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CDB PEARLS > Bacteriology > Flashcards

Bacteriology Flashcards

1
Q

Last step in bacterial CW synthesis

A

Cross-linking

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2
Q

Fixes primary stain

A

Mordant

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3
Q

Mordant in Gram staining

A

Gram iodine

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4
Q

Decolorizer in Gram stain

A

Acetone alcohol

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5
Q

Identification of Chlamydia in low-resource area

A

Giemsa

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6
Q

Special stain: Legionella

A

Dierle (silver stain)

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7
Q

G- cocci

A

Neisseria
Branhamella/ Moraxella
Veillonella

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8
Q

Microorg: Wright stain

A

Borrelia

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9
Q

Special stains: P. carinii

A

Silver stain

Gomori methenamine stain

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10
Q

Microorg: Calcoflour white

A

Fungi

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11
Q

Cold method of staining acid fast microorgs

A

Kinyoun

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12
Q

Bacterial organelle responsible for encoding genes that regulate non essential life functions

A

Plasmid

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13
Q

Bacterial organelle responsible for encoding bacterial resistance

A

Plasmid

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14
Q

Pseudocapsule

A

P. aeruginosa

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15
Q

MCC of overwhelming postsplenectomy infection

A

S. pneumoniae

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16
Q

Dse conditions that makes host most susceptible to encapsulated microbe infections

A

Postsplenectomy

Sickle cell anemia

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17
Q

Biofilm on catheter-related infections

A

S. epidermidis

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18
Q

Biofilm in dental plaque/ dental caries

A

S. mutans

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19
Q

Metachromatic staining

A

Corynebacterium, due to Babes Ernst granules

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20
Q

Kidney-shaped diplococci

A

Neisseria

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21
Q

Lancet-shaped diplococci

A

S. pneumoniae

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22
Q

Bipolar staining

A

Yersinia

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23
Q

Gull-wing

A

Campylobacter

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24
Q

Post C. jejuni conditions

A

GBS

Reactive arthritis/Reiter syndrome

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25
Q

Inactivating EF2 (elongation factor 2)

A

1) A-B toxin of C. diphtheriae

2) Exotoxin A of P. aeruginosa

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26
Q

Exotoxin vs endotoxin: Meningococcemia

A

Endotoxin

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27
Q

A-B toxin causing ADP ribosylation of G protein

A

V. cholerae

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28
Q

Pea soup diarrhea

A

Salmonella typhi (???V. cholera)

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29
Q

HUS: Toxins

A

Shiga toxin

Shiga-like toxin

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30
Q

HUS: Microorg

A

Shigella

EHEC

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31
Q

Dse: A-B toxin that inhibits G-alpha

A

Whooping cough

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32
Q

Use inorganic cmpds

A

Autotrophs

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33
Q

Use organic compounds as energy source

A

Heterotrophs

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34
Q

Best grow at 0-20C

A

Psychrophile

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35
Q

Best grow at 20-40C

A

Mesophile

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36
Q

Best grow at 40-80C

A

Thermophile

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37
Q

Bacterial growth curve, phase: Metabolic activity

A

Lag

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38
Q

Bacterial growth curve, phase: Rapid cell division

A

Log

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39
Q

Bacterial growth curve, phase: Nutrient depletion

A

Stationary

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40
Q

Destroys all life forms

A

Sterilization

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41
Q

Destroys disease-causing orgs; not all lifeforms

A

Disinfection

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42
Q

Postulate: Microorganism must be isolated and grown in pure culture; must cause dse in healthy indiv; must be reisolated and identified

