Basic Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Physiologic vs pathologic hypertrophy: Athlete’s heart

A

Physiologic

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2
Q

Physiologic vs pathologic hypertrophy: Pregnant uterus

A

Physiologic hypertrophy after an initial physiologic hyperplasia

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3
Q

2 mechanisms of atrophy resulting in a decrease in size of cells

A

1) Ubiquitin-proteasome degradation

2) Autophagy

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4
Q

Mechanism of atrophy resulting in a decrease in number of cells

A

Apoptosis

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5
Q

Normal left ventricular thickness

A

1.5 cm

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6
Q

Normal right ventricular thickness

A

0.5 cm

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7
Q

Mechanism of metaplasia

A

Reprogramming of stem cells

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8
Q

Epithelial vs mesenchymal: Type of tissue most commonly affected by metaplasia

A

Epithelial

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9
Q

Most common type of metaplasia

A

Squamous metaplasia

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10
Q

Type of metaplasia seen in the cervix

A

Glandular/columnar metaplasia

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11
Q

Mesenchymal metaplasia characterised by heterotropic ossification usually within large muscles

A

Myositis ossificans

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12
Q

Cellular adaptation that takes place in the specialized conjunctival epithelium in vitamin A deficiency

A

Keratomalacia (metaplasia)

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13
Q

Symptom experienced by patients with keratomalacia

A

Night blindness

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14
Q

Vitamin A is essential in the maturation of the immune system hence it (ATRA) is used in the treatment of

A

Acute promyelocytic leukemia

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15
Q

T/F Metaplasia is premalignant

A

F

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16
Q

T/F Dysplasia is premalignant

A

T

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17
Q

Ischemia can cause permanent damage to the brain if not reversed within

A

3-5 minutes

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18
Q

T/F Hyperplasia can progress to dyplasia and CA

A

T

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19
Q

Example of hyperplastic condition that may progress to CA

A

Endometrial hyperplasia

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20
Q

Pathologic hypertrophy vs hyperplasia: BPH

A

Hyperplasia

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21
Q

T/F BPH is premalignant

A

F

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22
Q

Type of hyperplasia in the endometrium that may progress to carcinoma

A

Complex hyperplasia

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23
Q

Most common cause of cellular injury

A

Hypoxia

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24
Q

Final electron acceptor in the ETC

A

O2

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25
Q

Substance that has 100x more affinity to hgb than O2

A

CO

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26
Q

Appearance of skin with CO poisoning

A

Cherry red

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27
Q

First symptom of CO poisoning

A

Headache

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28
Q

Most common cause of hypoxia

A

Ischemia

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29
Q

Most common cause of Budd-Chiari syndrome (renal vein thrombosis)

A

Polycythemia

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30
Q

Spectrum of morphologic changes that follow cell death in living tissue

A

Necrosis

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31
Q

Type of necrosis seen in arteries and autoimmune diseases

A

Fibrinoid necrosis

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32
Q

Cellular change responsible for shedding of endometrium in menstrual cycle

A

Apoptosis

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33
Q

Literal meaning of apoptosis

A

Falling of leaves

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34
Q

Type of cell death responsible for spaces between fingers in embryologic development

A

Apoptosis

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35
Q

T/F Necrosis is always pathologic

A

T

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36
Q

Substance that initiates cell death

A

Caspases

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37
Q

CD of fas receptor

A

CD95

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38
Q

Where in the mitochondria is cytochrome c located

A

IMM

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39
Q

Pro-apoptotic factors

A

1) Bax
2) Caspase 3
3) p53

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40
Q

Antiapoptotic factors

A

Bcl-2

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41
Q

Most common form of lipid deposited in fatty change

A

TAG

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42
Q

Most common cause of fatty change in adults

A

Alcohol

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43
Q

Abnormal protein deposited in multiple myeloma

A

Russel bodies

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44
Q

Pink, eosinophilic inclusions in plasma cells in patients with multiple myeloma

A

Russel bodies

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45
Q

Glycogen storage diseases

A
Very Poor CArbohydrate Metabolism
I - von Gierke's
II - Pompe's
III - Cori's
IV - Andersen
V - McArdle
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46
Q

Morphologic hallmark of cell death

A

Loss of nucleus

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47
Q

Coagulative necrosis is usually due to

A

Ischemia

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48
Q

Type of infarction seen with arterial occlusion

A

Pale/white infarction

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49
Q

Type of infarction seen with venous occlusion

A

Red infarction

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50
Q

White vs red infarction: Renal

A

White

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51
Q

White vs red infarction: Testicular

A

Red

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52
Q

Type of necrosis seen in the pancreas

A

Liquefactive

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53
Q

Type of necrosis seen in uterus of pregnant women with preeclampsia

A

Fibrinoid necrosis

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54
Q

Type of necrosis seen in malignant hypertension

A

Fibrinoid necrosis

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55
Q

Enzyme deficient in Gaucher’s disease

A

Glucocerebrosidase

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56
Q

Enzyme deficient in Tay-Sach’s disease

A

Hexosaminidase A

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57
Q

Enzyme deficient in Nieman-Pick’s disease

A

Sphingomyelinase

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58
Q

Disease in which microscopically, the nucleus is pushed to the periphery and the cytoplasm looks like crumpled tissue paper

A

Gaucher’s disease

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59
Q

Most common endogenous pigment

A

Lipofuscin

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60
Q

Substance accumulation in which DM may arise and called bronze DM

A

Hemochromatosis

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61
Q

Malarial pigment

A

Hematin/hemozoin

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62
Q

Malarial pigment: (+) vs (-) Prussian blue

A

Negative

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63
Q

Pigment: P. falciparum

A

Maurer’s dots

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64
Q

Pigment: P. malariae

A

Zieman’s dots

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65
Q

Pigment: P. ovale

A

James dots

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66
Q

Pigment: P. vivax

A

Schuffner’s dots

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67
Q

Copper storage is seen in what disease

A

Wilson’s disease or hepatolenticular degeneration

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68
Q

Enzyme increased in alcohol poisoning resulting in fatty liver due to esterification of FA to TAG

A

Alpha glycerophosphate

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69
Q

Formed when tyrosine oxidase catalyses the oxidation of tyrosine to dihydroxyphenylalanine

A

Melanin storage

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70
Q

Disease in which there is a lack of homogentisic dioxygenase leading to accumulation of homogentisic acid causing urine to turn black upon exposure to air

A

Alkaptonuria

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71
Q

Close differential for melanin storage being similar in having brown-black pigment (seen in alkaptonuria)

A

Onchronosis

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72
Q

Calcium deposits seen in non-viable or dying tissue

A

Psamomma bodies or asbestos bodies

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73
Q

Diseases in which psamomma bodies are seen

A

PSMM

1) Papillary thyroid CA
2) Serous ovarian CA
3) Meningioma
4) Mesothelioma

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74
Q

Dystrophic vs metastatic calcification: Causes organ dysfunction

A

Dystrophic

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75
Q

Any change within or outside cell which gives a homogenous, glassy, pink appearance on routine H and E

A

Hyaline change

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76
Q

Hyaline change that gives (+) Congo Red stain

A

Amyloid

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77
Q

Appearance of (+) Congo Red stain

A

(+) birefringence (green) on polarised microscope

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78
Q

Hallmark of early hemodynamic change

A

Increased blood flow

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79
Q

Hallmark of acute inflammation

A

Increased vascular permeability and edema

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80
Q

P-selectin is derived from

A

Weibel-Palade bodies

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81
Q

Normal fluid exchange and microvascular permeability are dependent on

A

An intact endothelium

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82
Q

Refers to transport of fluid through endothelial cells by channels of interconnected, uncoated vesicles and vacuoles (vesiculovacuolar organelles)

A

Transcytosis

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83
Q

Why is there LEAKAGE from regenerating capillaries?

A

Proliferating endothelial cells are leaky

84
Q

Hydrothorax is defined as

A

Any amount >15mL in the thoracic space

85
Q

Blood vessels involved in active congestion

A

Arterioles

86
Q

Blood vessels involved in passive congestion

A

Veins

87
Q

Zone of the liver most susceptible to toxin

A

Zone 1

88
Q

Autosomal recessive defect of integrins

A

Leukocyte adhesion defect 1

89
Q

CD mutated in leukocyte adhesion defect 1

A

b chain of CD11/CD18 integrins

90
Q

Substances that up regulate integrins

A

1) LTC4

2) C5a

91
Q

Preformed mediators of inflammation found in secretory granules of leukocytes

A

1) Histamine
2) Serotonin
3) Lysosomal enzymes

92
Q

Cellular source of histamine in inflammation

A

Mast cells

93
Q

Cellular source of serotonin in inflammation

A

Platelets

94
Q

Cellular source of lysosomal enzymes in inflammation

A

Neutrophils

95
Q

Defective leukocyte adhesion due to mutations in fucosyl transferase

A

Leukocyte adhesion defect 2

96
Q

Genetic defect wherein there is decreased oxidative burst

A

CGD

97
Q

Most common infections encountered in CGD

A

Catalase (+) organisms

98
Q

Catalase (+) organisms

A

1) S. aureus

2) Pseudomonas cepacia

99
Q

Enzyme defect in CGD

A

NADPH oxidase

100
Q

Test for CGD

A

Nitroblue tetrazolium test

101
Q

Nitroblue tetrazolium test result in CGD

A

Normal

102
Q

DDx for CGD

A

Myeloperoxidase deficiency

103
Q

Decreased leukocyte functions because of mutations affecting protein involved in lysosomal membrane trafficking

A

Chediak-Hegashi syndrome

104
Q

Most common infections encountered in Chediak-Higashi syndrome

A

Pyogenic infections

105
Q

Components of Chediak-Higashi syndrome

A

1) Giant platelets
2) Albinism
3) Microtubule system defect

106
Q

Source of secretions in inflammation

A

Endothelial cells

107
Q

3 major opsonins

A

1) Fc fragment of IgG
2) C3b
3) Plasma lectins (MBL in 3rd pathway of c’ activation)

108
Q

Auer rods are seen in WBCs of patients with

A

AML

109
Q

Stage of WBC development where azurophilic granules are seen

A

Promyelocyte

110
Q

Stage of WBC development where specific granules are seen

A

Myelocyte

111
Q

Last stage of WBC development that is capable of cell division

A

Myelocyte

112
Q

WBC granules: AKA primary granules

A

Azurophilic granules

113
Q

WBC granules: AKA secondary granules

A

Specific granules

114
Q

WBC granules: AKA tertiary granules

A

Gelatinase granules

115
Q

Primary vs secondary granules: MPO

A

Primary

116
Q

Primary vs secondary granules: Collagenase

A

Secondary

117
Q

Primary vs secondary granules: Lysozyme

A

Primary, secondary, and tertiary

118
Q

Primary vs secondary granules: Elastase

A

Primary

119
Q

Primary vs secondary granules: Lactoferin

A

Secondary

120
Q

Half-life of neutrophils in circulation

A

4-6h

121
Q

Half-life of neutrophils in tissue

A

1-2 days

122
Q

Characteristic substance present in eosinophilic granules that are very toxic to parasites

A

MBP

123
Q

Tissue basophils

A

Mast cells

124
Q

Characteristic substance present in basophilic granules

A

Histamine

125
Q

CD marker for macrophages/monocytes

A

CD68

126
Q

2 mechanisms of destruction of phagocytosed material

A

1) O2-dependent

2) O2-independent

127
Q

Most effective mechanism of destruction of phagocytosed material

A

O2-dependent

128
Q

O2-dependent destruction of phagocytosed material is aka

A

Oxidative burst

129
Q

WBCs that exhibit O2-independent killing of phagocytosed material

A

Macrophages/monocytes

130
Q

Macrophage in skin and mucosa

A

Langerhans cells

131
Q

Macrophage in placenta

A

Hoffbauer cell

132
Q

Another name for tissue macrophages

A

Histiocytes

133
Q

Half-life of monocytes in circulation

A

24-72 hrs

134
Q

WBC: Source of multinucleate giant cells

A

Monocyte

135
Q

WBC: Source of epitheloid cells

A

Monocyte

136
Q

Population: T lymphocytes vs B lymphocytes

A

T

137
Q

Secretions in serous inflammation is derived from

A

Mesothelial cells

138
Q

Patterns of acute inflammation: Skin blister

A

Serous

139
Q

Patterns of acute inflammation: Abscess

A

Suppurative

140
Q

Patterns of acute inflammation: Bread and butter pericarditis

A

Fibrinous

141
Q

Patterns of acute inflammation: Diphtheria infection

A

Membranous

142
Q

Patterns of acute inflammation: Clostridium difficult infection

A

Membranous

143
Q

Lipoxins: Stimulate vs inhibit chemotaxis

A

Inhibit

144
Q

Proteins produced by inflammatory cells that play a role in inflammation

A

Cytokines

145
Q

Small proteins that attract PMNs

A

Chemokines

146
Q

Macrophages: Lymph nodes

A

Sinus histiocytes

147
Q

Macrophages: Lungs

A

Dust cells

148
Q

Macrophages: Connective tissue

A

Histiocytes

149
Q

Macrophages: CNS

A

Microglial cells

150
Q

Macrophages: Kidney

A

Intraglomerular mesangial cell

151
Q

Macrophages: Bone

A

Osteoclast

152
Q

Macrophages: Granuloma

A

Epitheloid histiocytes

153
Q

Cellular sources of serotonin (2)

