Head and neck syndromes Flashcards

1
Q

What is a cleft lip?

A

Defective fusion of medial nasal process and maxillary process

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2
Q

What is a cleft palate?

A

Defective fusion of the palatal shelves

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3
Q

What are the causes of orofacial clefts?

A

Over 400 syndromes, maternal cigarette smoking, anticonvulsant therapy, maternal alcohol consumption, folic acid deficiency

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4
Q

What is Pierre Robin Sequence?

A

Cleft palate, mandibular micrognathia, glossoptosis

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5
Q

What syndromes are associated with Pierre Robin Sequence?

A

Stickler Syndrome, Velocardiofacial syndrome

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6
Q

What is carcinoma is associated with Gardner Syndrome?

A

Potential for adenocarcinoma of the colon

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7
Q

What are the clinical features of Gardner Syndrome?

A

Osteomas, epidermoid cysts, multiple odontomas and impacted supernumerary teeth

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8
Q

What is the treatment for Gardner Syndrome?

A

Prophylactic Colectomy

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9
Q

What is the prognosis for Gardner Syndrome without treatment?

A

50% with colorectal carcinoma by 30, 100% colorectal carcinoma by the 5th decade of life

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10
Q

What is Hemihyperplasia?

A

Unilateral enlargement of unknown cause

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11
Q

What are the associations with Hemihyperplasia?

A

Isolated or associated with syndrome

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12
Q

What are the clinical features of Hemihyperplasia?

A

Unilateral macroglossia with enlarged tooth crowns

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13
Q

What are tumor location associated with Hemihyperplasia?

A

Increased prevalence of abdominal tumors (Wilms tumor, adrenal cortical carcinoma, hepatoblastoma)

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14
Q

What is the treatment for Hemihyperplasia?

A

Rule out disease/conditions/syndromes, periodic ultrasound to monitor abdominal tumor development, cosmetic surgery and orthodontics after growth cessation

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15
Q

What is Progressive Hemifacial Atrophy?

A

Unilateral degeneration and atrophy

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16
Q

When does Progressive Hemifacial Atrophy typically onset?

A

During first two decades

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17
Q

What is the progression of Hemifacial Atrophy?

A

Begins as atrophy of skin and subcutaneous structures, osseous hypoplasia in the first decade

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18
Q

What is the treatment for Progressive Hemifacial Atrophy?

A

Atrophy slows over 2-20 years and stabilizes, managed with methotrexate and corticosteroids, surgery and ortho after condition stabilizes

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19
Q

What is Crouzon Syndrome (Craniofacial Dysostosis) and mutation?

A

Autosomal dominant, premature closure of cranial sutures, mutation in FGFR2

20
Q

What are the clinical features of Crouzon Syndrome?

A

Cranial malformation, midfacial hypoplasia with ocular proptosis, beaten metal skull radiograph, normal or near normal intelligence

21
Q

What is the treatment for Crouzon Syndrome?

A

Craniectomy for pressure relief, plastic surgery, orthognathic surgery

22
Q

What is Apert Syndrome and mutation?

A

Autosomal dominant, premature closure of cranial sutures, mutation of FGFR2

23
Q

What are the clinical features of Apert Syndrome?

A

Cranial malformation, midfacial hypoplasia with ocular proptosis, syndactyly, intellectual disability, soft palate cleft or bifid uvula

24
Q

What is the treatment for Apert Syndrome?

A

Early surgical intervention to allow brain growth, increase intellect, and social development

25
Q

What is Treacher Collins Syndrome (Mandibulofacial Dysostosis) and mutation and branchial arch association?

A

Autosomal dominant, mutation of TCOF1 gene, defect of 1st and 2nd branchial arch

26
Q

What are the clinical features of Treacher Collins Syndrome?

A

Hypoplasia of zygomatic process, downward slanting palprebral fissures, coloboma, malformed ears, underdeveloped mandible, normal intelligence

27
Q

What is the treatment for Treacher Collins Syndrome?

A

Facial reconstruction

28
Q

What is Amelogenesis Imperfecta?

A

Alteration in enamel structure

29
Q

What is Witkop’s classification of Amelogenesis Imperfecta?

A

Hypoplastic, Hypomaturation, Hypocalcification

30
Q

What is Hypoplastic Amelogenesis Imperfecta features?

A

Inadequate deposition of enamel matrix

31
Q

What is Hypomaturation Amelogenesis Imperfecta features?

A

Defective maturation of enamel crystal structure, discolored soft enamel that chips, radiodensity similar to dentin, Snow capped

32
Q

What is Hypocalcification Amelogenesis Imperfecta features?

A

No significant mineralization of enamel matrix, enamel is soft and easily lost

33
Q

What is the treatment for Amelogenesis Imperfecta?

A

Primarily esthetic unless loss of OVD

34
Q

What disease is similar to Dentinogenesis Imperfecta?

A

Similar to osteogenesis imperfecta

35
Q

What are the clinical features of Dentinogenesis Imperfecta?

A

Opalescent teeth in permanent and deciduous dentition, blue brown discoloration, enamel separates easily, bulbous crowns, cervical constriction, short/thin roots, obliterated pulp, shell teeth/enlarged pulps are rare, frequent PA lesions

36
Q

What is the treatment for Dentinogenesis Imperfecta?

A

Dentures or implants

37
Q

What dentin is affected Dentin Dysplasia Type 1?

A

Radicular dentin

38
Q

What are the characteristics of Dentin Dysplasia Type 1?

A

Crescent shaped pulp chambers, short roots, no canal, stream flowing around boulders

39
Q

What dentin is affected in Dentin Dysplasia Type 2 and feature?

A

Coronal dentin, similar to dentinogenesis imperfecta, normal clinical appearance, thistle tube

40
Q

What bacteria and gene mutation causes is Papillon-Lefevre Syndrome?

A

Primary pathogen is A. Actinomycetemcomitans, mutation of cathepsin C gene, affects skin, myeloid and lymphoid cells

41
Q

What are the clinical features of Papillon-Lefevre Syndrome?

A

Palmer/plantar keratosis, rapid, progressive periodontitis, floating teeth

42
Q

How is Papillon-Lefevre Syndrome diagnosed?

A

Biopsy to rule out other pathology

43
Q

What is the treatment for Papillon-Lefevre Syndrome?

A

Antibiotics, plaque control, CHX rinse

44
Q

What is Sturge-Weber Angiomatosis (Encephalotrigeminal Angiomatosis)?

A

Vascular proliferation of skin and brain

45
Q

What are the clinical features of Sturge-Weber Angiomatosis?

A

Nevus flammeus, intellectual disability, hemiplegia, convulsions, leptomeningeal angiomas, gyriform ‘tram line’ calcifications