HAZMAT Tech 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Q1: What is the difference between offensive, defensive, and nonintervention action options and objectives?

A

Offensive options include actions such as plugging a leak to control the incident, while Defensive options protect the surrounding area. The nonintervention option allows the incident to run its course, such as in the case of a BLEVE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Q2: What are action options and response objectives based on?

A
  • Estimated outcomes
  • Stage of the incident
  • Goals
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Q3: What steps should be taken when determining response objectives?

A
  1. estimate the exposures that could be saved
  2. determine the number already exposed
  3. base the response on estimated outcomes minus exposures already lost
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Q4: What steps should be taken when determining response objectives?

A
  1. estimate the exposures that could be saved
  2. determine the number already exposed
  3. base the response on estimated outcomes minus exposures already lost
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Q5: Our decisions should focus on on which factors?

A
  • Stressors
  • Containment system
  • HazMat
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Q6: What are the response objectives and how do we accomplish each? Write this out!

A
  • Found on page 64.
  • Note that this follows the “Sequence of Stages of a HAZMAT incident from tech 1”
  • Some Suckers Quickly Drink Extra Hennessy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Q7: What are the basic types of protective breathing equipment?

A
  • Self Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA)
  • Supplied Air Respiratory (SAR)
  • Air-Purifying Respirators (APRs)
  • Powered Air-Purifying Respirators
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The US Department of Homeland Security has adopted standards for respiratory equipment, which was developed by _________________.

A
  • National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)
  • National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the hazards associated with terrorist attacks?

A
  • Chemical
  • Biological
  • Radioactive
  • Nuclear
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the mandatory respiratory standard in the US?

A

OSHA 29 CFR 1910. 134

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which respiratory equipment does this describe: an atmosphere-supplying respirator for which the user carries the breathing-air supply?

A

Self Contained Breathing Apparatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which respiratory equipment does this describe: an atmosphere supplying respirator where the user does not carry the breathing air source

A

Supplied Air Respirator (SAR) or airline respirator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does NIOSH require of SARs?

A
  • EBSS provides enough air for the user to escape hot zone (5-15 minutes)
  • not certified for firefighting because of damage to hose by heat, fire, or debris.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which respiratory equipment does this describe: contain an air purifying filter, canister or cartridge that removes specific contaminants found in ambient air as it passes through air-purifying element.

A

Air-Purifying Respirators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the three types of APRs?

A
  • Particulate-Removing
  • Vapor and Gas Removing
  • Combination
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

True or False: Combination filters combine in the same cartridge or canister; particulate removing elements with vapor and gas remaking elements.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

In a APR, how does the canister or cartridge respirators remove specific contaminants from the air?

A

By passing air through:

  • filter
  • sorbent
  • catalyst
  • or a combo of these things
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which respiratory equipment does this describe: uses a blower to pass contaminated air through a canister or filter to remove contaminants and supply purified air to a full-face piece.

A

Powered Air-Purifying Respirators (PAPR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which respiratory equipment does this describe: protect the respiratory system from large-sized particles and provide very limited protection.

A

Particulate Respirators or dusk masks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When must protective clothing be worn?

A

When personnel face hazards including:

  • thermal hazards
  • exposure to chemical, biological, or radiological materials
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the types of protective clothing?

A
  • Structural Firefighting Protective Clothing
  • High-Temperature Protective Clothing
  • Chemical Protective Clothing (CPC)
  • Liquid Splash Protective Clothing
  • Vapor Protective Clothing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

True or False: Structural firefighter’s protective clothing is a substitute for chemical protective clothing.

A

FALSE. Structural firefighter’s protective clothing is NOT a substitute for chemical protective clothing. However, it does provide SOME protection against HAZMAT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the two types of Liquid Splash Protective Clothing?

A

Encapsulating and Non-encapsulating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What sets the minimum design criteria for one type of liquid splash protective clothing?

A

NFPA 1992

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

True of False: Material of liquid splash protective clothing is made from the same types of material used for vapor protective suits.

A

True!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is included in the NFPA 1991?

A
  • requirements for minimum level of protection for response personnel
  • performance requirements for vapor suits: chemical and flame resistance, permeation test against 21 chemicals
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Compare and Contrast the Levels of PPE

A

page 77-80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are a responders resources for PPE selection?

A
  • allied professional
  • hazmat technicians
  • emergency response plan
  • SOPs
  • IAP/site safety plan
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What general selection factors should be considered during PPE selection?

A
  • chemical and physical hazards
  • monitoring and detection
  • physical environment
  • exposure duration
  • limiting factors
  • available PPE
  • compliance with regulation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

True or False: Level B can be worn in situations where the hazard is unknown.

A

FALSE. Only Level A can be worn when the hazard is unknown.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is PPE selection dependent on?

A

Hazards and professional guidance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

True or False: mixtures of chemicals are less aggressive towards protective clothing materials than any single chemical.

A

FALSE. Mixtures can be significantly more aggressive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What support resources should the IAP provide?

A
  • water supply
  • utility control
  • SCBA cylinder filling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the three priorities for all hazmat incidents and emergency service organization?

A
  • Life safety
  • Incident stabilization
  • Protection of property and the environment
  • Societal restoration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

True or False: the incident action plan is developed from the site safety plan.

A

FALSE. The Site Safety Plan is developed from the Incident Action Plan.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are examples of physical hazards?

A
  • Engulfment
  • Falls/slips
  • Electrical
  • Structural
  • Mechanical
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the EPA guidelines for areas with flammable vapors?

A

IF INDOORS:

  • between 10%-25% LEL continue working with continuous monitoring
  • below: continue working with caution
  • above: WITHDRAW

IF OUTDOORS:
- above 10% LEL withdraw!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Define Control

A

the procedures, techniques, and methods, used in the mitigation of hazardous materials/weapons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Define Confinement

A

those procedures taken to keep a material once released, in a defined or local area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Define Containment

A

the actions taken to keep a material in its container (ex. stopping the release)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

If the incident ins large/complex, the IC may delegate authority to which Command Staff positions?

A
  • Safety Officer
  • Liason Officer
  • Public Information Officer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

True or False: OSHA requires the appointment of a safety officer in hazmat incidents.

A

TRUE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What Personnel and Teams make up the Operations Section?

A
  • Operations Section Chief
  • The Entry Leader/Team
  • The Recon Team
  • Decontamination Leader/Team
  • Back-Up Team
  • Incident Safety Officer, Asst. Safety Officer, or HAZMAT Branch Safety Officer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What does the Entry Leader or Entry Officer do?

A

makes recommendations concerning control activities in the hot zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the first team to go down range?

A

The Recon Team

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Where can you find the duties of the Decontamination Branch?

A

In the organizations SOPs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the 5 organizational functions?

A
  • Command
  • Operations
  • Planning
  • Logistics
  • Finance/Administration
48
Q

Which section gathers, assimilates, analyzes, and processes information needed for effective decision making?

A

The Planning Section

49
Q

Which section directly manages tactics and personnel in the operations section?

A

The Operations Section

50
Q

Which section is the support mechanism for the organization?

A

The logistics section

51
Q

Which section is established when agencies responding to incidents have a specific need for financial services?

A

The Finance/Administration Section

52
Q

What are the specific units under the Panning section?

A
  • Resources Unit
  • Situation Unit
  • Documentation Unit
  • Demobilization Unit
  • Technical Specialists
53
Q

What personnel/team is a part of the Planning Section and what do they do?

A

A Technical Specialist/Reference Team; gathers information and reports to the IC and Safety Officer

54
Q

What are the branches within the Logistics Section?

A
  • Service Branch

- Support Branch

55
Q

What does Unified Command accomplish?

A

control of an incident involving multiple agencies with overlapping authority and responsibility

56
Q

Compare the Hot, Warm, and old Zones

A

Page 118

57
Q

What are the requirements for the staging area?

A

It must be in an isolated spot, a safe area, and located where occupants cannot interfere with ongoing operations

58
Q

What are the purposes of a cornering/quartering staging procedure?

A

spreads out emergency personnel, which increases the area which they can affect and protects them from being targeted by enemies

59
Q

What does the General Hazardous Materials Behavior Model assume?

