Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Stage 3 Human Diseases > HD3: Natural history of infection > Flashcards

HD3: Natural history of infection Flashcards

Relevant part of immunology of stage 2 basically

1
Q

Koch’s postulates:

A

The microorganism must be found in abundance in all organisms suffering from the disease, but should not be found in healthy organisms.
The microorganism must be isolated from a diseased organism and grown in pure culture.
The cultured microorganism should cause disease when introduced into a healthy organism.
The microorganism must be reisolated from the inoculated, diseased experimental host and identified as being identical to the original specific causative agent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What’s the biggest change between the old and current koch’s postulates?

A

nucleic acid sequence presence is looked at instead pathogen presence thanks to development of PCR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the modern Koch’s postulates:

A

A nucleic acid sequence belonging to a putative pathogen should be present in most cases of an infectious disease. Microbial nucleic acids should be found preferentially in diseased organs known, and fewer/not in those organs that lack pathology.
With resolution of disease, the copy number of pathogen-associated nucleic acid sequences should decrease or become undetectable. With clinical relapse, the opposite should occur.
Where sequence detection predates disease, copy number correlates with severity of disease or pathology, there is more likely to be a causal relationship.
The nature of the microorganism should be consistent with the known biological characteristics of that group of organisms.
These sequence-based forms of evidence for microbial causation should be reproducible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What’s the difference between primmary and opportunistic pathogens?

A

Primary Pathogens
Cause disease in non-immunocompromised host

Opportunistic: Often commonly found pathogens. Only cause infection in damaged host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Give examples of what may allow an opporunistic pathogen infection?

A

Immunosupressed- chemotherapy, age, alcohol, infection (e.g. HIV, TB),diet.
Tissue damage- trauma, burns, radiation.
Catheter infections
Genetic defects
Change in host bacteria e.g. antibiotics, diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What 3 things do primmary pathogens do to a healthy host cause disease?

A

Intrinsic virulence
Toxin production
Induction of abnormal host response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is cellulitis?

A

Cellulitis (sel-u-LIE-tis) is a common, potentially serious bacterial skin infection. The affected skin appears swollen and red and is typically painful and warm to the touch. Cellulitis usually affects the skin on the lower legs, but it can occur in the face, arms and other areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q 
Droplet e.g. Influenza, rhinovirus, TB
Sexually e.g. HIV, syphillis
Blood- e.g. HBV, HIV, HCV.
Bites- anaerobic infection, HBV, Rabies
Give 3 further modes of transmission:
A

Feacal-oral e.g. salmonella, noravirus
Enviromental e.g. C.difficile,strongyloides, enterovirus
Vector bourne through lice, ticks, fleas, sandfly, mosquitos, tsetse fly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the term used to describe that bacteria are able to regulate gene transcription and thus phenotype based upon their enviroment/medium (population density around them). The bacteria must possess three characteristics: to secrete a signaling molecule, an autoinducer, to detect the change in concentration of signaling molecules, and to regulate gene transcription as a response.[2] This process is highly dependent on the diffusion mechanism of the signaling molecules. QS Signaling molecules are usually secreted at a low level by individual bacteria. At low cell density, the molecules may just diffuse away. At high cell density, the local concentration of signaling molecules may exceed its threshold level, and trigger changes in gene expressions

A

quorum sensing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the 2 methods bacteria attach to host:

A

adherence though bacteria adhesions and host receptors
AND
biofils (attachment and intracellular adhesions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

One example f adhesins interacting with host receptor is: interacting in fimbria salmonella.
what adhesin does HIV use to target CD4 T cells?
2) what are the major cellular targets for HIV-1?
3) where are they found?

A

CD4 with gp120 HIV protein

2) CD4 lymphoctyes (GI tract and other tissues, 1% in circulation) and macrophages (all tissues and lymphatic system)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What can make pathogens more virulent:

A

Ability to replicate within the host
Toxin production-
Cell death-
Survival with eukaryocytic cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How can cell death make pathogen’s virulent

A

HIV and CD4 cells, apoptosis, direct toxicity on cells by pathogen (HCV) or immune system (HBV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the 2 ways toxins can be encoded? give 2 examples of each toxin:

A

Plasmid encoded- TSST, Tetanus neurotoxin

Phage encoded- Cholera Toxin, diptheria toxin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is a granuloma:

A

A granuloma is a structure formed during inflammation that is found in many diseases. It is a collection of immune cells known as macrophages.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the 3 types of immune invasion:

A

passive, active, aggressive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

give 3 characteristics of passive immune evasion:

A

Latency e.g. herpes, Malaria
Can hide in sanctuary sites
Resistance to phagocytosis and destruction by lysosymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

give 3 characteristics of active immune evasion:

A

Production of immunomodulatory proteins
Decoy
Evolution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

give 3 characteristics of aggressive immune evasion:

A

Counterattack on immune system e.g. HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Bacteria:

a) pro or eu -karyotic?
b) single or multi cellular?
c) organelles membrane or non-membrane bound?
d) sexual or asexual reproduction (+term given)

A

1) pro
b) pro
c) non-mem
d) asexual (binary fission)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

gram negative are purple or pink?

