HAZMAT Tech 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Q1: What is the difference between offensive, defensive, and nonintervention action options and objectives?

A

Offensive options include actions such as plugging a leak to control the incident, while Defensive options protect the surrounding area. The nonintervention option allows the incident to run its course, such as in the case of a BLEVE.

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2
Q

Q2: What are action options and response objectives based on?

A
  • Estimated outcomes
  • Stage of the incident
  • Goals
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3
Q

Q3: What steps should be taken when determining response objectives?

A
  1. estimate the exposures that could be saved
  2. determine the number already exposed
  3. base the response on estimated outcomes minus exposures already lost
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4
Q

Q4: What steps should be taken when determining response objectives?

A
  1. estimate the exposures that could be saved
  2. determine the number already exposed
  3. base the response on estimated outcomes minus exposures already lost
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5
Q

Q5: Our decisions should focus on on which factors?

A
  • Stressors
  • Containment system
  • HazMat
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6
Q

Q6: What are the response objectives and how do we accomplish each? Write this out!

A
  • Found on page 64.
  • Note that this follows the “Sequence of Stages of a HAZMAT incident from tech 1”
  • Some Suckers Quickly Drink Extra Hennessy
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7
Q

Q7: What are the basic types of protective breathing equipment?

A
  • Self Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA)
  • Supplied Air Respiratory (SAR)
  • Air-Purifying Respirators (APRs)
  • Powered Air-Purifying Respirators
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8
Q

The US Department of Homeland Security has adopted standards for respiratory equipment, which was developed by _________________.

A
  • National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)
  • National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)
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9
Q

What are the hazards associated with terrorist attacks?

A
  • Chemical
  • Biological
  • Radioactive
  • Nuclear
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10
Q

What is the mandatory respiratory standard in the US?

A

OSHA 29 CFR 1910. 134

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11
Q

Which respiratory equipment does this describe: an atmosphere-supplying respirator for which the user carries the breathing-air supply?

A

Self Contained Breathing Apparatus

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12
Q

Which respiratory equipment does this describe: an atmosphere supplying respirator where the user does not carry the breathing air source

A

Supplied Air Respirator (SAR) or airline respirator

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13
Q

What does NIOSH require of SARs?

A
  • EBSS provides enough air for the user to escape hot zone (5-15 minutes)
  • not certified for firefighting because of damage to hose by heat, fire, or debris.
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14
Q

Which respiratory equipment does this describe: contain an air purifying filter, canister or cartridge that removes specific contaminants found in ambient air as it passes through air-purifying element.

A

Air-Purifying Respirators

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15
Q

What are the three types of APRs?

A
  • Particulate-Removing
  • Vapor and Gas Removing
  • Combination
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16
Q

True or False: Combination filters combine in the same cartridge or canister; particulate removing elements with vapor and gas remaking elements.

A

True

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17
Q

In a APR, how does the canister or cartridge respirators remove specific contaminants from the air?

A

By passing air through:

  • filter
  • sorbent
  • catalyst
  • or a combo of these things
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18
Q

Which respiratory equipment does this describe: uses a blower to pass contaminated air through a canister or filter to remove contaminants and supply purified air to a full-face piece.

A

Powered Air-Purifying Respirators (PAPR)

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19
Q

Which respiratory equipment does this describe: protect the respiratory system from large-sized particles and provide very limited protection.

A

Particulate Respirators or dusk masks

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20
Q

When must protective clothing be worn?

A

When personnel face hazards including:

  • thermal hazards
  • exposure to chemical, biological, or radiological materials
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21
Q

What are the types of protective clothing?

A
  • Structural Firefighting Protective Clothing
  • High-Temperature Protective Clothing
  • Chemical Protective Clothing (CPC)
  • Liquid Splash Protective Clothing
  • Vapor Protective Clothing
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22
Q

True or False: Structural firefighter’s protective clothing is a substitute for chemical protective clothing.

A

FALSE. Structural firefighter’s protective clothing is NOT a substitute for chemical protective clothing. However, it does provide SOME protection against HAZMAT

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23
Q

What are the two types of Liquid Splash Protective Clothing?

A

Encapsulating and Non-encapsulating

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24
Q

What sets the minimum design criteria for one type of liquid splash protective clothing?