A

Assumes HAZMAT incidents have the following common elements:

  • materials presenting hazards to people, the environment, or property
  • containers have or have the potential to fail
  • exposure or potential exposure to people, property, or the environment
60
Q

Review pages from Page 121 to 123

A

reviews types of stretches and breaches

60
Q

What is a crucial step in implementing the Initial Action Plan?

A

Initiating the Incident Management System

61
Q

What is the purpose of the IAP?

A

to develop the necessary strategy and tactics to affect a positive and safe outcome

62
Q

What is the Incident Management System?

A

A management framework used to organize emergency incidents

63
Q

What does the IMS provide?

A

command structure and management terminology

64
Q

All emergency service organizations in the US are mandated to use the ______________________.

A

National Incident Management System - Incident Command System (NIMS-ICS)

65
Q

Which organization provides a functional, systemic organizational structure that clearly shows the lines of communication and chain or command?

A

NIMS-ICS

66
Q

What is included in NFPA 1026 and NFPA 1561?

A

more information on ICS structure and applications

67
Q

The Command Post must be:

A
  • at a safe location
  • accessible
  • readily identifiable
68
Q

Where can a CP be located?

A
  • Facility
  • Conveniently located building
  • Radio- equipped vehicle in a safe area
69
Q

What is the difference between the Service and Support Branch within the Logistics Section?

A

SERVICE: medical, communications, food services

SUPPORT: supplies, facilities, ground support

70
Q

What specific units are under the Finance Section?

A
  • Time Unit
  • Procurement Unit
  • Compensation Claims Unit
  • Cost Unit
71
Q

OSHA and the EPA refer to Hazard Control Zones as _________.

A

Site work zones or scene-control zones

72
Q

Hazard Control Zones are established for:

A
  • Accountability
  • To minimize contamination
  • To create an awareness of the hazards present

*this is not exactly how it is listed in the book (page 117) however, all the options listed fall into one of these categories

73
Q

Due to the logistics of incidents involving crime, what operations may need to be conducted in the hot zone?

A
  • Triage
  • Treatment
  • Transportation
74
Q

What are the requirements for a staging area?

A

It needs to be:

  • in an isolated spot
  • in a safe place
  • where occupants cannot interfere with ongoing operations
75
Q

Which kind of tactics confine a hazardous material that has been released from its container?

A

Spill-control tactics

76
Q

Spill control may also be called _______.

A

Confinement

77
Q

True or False: Spill control tactics are offensive.

A

FALSE. Spill control tactics are DEFFENSIVE.

78
Q

What do ICs need to do before using equipment to contain spills?

A
  • seek advice from technical sources

- determine if spilled materials will adversely affect equipment

79
Q

Rapidly spreading spills may require the use of:

A
  • heavy construction-type equipment
  • floating confinement booms
  • special sewer and storm drain plugs
80
Q

True or False: Strategically placed water streams can direct gases or allow water to absorb or move them.

A

True!

81
Q

What factors dictate confinement efforts?

A
  • Material type
  • rate of release
  • speed of spread
  • number of personnel available
  • tools and equipment needed
  • weather
  • topography
82
Q

What do techs do during spill-control tactics?

A
  • take protective actions

- close a remote shutoff valve from a safe location

83
Q

Which defensive spill control tactic soaks up or retains a liquid hazardous material in some other material?

A

Absorption

84
Q

What are common absorbents?

A
  • sawdust
  • clays
  • charcoal
  • polyolefin-type fibers
  • specially designed absorbent pads, pillows, booms, and socks
85
Q

Which defensive spill control tactic is defined by molecules of the liquid hazmat physically adhering to the adsorbent material?

A

Adsorption

86
Q

Which defensive spill control tactic utilizes tools such as:

  • tarps
  • plastic sheeting
  • salvage covers
  • foam
A

Blanketing/covering

87
Q

Which defensive spill control tactic is a physical method of confinement by which barriers are constructed to prevent or reduce the quantity of liquid flowing into the environment?

A

Damming

88
Q

What is the difference between an underflow and overflow dam?