A

Koch’s postulate

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43
Q

Standard for new chemical antimicrobials

A

Phenol

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44
Q

Autoclave conditions to kill spores

A

121C at 15 psi for 15-20 mins

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45
Q

Rapid freezeing or freeze-drying

A

Lyophilization

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46
Q

Used to preserve cultures

A

Lyophilization

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47
Q

Sporicidal chemical agent

A

Halogen

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48
Q

Most effective skin antiseptic

A

Iodine

Ethylene oxide

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49
Q

Used for cold sterilization

A

Ethylene oxide

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50
Q

Neisseria culture medium: From sterile site

A

CAP

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51
Q

Neisseria culture medium: From unsterile site

A

Thayer Martin

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52
Q

Satellite phenomenon on culture

A

H. influenzae

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53
Q

Charcoal in culture medium

A

Bordetella

Legionella

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54
Q

Mercury drop colonies on charcoal medium

A

Bordetella pertussis

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55
Q

Eaton agent

A

Mycoplasma

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56
Q

Egg yolk agar

A

C. perfringens

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57
Q

BSK medium

A

Borrelia

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58
Q

Staib’s medium

A

C. neoformans (Bird seed agar)

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59
Q

Bird see agar

A

C. neoformans (Staib’s medium)

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60
Q

Bile esculin agar

A

Group D enterococcus

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61
Q

Castaneda medium

A

Brucella

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62
Q

Skirrow’s agar

A

C. jejuni

H. pylori

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63
Q

TCBS

A

V. cholerae

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64
Q

EMJH

A

L. interrogans

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65
Q

AIDS, MC bacterial infection

A

M. avium intracellulare

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66
Q

AIDS, MC fungal infection

A

P. carinii

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67
Q

AIDS, MC protozoal infection

A

T. gondii

Cryptosporidium

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68
Q

AIDS, MC viral infection

A

CMV

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69
Q

AIDS, benign viral infection

A

Molluscum contagiosum (poxvirus)

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70
Q

Lumpy jaw

A

A. israelii

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71
Q

Golden yellow colonies of S. aureus is due to

A

Staphyloxanthin

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72
Q

Normal flora of skin

A

S. epidermidis

S. aureus

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73
Q

Normal flora of nasopharynx

A

S. aureus

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74
Q

Normal flora of mouth and throat

A

S. viridans

Actinomyces

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75
Q

Normal flora of colon

A

B. fragilis > E. coli; enterococci

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76
Q

Normal flora of vagina

A

L. acidophilus
GBS
E. coli

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77
Q

Normal flora in gallbladder

A

Salmonella typhi

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78
Q

Pneumonia in alcoholics

A

S. pneumoniae

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79
Q

Pneumonia in neonates

A

GBS
E. coli
Listeria

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80
Q

Pneumonia in 1mo-3mos

A

RSV

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81
Q

Pneumonia in young adults

A

Mycoplasma

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82
Q

Lobar pneumonia

A

S. pneumoniae

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83
Q

Pneumonia in neutropenic patients

A

P. aeruginosa

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84
Q

Pneumonia in AIDS

A

P. jiroveci/carinii

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85
Q

Pneumonia in barracks

A

Mycoplasma

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86
Q

Atypical pneumonia

A

Mycoplasma

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87
Q

Pneumonia in cystic fibrosis

A

Pseudomonas

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88
Q

Pneumonia in diabetics

A

Pseudomonas

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89
Q

Pneumonia in CGD

A

Pseudomonas

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90
Q

Pneumonia in poorly nourished, unvaccinated child

A

Measles

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91
Q

Giant cell pneumonia

A

Measles

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92
Q

Mech vent assoc pneumonia

A

Pseudomonas

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93
Q

Hospital-acquired pneumonia

A

Pseudomonas

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94
Q

All capsular bacteria have polysaccharide capsule except

A

B. anthracis

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95
Q

All viruses are haploid except

A

Retroviridae

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96
Q

Raw eggs

A

Salmonella

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97
Q

Reheated meat

A

C. perfringens

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98
Q

Mayonnaise

A

S. aureus

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99
Q

Hamburger

A

EHEC

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100
Q

Custard

A

S. aureus

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101
Q

Apple juice

A

EHEC

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102
Q

Alfalfa sprouts and spinach

A

EHEC

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103
Q

Bilateral eyelid swelling/periorbital edema

A

Trichinella spiralis

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104
Q

Sty

A

S. aureus

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105
Q

Sticky eye

A

Propionibacterium

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106
Q

MCC of blindness worldwide

A

Chlamydia

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107
Q

Chorioretinitis

A

CMV

Toxoplasma

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108
Q

Congenital retinopathy

A

Treponema

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109
Q

Pebbly conjunctivitis

A

Chlamydia

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110
Q

Corneal scarring

A

Chlamydia

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111
Q

Congenital cataract

A

Rubella

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112
Q

Meningitis in neonates

A

GBS
E. coli
Listeria

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113
Q

Meningitis in 2-6 mos, unimmunized

A

H. influenzae

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114
Q

Meningitis in adults

A

S. pneumoniae

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115
Q

Meningitis outbreaks in crowded conditions

A

N. meningitidis

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116
Q

Meningitis in adolescents and young adults

A

N. meningitidis

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117
Q

Meningitis in barracks and college dorms

A

N. meningitidis

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118
Q

Meningitis in AIDS

A

Cryptococcus

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119
Q

Toxin responsible for pneumatocele formation by S. aureus

A

Panton valentin leukocidin

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120
Q

Toxin: SSSS

A

Exfoliatin

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121
Q

Most severe form of SSSS

A

Ritter disease

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122
Q

Acute mastitis

A

S. aureus

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123
Q

Infective endocarditis in IV drug users

A

S. aureus

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124
Q

MC valve involved in infective endocarditis in IV drug users

A

Tricuspid

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125
Q

MCC of osteomyelitis in the general population

A

S. aureus

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126
Q

Meningitis in 2-6 mos, immunized

A

S. pneumoniae

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127
Q

Peritonitis in renal failure patients

A

S. epidermidis

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128
Q

MCC of subacute endocarditis

A

S. viridans

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129
Q

MCC of acute endocarditis

A

S. aureus

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130
Q

MCC of endocarditis in patients with prosthetic heart valves

A

S. epidermidis

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131
Q

MCC of osteomyelitis in sexually active individuals

A

N. gonorrheae

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132
Q

MCC of osteomyelitis in IV drug abusers

A

P. aeruginosa

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133
Q

S. aureus virulence factor: Food poisoning

A

Enterotoxin A

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134
Q

S. aureus virulence factor: Infective endocarditis

A

Fibrin-platelet mesh

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135
Q

S. aureus virulence factor: Impetigo

A

Coagulase

Staphylokinase

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136
Q

Impetigo

A

S. aureus

GABHS

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137
Q

Septic arthritis in prosthetic joints

A

S. epidermidis

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138
Q

Strep antigen: Rheumatic fever

A

M protein

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139
Q

Strep strain responsible for PSGN

A

M12

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140
Q

S. pyogenes toxin: Hemolysis

A

Streptolysin S

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141
Q

MCC of impetigo

A

S. aureus

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142
Q

MCC of bullous impetigo (80%)

A

S. aureus

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143
Q

MCC of nonbullous impetigo

144
Q

Specific S. aureus that almost exclusively causes bullous impetigo

A

Phage type 71

145
Q

Boiled lobster appearance

A

Scarlet fever

146
Q

Scarlet fever

A

S. pyogenes

147
Q

MCC of necrotising fasciitis

A

Group A strep

148
Q

(+) Quellung reaction

A

s. pneumoniae

149
Q

MCC of paediatric otitis media

A

S. pneumoniae

150
Q

Enterococcus requirement

A

6.5% NaCl at 45C

151
Q

Infective endocarditis in elderly with previously damaged valves secondary to GU or GI surgery

152
Q

Club-shaped

A

C. dphtheriae

153
Q

Safety pin appearance

154
Q

DOC for tularemia

A

Streptomycin

155
Q

Genital infection: Buboes

A 
Lymphogranuloma venereum (C. trachomatis L1-3)
Chancroid (H. ducreyi)
156
Q

Chinese character appearance microscopically

A

C. diphtheriae

157
Q

Swarming motility

158
Q

Medusa head colonies

A

B. anthracis

159
Q

Exhibits lysogeny due to B prophage

A

C. diphtheriae

160
Q

Babes Ernst granules

A

C. diptheriae

161
Q

Intracutaneous test to determine susceptibility of C. diphtheriae

A

Schick test

162
Q

Immunodiffusion technique to determine toxigenicity of C. diphtheriae

163
Q

Drumstick/tennis racket

164
Q

M. tb: Caseous necrosis

A

Sulfatides

165
Q

M. tb: Virulence

A

Cord factor

166
Q

M. tb: Most hepatotoxic drug

A

Pyrazinamide

167
Q

Spores very resistant to heat and usual antiseptics

168
Q

T/F Tetanolysin of C. tetani has no recognised pathogenic activity

169
Q

Generalized tetanus

A

Opisthotonus

170
Q

Earliest manifestation of neonatal tetanus

171
Q

Earliest manifestation of adult tetanus

172
Q

MOA of tetanospasmin in CNS

A

Inhibits release of inhibitory neurotransmitters glycine and GABA

173
Q

Amt PPD injected intradermally in Mantoux test

174
Q

When to read Mantoux test result

A

After 48-72 hours

175
Q

Obligate intracellular bacteria with the longest doubling time

176
Q

Antimycobacterial that can be used for both M. leprae and M. tb

177
Q

Tuberculoid vs lepromatous: Lepromin test (+)

