-2) = weight(kg)/ height(m2)