A

pink

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

gram positive are purpleor pink?

A

purple

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

According to class 1 of the baltimore classification system, what form doe the virus store its genetic material + 1 e.g.:

A

dsDNA - mRNA (herpes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

According to class 2 of the baltimore classification system, what form doe the virus store its genetic material + 1 e.g.:

A

ssDNA -dsDNA -mRNA (parvovirus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

According to class 3 of the baltimore classification system, what form doe the virus store its genetic material + 1 e.g.:

A

dsRNA- mRNA (rotavirus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

According to class 4 of the baltimore classification system, what form doe the virus store its genetic material + 1 e.g.:

A

(+) ssRNA- (-)ssRNA- mRNA

hepatitisi C virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

According to class 5 of the baltimore classification system, what form doe the virus store its genetic material + 1 e.g.:

A

(-)ssRNA- mRNA

Rabies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

According to class 6 of the baltimore classification system, what form doe the virus store its genetic material + 1 e.g.:

A

(+)ssRNA- DNA/RNA hybrid- dsDNA- mRNA

HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

According to class 7 of the baltimore classification system, what form doe the virus store its genetic material + 1 e.g.:

A

dsDNA- ssRNA- mRNA

HBV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Fungal infections

1) eukaryotes or pro?
2) how do yeasts replicate?
3) ow do moulds replicate?
4) which method of replication is asexual?
5) what is the role of septae in fungus?
6) single or multicellular?

A

1) eukaryotes
2) mitosis
3) meiosis
4) mitosis is sexual, meiosis is asexual
5) septae is the cell membrane, it divides what would be a multinuclear fungus into many cells, it is relatively fluid
6) both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Protozoa

a) single or multicellular?
b) motile or no?

A

a) Single cell organisms

b) Very motile

32
Q

Can protozoa encyst?

A

yes

33
Q

Protozoa, true or false

can engulf food

A

c)True: Can engulf food

34
Q

Protozoa, true or false

won’t survive hostile intracellular

A

d) False: Often survive hostile intracellular environmen

35
Q

Protozoa

method of reproduction?

A

e)Asexual and sexual reproduction

36
Q

Parasites

a) single or multicellular?

A

complex multicellular

37
Q

PARASITE

DESCRIBE RELA. WITH HOST

A

symbiotic

38
Q

Parasites often have a life cycle outside of host

true or false

A

true

39
Q

What are the 2 ways parasites cause disease?

A

Direct tissue damage

- Immunological reaction to parasite.

40
Q

Which host defence method is missing:

1) skin and membranes with commensal bacteria
2) complement- help fight bacterial infections
3) phagocytois by neutrophils and macrophages
4) cytokines
5) innate immunity and humoral immunity

A

secretions

41
Q

Which host defence method is missing:

1) skin and membranes with commensal bacteria
2) secretions
3) phagocytois by neutrophils and macrophages
4) cytokines
5) innate immunity and humoral immunity

A

complement- help fight bacterial infections

42
Q

Which host defence method is missing:

1) complement- help fight bacterial infections
2) secretions
3) phagocytois by neutrophils and macrophages
4) cytokines
5) innate immunity and humoral immunity

A

skin and membranes with commensal bacteria

43
Q

Which host defence method is missing:

1) complement- help fight bacterial infections
2) secretions
3) skin and membranes with commensal bacteria
4) cytokines
5) innate immunity and humoral immunity

A

phagocytois by neutrophils and macrophages

44
Q

Which host defence method is missing:

1) complement- help fight bacterial infections
2) phagocytois by neutrophils and macrophages
3) skin and membranes with commensal bacteria
4) secretions
5) innate immunity and humoral immunity

A

cytokines

45
Q

what is the difference between cell-mediated and humoral immunity?

A

Humoral immunity secretes antibodies to fight against antigens, whereas cell-mediated immunity secretes cytokines and no antibodies to attack the pathogens.

46
Q

What is the innate immune response comprise of?

A

the basic bitches, the ones at the front of the que. These mechanisms include physical barriers such as skin, chemicals in the blood, and immune system cells that attack foreign cells in the body.

47
Q

What are the innate immune system cells?

A

Natural killer cells, mast cells, eosinophils, basophils; and the phagocytic cells include macrophages, neutrophils, and dendritic cells,

48
Q

what happens after a non-specific innate immune response?

A

the adaptive immune repsonse

49
Q

Which immunoglobulin is involved in the innate immune response?