A

1) Platelets

2) Enterochromaffin cells

154
Q

Vasoconstrictor and platelet activator in COX pathway

A

TXA2

155
Q

PG mediator of pain and fever

A

PGE2

156
Q

PG that decreases platelet aggregation

A

PGI2

157
Q

Key component of kinin system

A

Bradykinin

158
Q

Brought about by intensive deposition of collagen

A

Fibrosis

159
Q

Vitamin required for hydroxylation of procollagen

A

Vitamin C

160
Q

T/F Granuloma always has central necrosis

A

F

161
Q

Proliferation of cells and tissues to replace lost structures

A

Regeneration

162
Q

Process of tissue necrosis resulting from interference of blood supply

A

Infarction

163
Q

Type of infarction that is sterile

A

Bland infarction

164
Q

Caused by air embolism in chronic decompression sickness

A

Caisson disease

165
Q

Embolus from venous to arterial circulation

A

Paradoxical embolus

166
Q

Steps in primary hemostasis

A

1) Adhesion
2) Activation
3) Aggregation

167
Q

Steps in secondary hemostasis

A

1) Thrombin formation

2) Stable fibrin clot formation

168
Q

Virchow’s triad

A

1) Stasis
2) Hypercoagulability
3) Blood vessel injury

169
Q

Endotoxic shock: G+ vs G-

A

G-

170
Q

AKA endotoxin

A

Bacterial wall LPS

171
Q

A genetic locus on chromosome 6 that encodes for cell surface compatibility

A

MHC

172
Q

MHC I vs MHC II: HLA A, B, C

A

MHC I

173
Q

MHC I vs MHC II: Present in all nucleated cells and platelets

A

MHC I

174
Q

Ig Class: Surface of B cells

A

IgD

175
Q

Ig Class: Surface of mast cells

A

IgE

176
Q

Ig Class: Immediate hypersenstivity

A

IgE

177
Q

Ig Class: Crosses placental barrier

A

IgG

178
Q

Ig Class: Pentamer

A

IgM

179
Q

Ig Class: Dimer

A

IgA

180
Q

Ig Class: Mucosal surface

A

IgA

181
Q

Ig Class: Primary immune response

A

IgG

182
Q

B cells are found in (2)

A

1) Superficial cortex of LN

2) White pulp of spleen

183
Q

CD: Pre B cell

A

CD 10

184
Q

CD: NK cells

A

CD18

185
Q

MHC II/HLA disease associations: Lupus

A

DR2

186
Q

MHC II/HLA disease associations: Multiple sclerosis

A

DR2

187
Q

MHC II/HLA disease associations: Sjogren

A

DR3

188
Q

MHC II/HLA disease associations: RA

A

DR4

189
Q

MHC II/HLA disease associations: IDDM

A

DR3

190
Q

MHC II/HLA disease associations: Graves

A

DR3

191
Q

MHC II/HLA disease associations: Hashimoto

A

DR5

192
Q

MHC II/HLA disease associations: Primary biliary cirrhosis

A

DR8

193
Q

Complement factors that are anaphylatoxins

A

C3a, C5a

194
Q

Type of hypersensitivity: Arthus reaction

A

Type III

195
Q

Type of hypersensitivity: Fibrinoid necrosis of vessels

A

Type III

196
Q

Type of hypersensitivity: Polyarteritis nodosa

A

Type III

197
Q

Type of hypersensitivity: RA

A

Type IV

198
Q

Type of hypersensitivity: Crohn

A

Type IV

199
Q

Organ transplantation: Monozygotic twins

A

Syngeneic

200
Q

Organ transplantation: Same species

A

Allogeneic

201
Q

Organ transplantation: Different species

A

Xenogeneic

202
Q

Hyperacute, acute. subacute, chronic: Rejection that produces arthus reaction with ag-ab mediated fibrinoid vasculitis

A

Hyperacute

203
Q

Hyperacute, acute. subacute, chronic: Rejection characterised by cell-mediated or humorally mediated vasculitis

A

Acute

204
Q

Hyperacute, acute. subacute, chronic: Rejection characterised by vasculitis with marked thickening of intima of blood vessels, fibroblast and myocyte proliferation and luminal narrowing

A

Subacute

205
Q

GVHD most commonly occurs following what transplant

A

Non-autologous bone marrow

206
Q

Organs most damaged in GVHD (4)

A

1) Liver
2) Spleen
3) Intestine
4) Skin

207
Q

Hallmark of chronic inflammation

A

Tissue fibrosis