abnormalities of bone Flashcards

1
Q

What is a focal osteoporotic marrow defect?

A

An area of hematopoietic marrow sufficient in size to produce a radiolucency.

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2
Q

What does a focal osteoporotic marrow defect mimic?

A

Pathology.

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3
Q

Where is a focal osteoporotic marrow defect typically located?

A

Posterior mandible.

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4
Q

What is idiopathic osteosclerosis?

A

A focal increase in bone density.

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5
Q

What does idiopathic osteosclerosis appear as?

A

Dense bone islands.

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6
Q

Where is idiopathic osteosclerosis located?

A

Mandible.

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7
Q

Is idiopathic osteosclerosis expansile?

A

Non-expansile.

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8
Q

What is a simple bone cyst?

A

A benign empty or fluid-filled cavity.

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9
Q

Is a simple bone cyst a true cyst?

A

Not a true cyst.

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10
Q

What radiographic appearance is associated with simple bone cyst?

A

Scalloping between roots.

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11
Q

What is a central giant cell granuloma?

A

Destructive lesions of the jaw comprised of osteoclast giant cells.

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12
Q

Where is a central giant cell granuloma typically located?

A

Mandible, anterior to the first molar.

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13
Q

Can a central giant cell granuloma cross the midline?

A

Yes, it may cross the midline.

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14
Q

What is cherubism?

A

A rare autosomal dominant condition.

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15
Q

What are the characteristics of cherubism?

A

Bilateral expansion in the posterior mandible.

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16
Q

What is the typical disease course of Cherubism?

A

Remission and involution after puberty.

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17
Q

What are the types of benign fibro-osseous lesions?

A

Cemento-osseous dysplasia, including peri-apical, focal, and florid cemento-osseous dysplasia, and fibrous dysplasia.

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18
Q

Where does Peri-apical cemento-osseous dysplasia occur and in whom?

A

Anterior mandible, black females.

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19
Q

Where does focal cemento-osseous dysplasia occur?

A

Posterior mandible and is solitary.

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20
Q

Where does florid cemento-osseous dysplasia occur?

A

Multifocal involvement, often symmetric in all four quadrants.

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21
Q

What are the stages of benign fibro-osseous lesions?

A

Fibroblastic early stage progressing to a later stage with bone deposition.

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22
Q

What is the treatment for benign fibro-osseous lesions?

A

No treatment is needed.

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23
Q

Is it safe to place implants in areas of benign fibro-osseous lesions?

A

Do not place implants in areas of lesions.

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24
Q

What gene is mutated in fibrous dysplasia?

A

Postzygotic mutation of the GNAS1 gene.

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25
Q

What is monostotic fibrous dysplasia?

A

Enlargement of a single bone, often the maxilla, with ground-glass opacification.

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26
Q

What syndromes are associated with fibrous dysplasia?

A

Jaffe-Lichtenstein and McCune-Albright syndrome, associated with café au lait spots.

27
Q

What is Mazabraud syndrome?

A

Fibrous dysplasia + myxomas.

28
Q

What radiographic appearance is associated with fibrous dysplasia?

A

Chinese character bone.

29
Q

What is an ossifying fibroma?

A

A neoplasm of fibro-osseous differentiation.

30
Q

Where is ossifying fibroma typically located?

A

Mandibular molar-premolar region.

31
Q

What is the growth potential of ossifying fibroma?

A

Potential for massive growth.

32
Q

What is Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis?

A

Neoplastic proliferation of Langerhans cells.

33
Q

What genetic mutation is associated with Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis?

A

BRAF mutation in 40-60%.

34
Q

What are the types of Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis?

A

Acute/chronic disseminated histiocytosis, monostotic/polyostotic eosinophilic granuloma of bone.

35
Q

Who is typically affected by Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis?

A

Young patients.

36
Q

What oral manifestations are associated with Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis?

A

Proliferative gingival mass.

37
Q

What radiographic appearance is associated with Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis?

A

“Floating in air” appearance.

38
Q

What condition does Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis mimic?

A

Chronic periodontitis.

39
Q

What is the treatment for Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis?

A

Curettage.

40
Q

The most common primary malignant tumor of bone.

A

Osteosarcoma

41
Q

What is the main characteristic of osteosarcoma?

A

Malignancy with the ability to produce osteoid or bone.

42
Q

Age is typically affected by osteosarcoma?

A

Adolescents or those above age 60.

43
Q

What radiographic features are associated with osteosarcoma?

A

Widening of PDL, spiking root resorption, Sunburst/Sunray appearance.

44
Q

What is the most common malignancy affecting bone?

A

Metastatic carcinoma.

45
Q

What are the most common primary sites for malignancies that metastasize to the jaw?

A

Breast (in females), lung, thyroid, prostate (in males), kidney, colorectal, melanoma.

46
Q

What bones are most frequently affected by metastasis?

A

Vertebrae, ribs, pelvis, skull.

47
Q

How does metastasis spread to the jaw?

A

Hematogenous spread via the Batson paravertebral plexus of veins.

48
Q

What is the significance of jaw metastasis?

A

In 20-25% of cases, the metastatic deposit is the first indication of malignancy.

49
Q

What radiographic appearance is associated with metastasis to the jaw?

A

Moth-eaten radiolucency.

50
Q

What are bone characteristics of osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

Low bone density and bone fragility.

51
Q

What is the genetic basis of osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

Autosomal dominant mutation of COL1A1 and COL1A2 affecting type 1 collagen formation.

52
Q

What does type 1 collagen affect?

A

Bone, dentin, sclerae, ligaments, skin.

53
Q

What are the dental alterations seen in osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

Dental alterations identical to dentinogenesis imperfecta, translucent teeth, shell teeth (Types 3 and 4).

54
Q

What is osteopetrosis?

A

Increased bone density.

55
Q

What is the underlying defect in osteopetrosis?

A

Defect in osteoclastic function/differentiation.

56
Q

What are the types of osteopetrosis?

A

Autosomal recessive infantile, autosomal recessive intermediate, autosomal dominant adult.

57
Q

What are the characteristics of autosomal recessive infantile osteopetrosis?

A

At birth or early infancy, normocytic anemia, bone marrow failure.

58
Q

What are the characteristics of autosomal recessive intermediate osteopetrosis?

A

Later childhood onset, rare bone marrow failure.

59
Q

What are the characteristics of autosomal dominant adult osteopetrosis?

A

Adolescence/adulthood onset, mildest form and most common, no anemia or bone marrow failure, increased density of jaw bones = susceptible to infection and fracture.

60
Q

What does cleidocranial dysplasia affect?

A

Bone and teeth formation.

61
Q

What gene is associated with cleidocranial dysplasia?

A

RUNX2 gene.

62
Q

What skeletal features are affected in cleidocranial dysplasia?

A

Clavicles and skull (hypoplastic, discontinuous, or absent).

63
Q

What oral features are associated with cleidocranial dysplasia?

A

Narrow, high arch palate, increased incidence of cleft palate, mandibular prognathism, failed eruption of permanent teeth, over-retention of primary teeth, supernumerary teeth.