A

IgA

50
Q

Is this part of the innate or adaptive immune response:
Recruitment of cells of innate immune cells through cytokines (such as histamine,
prostoglandins e.t.c)

A

innate

51
Q

Is this part of the innate or adaptive immune response:

Complement- opsinisation, chemoattraction direct effect against Bacteria

A

innate

52
Q

Is this part of the innate or adaptive immune response:

Recognition of pathogens through antigen presentation

A

adaptive

53
Q

Is this part of the innate or adaptive immune response:

Antigen presentation

A

innate

54
Q

Is this part of the innate or adaptive immune response:

Specific activation of specialised cells

A

adaptive

55
Q

Is this part of the innate or adaptive immune response:

Development of ‘memory’ to allow quick recognition of pathogen in future

A

adaptive

56
Q

Which is the innate and whic is the adaptive immune response:
antigen presentation followed by the recognition of presented antigen leading to activation of specialised lymphocytes through

A

the antigen presentation is done by innate immune cells, (but can also be done by adaptive)
the recognition and activation part is the adaptive immune respone

57
Q

What MHC class (the molecule of the antigen presenting cell or infected target cell that holds the presented antigen) does the folllowing interact with and thus cause activation of:

a) CD4+ T cells
b) CD8+ T cells

A

a) MHC class 2

b) MHC class 1

58
Q

To present the antigen on an MHC class 2 molecule, how does the antigen presenting cell process the antigen?

A

exogenous pathway

59
Q

To present the antigen on an MHC class 1 molecule, how does the antigen presenting cell process the antigen?

A

endogenous pathway

60
Q 
If an infected target cell e.g. a macrophage, is presenting an antigen on the MHC class 2 which will the result be:
b) What type of immunity is this?
A

1) activation of CH4+ T cell (Th1 cell)
2) release of cytokine: IFN-gamma
3) Enhanced opsonisation of bacteria/viruses (often intracellular) through B cell
antibody production.
b) cell-mediated immunity

61
Q 
If an infected target cell e.g. a macrophage, is presenting an antigen on the MHC class 1 what will the result be:
b) What type of immunity is this?
A

1) activation of CH8+ T cell (Th2 cell)
2) release of cytokines (interferon gamma, TNF-alpha), and cytolytic effects of infected cell (perforin (to puncture), granzymes, Fas ligand)
b) cell-mediated

62
Q

What is the name given to this response:

1) activation of CH4+ T cell
2) release of cytokine: IFN-gamma

A

TH 1 response

63
Q

What is the name given to this response:

1) activation of CH8+ T cell (Th1 cell)
2) release of cytokines (interferon gamma, TNF-alpha), and cytolytic effects of infected cell (perforin (to puncture), granzymes, Fas ligand))

A

TH 1 response

64
Q

Which cells can produce MHC class 2 ?

A

professional antigen presenting cells e..g dendritic cells, mononuclear phagocytes

65
Q

Which cells can produce MHC class 1 ?

A

all

66
Q

What is the effect of IL-4 on T helper cells:

A

1) if the T helper cell is CD8, will have no affect
2) if the T helper cell is CD4 then will become a type 2 CD4 helper T cell, otherwise IL-2 will stimulate it to become a type 1 CD4 T helper cell

67
Q

what is the main cytokine of the cell mediated response?

A

interferon-gamma,(then I’d say IL-2 has a big role in proliferating CD 4 type 2 and CD 8 T cells)

68
Q

What are the cells involved in the cell mediated immune response:

A

1) APCs are highly specialized dendritic cells
2) Th0
3) Th CD8
4) Th2 CD4
5) Memory T cells

69
Q

Main differences between TH2 and TH1 response:

A

TH1 is cell mediated immune response characteristed by interferon-gamma and is part of the cell mediated immune response (despite that IFN-g is part of the inducing of B cells to make antibodies).
TH2 response is part of the humoral immune response (therefore involves antibodies in fluid) and is characterised by the cytokine IL-4

70
Q

what does IFN-gamma do?

A

IFN-g
a) activates the bactericidal activities of macrophages
b)induces B cells to make opsonizing (marking for phagocytosis) and complement-fixing antibodies,
= cell-mediated immunity.

71
Q

What does IL-4 do?

A

1) stimulation of activated B-cell and T-cell proliferation,
2) differentiation of B cells into plasma cells.
3) induces B-cell class switching to IgE,

72
Q

What immune response is more effective against extracellular infections

A

humoral immune response with a TH 2 response

73
Q

What immune response is more effective against toxins

A

humoral immune response with a TH 2 respons

74
Q

What immune response is more effective against intracellular infections

A

cell mediated immune response with a TH1 response e.g. CD8+ T cells cytolytic effects

75
Q

Give the causes of immunodeficiency:

A

Caused by infection e.g HIV
 Poor diet/alcohol
 Genetic e.g. complement deficiency, CGD,
 Splenic dysfunction (sickle cell disorder)
 Age
 Other diseases e.g. diabetes, cancer

Stage 3 Human Diseases (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions