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CDB PEARLS > Head and Neck Anatomy > Flashcards

Head and Neck Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

Layers of scalp

A

SCALP

1) Skin
2) subCutaneous tissue
3) galea Aponeurotica
4) Loose areolar tissue
5) Pericranium

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2
Q

Arteries supplying the scalp are branches of the (2)

A

1) External carotid artery

2) Ophthalmic from internal carotid artery

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3
Q

Dangerous area of the scalp

A

Emissary veins

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4
Q

Layer of the scalp that causes scalp wounds to gape

A

Galea aponeurotica

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5
Q

How many bones make up the cranium

A

8

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6
Q

Bones of the cranium

A

1) Frontal
2) Right and left parietal
3) Occipital
4) Right and left temporal
5) Sphenoid
6) Ethmoid

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7
Q

How many facial bones are there

A

14

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8
Q

Facial bones

A

1) 2 nasal
2) 2 lacrimal
3) Vomer
4) 2 inferior concha
5) 2 maxillae
6) 2 palatine
7) 2 zygomatic
8) Mandible

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9
Q

Most common facial bone fractures

A

1) Nasal
2) Zygomatic
3) Mandible

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10
Q

Anterior fontanelles is aka

A

Bregma

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11
Q

Posterior fontanelle is aka

A

Lambda

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12
Q

T/F Mastoid process is present at birth

A

F

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13
Q

Mastoid develops during

A

First 2 years of life

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14
Q

Significance of absence of mastoid at birth

A

Forceps delivery may result in facial nerve injury

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15
Q

Weakest fossa of the skull base

A

Middle cranial fossa

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16
Q

Signs of middle cranial fossa fracture

A

1) Bleeding into mouth if with sphenoid involvement
2) Bleeding or CSF leak from ear
3) Facial and auditory nerve injury

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17
Q

Raccoon eyes signify fracture of

A

Frontal portion of skull base

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18
Q

Extreme tenderness and bruising over the area of the mastoid process of the skull (behind the ear)

A

Battle sign

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19
Q

Battle sign signify fracture of

A

Temporal bone

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20
Q

Cranial fossa fractured in the presence of a Battle sign

A

Posterior

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21
Q

A temporary improvement in a patient’s condition after a traumatic brain injury, after which the condition deteriorates

A

Lucid interval

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22
Q

Lucid interval is indicative of

A

Epidural hematoma

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23
Q

Intracranial hemorrhage, involved blood vessel/s: Epidural

A

Anterior division of middle meningeal artery

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24
Q

Intracranial hemorrhage, involved blood vessel/s: Subdural

A

Cerebral veins/Bridging/Emissary vessels

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25
Q

Intracranial hemorrhage, involved blood vessel/s: Subarachnoid hemorrhage

A

Aneurysm/angioma

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26
Q

Intracranial hemorrhage, involved blood vessel/s: Intraparenchymal

A

Lenticulostriate artery

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27
Q

Adult vs young child: Skull fracture likened to an eggshell

A

Adult

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28
Q

Adult vs young child: Skull fracture likened to a pingpong ball

A

Young child

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29
Q

Adult vs young child: Splintering of bone

A

Adult

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30
Q

Adult vs young child: Pond fracture

A

Young child

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31
Q

Signs of anterior cranial fossa fracture

A

1) Epistaxis
2) Rhinorrhea
3) Racoon’s eye
4) Exophthalmos

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32
Q

Signs of middle cranial fossa fracture

A

1) Rhinorrhea/Otorrhea

2) CN 3,4,6,7,8 damage

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33
Q

Signs of posterior cranial fossa fracture

A

1) Battle sign

2) CN 9,10,11 damage

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34
Q

Anterior arterial circulation of the brain is derived from

A

Internal carotid artery

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35
Q

Posterior arterial circulation of the brain is derived from

A

Vertebral artery

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36
Q

Branches of the internal carotid artery (6)

A

ICA > CAMPOS

1) Choroidal
2) ACA
3) MCA
4) Posterior communicating
5) Ophthalmic
6) Superior hypophyseal

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37
Q

Branches of vertebral artery

A

MAPP

1) Meningeal branches
2) Anterior spinal
3) Posterior spinal
4) Posterior inferior cerebellar