A
  • underflow dams are used to trap floating lighter than water materials, while overflow dams trap sinking heavier than water materials
  • both trap liquids BEHIND the dam
  • both allow uncontaminated water to flow unobstructed
89
Q

Which defensive spill control tactic is a physical method of confinement by which barriers are constructed on ground used to control the movement of liquids, sludges, solids, or other materials?

A

Diking

90
Q

Which defensive spill control tactic is a physical method of confinement by which barriers are constructed on ground or placed in a waterway to intentionally control the movement of a hazardous material into an area where it will pose less harm to the community and the environment?

A

Diversion

91
Q

Which defensive spill control tactic is a physical method for containment in which a leaking or damaged container, drum, or vessel is placed inside a larger, specially constructed container to confine any further release of product?

A

Overpacking

92
Q

Which defensive spill control tactic is a physical method of confinement by which a liquid is temporarily contained in a area where it can be absorbed, neutralized, or picked up for proper disposal?

A

Retention

93
Q

Which defensive spill control tactic is used to repair leaks, holes, rips, gashes, or tears by placing them over the breach and holding them in place to stop the flow?

A

Patches

94
Q

Which defensive spill control tactic involves inserting, driving, or screwing a chemically compatible object into the breach of a container to reduce of temporarily stop the flow?

A

Plugging

95
Q

Which defensive spill control tactic is a physical or chemical method of containment by which the internal pressure of a closed container is reduced?

A

Pressure Isolation and Reduction

96
Q

Which defensive spill control tactic directs of influences the course of airborne HAZMAT?

A

Vapor Dispersion

97
Q

Which defensive spill control tactic controls air movement by using natural or mechanical means?

A

Ventilation

98
Q

Which defensive spill control tactic involves breaking up or dispersing a HAZMAT that has spilled on a solid or liquid surface?

A

Dispersion

99
Q

Which defensive spill control tactic includes the application of water to a water soluable material to reduce the hazard?

A

Dilution

100
Q

When are responders most likely to utilize dilution?

A

during decon

101
Q

Which defensive spill control tactic involves raising or lowering the pH of corrosive materials to a neutral pH?

A

Neutralization

102
Q

Where can we find the shutoff device on a CARGO TANK TRUCK and how do we use it?

A
  • Often located behind the driver’s side cab

- Usually operated by: pulling a handle, flipping a switch, breaking off a fusible device

103
Q

Where can we find the shutoff device on a HIGH PRESSURE TANK (MC-331) and how do we use it?

A
  • located on left front corner of tank (behind driver)
  • some larger tanks, such as the MC-331 will have 2 devices
  • may have an electronically operated device that can be activated from 150 ft
104
Q

Where can we find the shutoff device on NON-PRESSURE LIQUID TANKS (DOT -406) AND LOW PRESSURE CHEMICAL TANKS (DOT -407) and how do we use it?

A
  • device is behind driver

- may have additional in rear corner or center

105
Q

Where can we find the shutoff device on a CORROSIVE LIQUID TANKS (DOT -412) and how do we use it?

A

do NOT typically have them

106
Q

Where can we find the shutoff device on GAS SERVICE (HIGH PRESSURE AND CRYOGENIC) INTERMODAL CONTAINERS and how do we use it?

A
  • bottom internal valve

- pull metal cable

107
Q

How do we contain a leak from valve blowout?

A
  • stop flow with a wooden plug

- shut down line or drain container

108
Q

How do we contain a leak from a valve gland?

A
  • tighten the packing nut

- cap the outlet

109
Q

How do we contain a leak from the valve inlet threads?

A

tighten the valve assembly

110
Q

How do we contain a leak from fusible plug?

A

tighten and cap

111
Q

How do we contain a leak from the valve stem assembly blowout?

A

wooden plug

112
Q

How do we contain the leaks of a pressure container?

A
  • close valves that are open

- replace or tighten loose plugs

113
Q

What are the overpacking procedures for a 55 gall drum?

A
  • slide in
  • rolling slide in
  • slip over
114
Q

How do you operate a specialized dome clamp?

A

eliminate ignition source then install