A

Tuberculoid

178
Q

Tuberculoid vs lepromatous: High number of organisms in tissue

A

Tuberculoid

179
Q

Tuberculoid vs lepromatous: Cell-mediated immunity causes cell damage

A

Tuberculoid

180
Q

Tuberculoid vs lepromatous: Large number of intracellular organisms cause cell damage

A

Lepromatous

181
Q

Tuberculoid vs lepromatous: Nerve enlargement and paresthesias

A

Tuberculoid

182
Q

Tuberculoid vs lepromatous: Madarosis

A

Lepromatous

183
Q

Tuberculoid vs lepromatous: Loss of nasal septum

A

Lepromatous

184
Q

Aquarium or fish pond worker

A

M. marinum

185
Q

MOTT: Cervical lymphadenitis in children

A

M. scrofulaceum

186
Q

MOTT: Fast-grower

A

M. fortuitum

187
Q

Listeria motility in cells

A

Actin motility

188
Q

Zipper mechanism

A

Listeria, mode of entry, direct cell to cell spread via actin-based movement

189
Q

B. anthracis toxin that mediates entry

A

Anthrax toxin

190
Q

3 diseases caused by anthrax

A

1) Woolsorter disease
2) Cutaneous anthrax
3) GI anthrax

191
Q

Food held warm

192
Q

Types of B. cereus food poisoning

A

1) Emetic

2) Diarrheal

193
Q

DOC for C. tetani

A

Metronidazole

194
Q

Inhibits Ach release at NMJ

A

Botulinum toxin, C. botulinum

195
Q

Malignant pustule

A

Cutaneous anthrax

196
Q

Painless ulcers

A

1) Chancre

2) Cutaneous anthrax

197
Q

Shock and mediastinal hemorrhagic lymphadenitis

A

Pulmonary anthrax

198
Q

Sauces

199
Q

Chinatown&raquo_space; vomiting

200
Q

Canned food

A

C. botulinum

201
Q

Stormy fermentation in lactose milk media

A

C. perfringens

202
Q

Honey

A

C. botulinum

203
Q

Smoked food

A

C. botulinum

204
Q

Gas gangrene

A

C. perfringes

205
Q

Long-term parenteral antibiotics

A

C. difficile

206
Q

MCC of antibiotic assoc diarrhea

A

C. difficile

207
Q

House dust

A

C. botulinum

208
Q

Death march of Bataan

A

C. perfringens (gas gangrene)

209
Q

Double zone of hemolysis

A

C. perfringens

210
Q

Pig feces

A

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

211
Q

Rat bite fever

A

Streptobacillus moniliformis

212
Q

Hyperbaric oxygen

A

C. perfringens

213
Q

Haverhill fever

A

Streptobacillus moniliformis

214
Q

Alpha lecithinase

A

C. perfringens

215
Q

Fever, inward rash, tick bite

A

Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

216
Q

Hard purplish swelling on hand with no pus

A

Erysipeloid

217
Q

Weil Felix Test

A

Rickettsia

218
Q

Lonestar tick

A

Erlichia chaffensis (erlichiosis)

219
Q

3 phyla of Rickettsia

A

Rickettsia
Erlichia
Coxiella

220
Q

T/F All rickettsia are transmitted by arthropods

A

F, Coxiella (Q fever) is transmitted via fomites and not arthropods

221
Q

Fatal rickettsial infection

A

Epidemic typhus

222
Q

Eschar is a punched out ulcer covered with a blackened scab that indicates location of mite bite

A

Scrub typhus (R. tsutsugamushi)

223
Q

Treatment for rickettsia

A

Doxycycline

224
Q

Rickettsia with endospores

225
Q

Only rickettsial disease without rash

226
Q

Mulberry-like structure in affected cells (morula)

227
Q

Chlamydia lacks ___ in cell wall

A

Muramic acid

228
Q

Chlamydia serovar: Trachoma

229
Q

Chlamydia serovar: PID

230
Q

Smallest free-living bacteria with no cell wall

A

M. pneumoniae

231
Q

Calymmatobacterium granulomatis

A

Granuloma inguinale

232
Q

DOC for nocardia

233
Q

Madura foot

A

Actinomycetoma

234
Q

Only bacteria with cholesterol in cell membrane

A

Mycoplasma

235
Q

Toll like receptor 2 protein

A

Mycoplasma

236
Q

Predominant sexually transmitted organism associated with PID

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

237
Q

Intraabdominal spread of PID; Violin string

A

Fitz Hugh Curtis syndrome

238
Q

Fried egg appearance of colonies

A

Mycoplasma

239
Q

Pneumonia with cold agglutinins

A

Mycoplasma

240
Q

Responsible for anemia in mycoplasma infection

A

Cold agglutinins

241
Q

Parrots/birds

A

Psitaccosis (C. psitacci)

242
Q

Currant jelly sputum

A

Klebsiella pneumonia

243
Q

Beaded filamentous bacteria

244
Q

Rib destruction; filamentous bacteria

A

Actinomyces

245
Q

Friedlander’s bacillus

A

Klebsiella

246
Q

Vi capsular antigen

247
Q

Necrotizing fasciitis from saltwater

A

V. vulnificus

248
Q

Possesses a capsule that is lost with passage in the lab, accompanied by loss of virulence

A

Yersinia pestis

249
Q

Best specimen to culture for typhoid fever

A

Bone marrow

250
Q

Detection of typhoid fever

A

Week 1: Blood
Week 2: Urine
Week 3: Stool

251
Q

When are rose spots seen in typhoid fever

252
Q

DOC for S. typhi in adults

A

Ceftriaxone

253
Q

DOC for S. typhi in children

A

Chloramphenicol

254
Q

Salmonella enteritidis

A

S. enterocolitis

255
Q

Osteomyelitis and sepsis in sickle cell disease

A

Salmonella cholerasuis

256
Q

Hyperplasia of Peyer’s patches

A

Typhoid ileitis

257
Q

Puppy feces

A

Yersinia enterocolitica

258
Q

Peritrichous flagella

A

Proteus
E. coli
S. typhi

259
Q

1 flagella

A

Monotrichous

260
Q

Multiple flagella in the same area

A

Lophotrichous (e.g. Spirilla)

261
Q

2 flagella, 1 each on opposite ends

A

Amphitrichous (e.g. Alcaligenes)

262
Q

Multiple flagella pointing in many directions/located at many spots on the cell

A

Peritrichous

263
Q

Monotrichous, example

264
Q

Proteus vulgaris vs mirabilis

A

Indole (+) - vulgaris

265
Q

Darting motility

A

Campylobacter

Vibrio

266
Q

Bacillary dysentery

A

Shigella sonnei

267
Q

Most severe bacillary dysentery

A

Shigella dysenteriae type A

268
Q

MCC of epidemic dysentery

A

Shigella dysenteriae type A

269
Q

Mainstay of treatment for cholera

A

Fluids and electrolytes

270
Q

Drugs to reduce carrier stage of V. cholera

A

Doxycycline

Cirpofloxacin

271
Q

Minimum inoculum for cholera

272
Q

The dominant vibrio strain in the seventh global pandemic.

273
Q

Vibrio O1 El Tor is distinguished from classic biotypes by the production of

274
Q

2 subunits of choleragen

A

A: Activates Adenylate cyclase
B: Binding

275
Q

MCC of death of cholera

A

Dehydration

276
Q

DOC for cholera

A

Doxycycline (longer t/2)

Tetracycline

277
Q

MCC of acute bacterial gastroenteritis

278
Q

Primarily an opportunistic pathogen that causes infection in hospitalized patients

A

Pseudomonas

279
Q

Loss of skin elasticity (washer woman hands sign)

280
Q

Neutrophil count that predisposes to pseudomonas infection

A

Less than 500/uL

281
Q

Bacteria from contaminated soil

A

Burkholderia

282
Q

Previously known as Campylobacter

283
Q

Melioidosis

A

Burkholderia pseudomallei

284
Q

Bacteria classified as Type I carcinogen by WHO

285
Q

Cancers caused by H. pylori

A

Gastric

MALT lymphoma

286
Q

Glander disease

A

Burkholderia mallei

287
Q

MCC of G- nosocomial pneumonia

A

Pseudomonas

288
Q

Characteristic smell of pseudomonas infection

A

Grape-like or fruity odor

289
Q

Pseudomonas toxin resp for sepsis and shock

290
Q

Pseudomonas toxin resp for tissue necrosis

A

Exotoxin A

291
Q

Shooting star motility

292
Q

pH at which Vibrio grows best

293
Q

Bacillary angiomatosis

A

Bartonella henselae and quintana

294
Q

De Musset’s sign

A

Aortic regurgitation seen in syphilis

295
Q

Syphilitic aortitis affects what specific vascular structure

A

Vasa vasorum

296
Q

Ecthyma gangrenosum

A

Pseudomonas

297
Q

Signs of congenital syphilis

A 
Frontal bossing
Snuffles/rhinitis
Mulberry molars
Hutchinson teeth
Higoumenaki sign (unilateral enlargement of clavicle)
298
Q

Portion of spinal cord affected in tertiary syphilis

A

Posterior columns (tabes dorsalis); loss of position and vibration sense

299
Q

Bejel

A

T. pallidum endemicum

300
Q

Swimmer’s ear

A

Pseudomonas

301
Q

Sinus of valsalva aneurysm

302
Q

Yaws

A

T. pallidum pertenue

303
Q

Malignant diffuse otitis externa

A

Pseudomonas

304
Q

DOC for Pseudomonas

A

Ceftazidime

305
Q

Condyloma lata

A

Secondary syphilis

306
Q

Pinta

A

T. pallidum carateum

307
Q

Non-sexually transmitted forms of treponema infections

A

Pinta
Yaws
Bejel

308
Q

Cystic medionecrosis of aorta

A

Marfan syndrome

309
Q

White footed mouse and deer

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

310
Q

Lesion of borrelia

A

Target lesion

311
Q

Severe form of leptospirosis

A

Weil disease

312
Q

Endarteritis obliterans

313
Q

MC STD

314
Q

Rabbits

A

Francisella

315
Q

Chlamydia strain that causes acute respiratory syndrome/pneumonia

A

TWAR strain

316
Q

Erythema chronic migrans

317
Q

Visceral larva migrans

A

Toxocara canis

318
Q

Cutaneous larva migrans

A

Ancylostoma brasiliense

319
Q

Red orange jaundice

A

Weil disease

320
Q

Gold standard for diagnosis of leptospirosis

321
Q

DOC for Weil disease

322
Q

DOC for short-term exposure and prophylaxis for leptospirosis

A

Doxycycline

323
Q

Incubation period of leptospirosis

324
Q

Most common zoonosis

A

Leptospira

325
Q

MCC of death in leptospirosis

326
Q

Pontiac fever

A

Legionella

327
Q

Malta fever

328
Q

Brucella: Commonest cause of symptomatic disease in humans

A

melitensis

329
Q

Key target cell of Brucella

A

Macrophage

330
Q

DOC for brucellosis

A

IM Streptomycin

331
Q

Mousy door of colony

A

Pasteurella multocida

332
Q

Trench fever

A

Bartonella quintana

333
Q

Bartonella quintana, vector

A

Body louse

334
Q

Oroya fever

A

Bartonella bacilliformis

335
Q

Warthin-Starry silver impregnation stain

A

B. henselae

336
Q

Whooping cough

A

Bordetella pertussis

337
Q

Stages of whooping cough

A

1) Catarrhal 1-2 weeks
2) Paroxysmal 2-4 weeks
3) Convalescence > 4 weeks

338
Q

Most contagious stage of whooping cough

339
Q

T/F Nocardia infection is predominantly encountered in immunocompromised individuals

340
Q

Fishy odor

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

341
Q

Chancroid

A

H. ducreyi

342
Q

Cherry red diaper syndrome

343
Q

Chronic lobar pneumonia

344
Q

Associated with Mobiluncus infection (anaerobe)

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

345
Q

School of fish distribution

A

H. ducreyi

346
Q

E. coi antigen responsible for causing meningitis

347
Q

Inhibitor of other bacteria in Lowenstein Jensen

A

Malachite green

348
Q

How long does it take for a positive LJ culture

A

As early as 3-6 weeks

349
Q

PFEIFFER’S BACILLUS

A

H. influenzae

350
Q

MCC of tracheitis

351
Q

Montezuma’s revenge

A

ETEC (Traveler’s diarrhea)

352
Q

MC organism in acute appendicitis

353
Q

Fecal index of contamination

354
Q

DOC for diphtheria

A

Penicillin

355
Q

DOC for T. gondii

A

Pyrimethamine

CDB PEARLS (27 decks)

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