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38
Q

Adult vs young child: Splintering of bone

A

Adult

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39
Q

Adult vs young child: Pond fracture

A

Young child

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40
Q

Signs of anterior cranial fossa fracture

A

1) Epistaxis
2) Rhinorrhea
3) Racoon’s eye
4) Exophthalmos

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41
Q

Signs of middle cranial fossa fracture

A

1) Rhinorrhea/Otorrhea

2) CN 3,4,6,7,8 damage

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42
Q

Signs of posterior cranial fossa fracture

A

1) Battle sign

2) CN 9,10,11 damage

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43
Q

Anterior arterial circulation of the brain is derived from

A

Internal carotid artery

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44
Q

Posterior arterial circulation of the brain is derived from

A

Vertebral artery

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45
Q

Branches of the internal carotid artery (6)

A

CAMPOS

1) Choroidal
2) ACA
3) MCA
4) PCA
5) Ophthalmic
6) Superior hypophyseal

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46
Q

3 primary vesicles of developing brain

A

1) Forebrain/prosencephalon
2) Midbrain/mesencephalon
3) Hindbrain/rhombencephalon

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47
Q

5 secondary vesicles of developing brain

A 
From prosencephalon
1) Telencephalon
2) Diencephalon
From Mesencephalon
3) Mesencephalon
From Rhombencephalon
4) Metencephalon
5) Myelencephalon
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48
Q

Adult derivative: Telencephalon

A

1) Cerebral hemispheres

2) Lateral ventricles

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49
Q

Adult derivative: Diencephalon

A

1) Thalamus

2) 3rd ventricle

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50
Q

Adult derivative: Mesencephalon

A

1) Midbrain

2) Aqueduct of Sylvius

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51
Q

Adult derivative: Metencephalon

A

1) Pons
2) Cerebellum
3) Upper part of 4th ventricle

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52
Q

Adult derivative: Myelencephalon

A

1) Medulla

2) Lower part of 4th ventricle

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53
Q

Myelination begins at

A

___ weeks

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54
Q

Myelination is almost completed at

A

___ years

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55
Q

Adult derivative of notochord

A

Nucleus pulpous of intervertebral disc

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56
Q

Branches of basilar artery

A

PPALS

1) Pontine branches
2) Anterior inferior cerebellar
3) Labyrinthine
4) PCA
5) Superior cerebellar

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57
Q

Venous drainage of brain

A

Dural venous sinuses

1) Superior and inferior sagittal sinus
2) Great vein of Galen
3) Straight sinus
4) Transverse sinus
5) Sigmoid sinus

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58
Q

Dural venous sinuses ultimately empty into

A

IJV

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59
Q

Neural plate is formed at

A

___ days

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60
Q

Neural groove and tube are formed at

A

___ days

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61
Q

Myelination begins at

A

___ weeks

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62
Q

Myelination is almost completed at

A

___ years

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63
Q

Failure of dorsal induction in the development of nervous system results in

A

1) Anencephaly
2) Encephalocele
3) Myelomeningocele

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64
Q

Disorder of ventral induction in development of nervous system results in

A

Facial malformations

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65
Q

Result of failure of neuropores to fuse at 4th week AOG

A

NTD

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66
Q

NTD: Substance elevated in amniotic fluid and maternal serum

A

AFP

67
Q

NTD: Helpful confirmatory test

A

Increased acetylcholinesterase in amniotic fluid

68
Q

Failure of bony spinal canal to close but without structural herniation

A

Spina bifida occulta

69
Q

Maternal conditions associated with anencephaly

A

1) Type I DM

2) Low folate levels

70
Q

Spina bifida occulta: T/F Dura is intact

A

T

71
Q

Spina bifida occulta: T/F Found in lower vertebral levels

A

T

72
Q

Herniation of meninges through spinal canal defect

A

Meningocele

73
Q

Herniation of meninges and spinal cord through spinal defect

A

Myelomeningocele

74
Q

Malformation of anterior neural tube resulting in no forebrain

A

Anencephaly

75
Q

Increased vs decreased AFP: Anencephaly

A

Increased

76
Q

Poly vs oligohydramnios: Anencephaly

A

Poly

77
Q

Maternal conditions associated with anencephaly

A

1) Type I DM

2) Low folate levels

78
Q

Failure of left and right hemispheres to separate

A

Holoprosencephaly

79
Q

Results from severe holoprosencephaly

A

Cyclopia

80
Q

Significant cerebellar tonsillar and vermin herniation through foramen magnum with aqueductal stenosis and hydrocephalus

A

Arnold-Chiari malformation or Chiari II

81
Q

Spinal defect associated with Arnold-Chiari malformation or Chiari II

A

Thoracolumbar myelomeningocele

82
Q

Components of brainstem

A

1) Midbrain
2) Pons
3) Medulla

83
Q

Spinal defect associated with Dandy-Walker

A

Spina bifida

84
Q

Cystic enlargement of central canal of spinal cord

A

Syringomyelia

85
Q

Syringomyelia: Spinal tract first damaged

A

Spinothalamic tract

86
Q

Syringomyelia: Characteristic symptom

A

Cape-like bilateral loss of pain and temp sensation in upper extremities

87
Q

Syringomyelia: Associated with what malformation

A

Chiari I

88
Q

Cavernous sinus: Contents

A

1) CaVerNouS: CN III, IV, V1, V2, VI
2) Postganglionic SY fibers
3) ICA

89
Q

Limbic system governs (5)

A 
5 Fs
Feeding
Feeling
Fighting
Flight
Sex
90
Q

Components of brainstem

A

1) Midbrain
2) Pons
3) Medulla

91
Q

Brainstem: Location of what CN nuclei

A

3-12

92
Q

Brainstem: Arterial supply

A

1) Anterior circulation: ICA

2) Posterior circulation: Vertebral

93
Q

Collection of sinuses on either side of the pituitary

A

Cavernous sinus

94
Q

Cavernous sinus: Drains blood from

A

1) Eye

2) Superficial cortex

95
Q

Cavernous sinus: Ultimately drains into

A

IJV

96
Q

UMN signs are due to damage to

A

Corticospinal tract

97
Q

Terminal portion of spinal cord

A

Conus medullaris

98
Q

Fibrous extension of pia mater that anchors spinal cord to coccyx

A

Filum terminale

99
Q

Brought about by hemisection of the spinal cord

A

Brown-Sequard syndrome

100
Q

Brown-Sequard syndrome: T/F IPSILATERAL loss of all sensation at the level of the lesion

A

T

101
Q

Brown-Sequard syndrome: T/F IPSILATERAL UMN signs below level of lesion

A

T

102
Q

Brown-Sequard syndrome: T/F IPSILATERAL LMN signs below lesion

A

F, at the level of lesion

103
Q

Foster-Kennedy syndrome

A

APO

1) Anosmia, ipsi
2) Papilledema, contra
3) Optic atrophy, ipsi

104
Q

UMN signs are due to damage to

A

Corticospinal tract

105
Q

Demyelination/degeneration of dorsal columns and roots causing impaired sensation and proprioception and progressive sensory ataxia (inability to sense or feel legs)

A

Tabes dorsalis

106
Q

Tabes dorsalis: Cause

A

Tertiary syphilis/neurosyphilis

107
Q

Tabes dorsalis: Small bilateral pupils that further constrict to accommodation but not to light

A

Argyll-Robertson pupil

108
Q

Argyll-Robertson pupil is aka

A

Prostitute’s eye

109
Q

Tabes dorsalis: DTRs

A

Absent

110
Q

Tabes dorsalis: Romberg sign

A

Positive

111
Q

Foster-Kennedy syndrome

A

APO

1) Anosmia
2) Papilledema
3) Optic atrophy

112
Q

Most common site of blowout fracture

A

Inferior wall

113
Q

Causes of cavernous sinus thrombosis (2)

A

1) Infections in the dangerous area of the face

2) Facial vein thrombosis

114
Q

In infections of the dangerous area of face, organism ascends through

A

Inferior ophthalmic vein

115
Q

Blowout fracture: Explodes into

A

Maxillary sinus

116
Q

Blowout fracture: Injures

A

???

117
Q

Blowout fracture: Entrapment of

A

Inferior rectus muscle

118
Q

The eye is least protected from which side

A

Lateral

119
Q

Eye trauma: Most common cause

A

Blunt head trauma

120
Q

Most common site of blowout fracture

A

Inferior wall

121
Q

Radiologic sign representing periorbital fat or entrapped EOM in the maxillary sinus

A

Teardrop sign

122
Q

Muscles of eyelids: Sphincters

A

Orbicularis oculi (orbital, palpebral, and lacrimal parts)

123
Q

Muscles of eyelids: Sphincters, nerve supply

A

Facial nerve

124
Q

Muscles of eyelids: Dilators

A

1) Levator palpebrae superioris

2) ??? Occipitofrontalis (raises eyebrow)

125
Q

Muscles of eyelids: Dilators, nerve supply

A

1) Striated muscle: Oculomotor nerve

2) Smooth muscle: SY

126
Q

Muscles of facial expression: Situated in which layer of skin

A

Superficial fascia

127
Q

Muscles of facial expression: Common origin

A

Skull

128
Q

Muscles of facial expression: Common insertion

A

Skin

129
Q

Muscles of facial expression: Common innervation

A

Facial nerve

130
Q

Nerve damaged in Bell’s palsy

A

Facial nerve

131
Q

Muscles of facial expression: Pulls eyebrow medially

A

Corrugator supercilli

132
Q

Muscles of facial expression: Wrinkles skin at root of nose

A

Procerus

133
Q

Muscles of facial expression: Compresses the cheeks and lips against teeth; blowing

A

Buccinator

134
Q

Muscles of facial expression: Muscle involved in generalised tetanus resulting in sardonic grin

A

Risorius

135
Q

Muscles of facial expression: Closes eyelids

A

Palpebral part of orbicular is oculi

136
Q

Muscles of facial expression: Seen in aging

A

Crow’s feet

137
Q

Muscles of facial expression: Involved in hemifacial spasm

A

Orbicularis oculi

138
Q

Muscles of facial expression: Injected with botulinum A toxin

A

Orbicularis oculi

139
Q

Muscles of mastication

A

1) Masseter
2) TeMporalis
3) Medial pterygoid
4) Lateral pterygoid

140
Q

Muscles of mastication: Closes the jaw

A

3 Ms

1) Masseter
2) TeMporalis
3) Medial pterygoid

141
Q

Muscles of mastication: Opens and protracts the jaw

A

Lateral pterygoid

142
Q

Muscles of mastication: Common innervation

A

V3

143
Q

Tongue: Origin of anterior 2/3

A

1st branchial arch

144
Q

Tongue: Origin of posterior 1/3

A

3rd and 4th branchial arches

145
Q

Tongue, nerve for tase: Anterior 2/3

A

CN VII

146
Q

Tongue, nerve for tase: Posterior 1/3

A

CN IX

147
Q

Tongue, sensory innervation: Anterior 2/3

A

CN V3

148
Q

Tongue, sensory innervation: Posterior 1/3

A

CN IX

149
Q

Tongue, taste and sensory innervation: Extreme posterior

A

CN X

150
Q

Tongue: Motor innervation

A

CN XII EXCEPT palatoglossus (CN IX, X)

151
Q

Group of nerves for taste

A

Nucleus solitarius

CN VII, IX, X

152
Q

Acoustic schwannoma: Most common symptoms

A

1) Tinnitus

2) Hearing loss

153
Q

Acoustic schwannoma: Associated with what hereditary condition

A

NF type 2

154
Q

Most common cerebellopontine angle tumor

A

Acoustic schwannoma

155
Q

Branch of glossopharyngeal nerve that supplies carotid sinus

A

Sinus nerve of Hering

156
Q

Important branches of vagus nerve to the neck

A

X-CRAMP

1) Cardiac
2) Recurrent laryngeal
3) Auricular
4) Meningeal
5) Pharyngeal

157
Q

All muscles of palate are supplied by

A

Pharyngeal plexus EXCEPT tensor velli palatini (CN V)

158
Q

All muscles of pharynx are innervated by

A

CN X EXCEPT stylopharyngeus (CN IX)

159
Q

All muscles of larynx are innervated by

A

CN X EXCEPT cricothyroid (external branch of superior laryngeal nerve)

160
Q

Adult GCS

A

Image

161
Q

Pediatric GCS

A

Image

162
Q

Components of vertical buttress system

A

1) Zygomaticofrontomaxillary
2) Nasomaxillary
3) Pterygomaxillary

163
Q

Components of the horizontal buttress system

A

1) Supraorbital bar
2) Inferior orbital rim/orbital floor
3) Alveolus

CDB PEARLS (27 decks)

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