A

NFPA 1992

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25
Q

True of False: Material of liquid splash protective clothing is made from the same types of material used for vapor protective suits.

A

True!

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26
Q

What is included in the NFPA 1991?

A
  • requirements for minimum level of protection for response personnel
  • performance requirements for vapor suits: chemical and flame resistance, permeation test against 21 chemicals
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27
Q

Compare and Contrast the Levels of PPE

A

page 77-80

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28
Q

What are a responders resources for PPE selection?

A
  • allied professional
  • hazmat technicians
  • emergency response plan
  • SOPs
  • IAP/site safety plan
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29
Q

What general selection factors should be considered during PPE selection?

A
  • chemical and physical hazards
  • monitoring and detection
  • physical environment
  • exposure duration
  • limiting factors
  • available PPE
  • compliance with regulation
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30
Q

True or False: Level B can be worn in situations where the hazard is unknown.

A

FALSE. Only Level A can be worn when the hazard is unknown.

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31
Q

What is PPE selection dependent on?

A

Hazards and professional guidance

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32
Q

True or False: mixtures of chemicals are less aggressive towards protective clothing materials than any single chemical.

A

FALSE. Mixtures can be significantly more aggressive.

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33
Q

What support resources should the IAP provide?

A
  • water supply
  • utility control
  • SCBA cylinder filling
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34
Q

What are the three priorities for all hazmat incidents and emergency service organization?

A
  • Life safety
  • Incident stabilization
  • Protection of property and the environment
  • Societal restoration
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35
Q

True or False: the incident action plan is developed from the site safety plan.

A

FALSE. The Site Safety Plan is developed from the Incident Action Plan.

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36
Q

What are examples of physical hazards?

A
  • Engulfment
  • Falls/slips
  • Electrical
  • Structural
  • Mechanical
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37
Q

What are the EPA guidelines for areas with flammable vapors?

A

IF INDOORS:

  • between 10%-25% LEL continue working with continuous monitoring
  • below: continue working with caution
  • above: WITHDRAW

IF OUTDOORS:
- above 10% LEL withdraw!

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38
Q

Define Control

A

the procedures, techniques, and methods, used in the mitigation of hazardous materials/weapons

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39
Q

Define Confinement

A

those procedures taken to keep a material once released, in a defined or local area

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40
Q

Define Containment

A

the actions taken to keep a material in its container (ex. stopping the release)

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41
Q

If the incident ins large/complex, the IC may delegate authority to which Command Staff positions?

A
  • Safety Officer
  • Liason Officer
  • Public Information Officer
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42
Q

True or False: OSHA requires the appointment of a safety officer in hazmat incidents.

A

TRUE.

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43
Q

What Personnel and Teams make up the Operations Section?

A
  • Operations Section Chief
  • The Entry Leader/Team
  • The Recon Team
  • Decontamination Leader/Team
  • Back-Up Team
  • Incident Safety Officer, Asst. Safety Officer, or HAZMAT Branch Safety Officer
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44
Q

What does the Entry Leader or Entry Officer do?

A

makes recommendations concerning control activities in the hot zone

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45
Q

What is the first team to go down range?

A

The Recon Team

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46
Q

Where can you find the duties of the Decontamination Branch?

A

In the organizations SOPs

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47
Q

What are the 5 organizational functions?

A
  • Command
  • Operations
  • Planning
  • Logistics
  • Finance/Administration
48
Q

Which section gathers, assimilates, analyzes, and processes information needed for effective decision making?

A

The Planning Section

49
Q

Which section directly manages tactics and personnel in the operations section?

A

The Operations Section

50
Q

Which section is the support mechanism for the organization?

A

The logistics section

51
Q

Which section is established when agencies responding to incidents have a specific need for financial services?

A

The Finance/Administration Section

52
Q

What are the specific units under the Panning section?

A
  • Resources Unit
  • Situation Unit
  • Documentation Unit
  • Demobilization Unit
  • Technical Specialists
53
Q

What personnel/team is a part of the Planning Section and what do they do?

A

A Technical Specialist/Reference Team; gathers information and reports to the IC and Safety Officer

54
Q

What are the branches within the Logistics Section?

A
  • Service Branch

- Support Branch

55
Q

What does Unified Command accomplish?

A

control of an incident involving multiple agencies with overlapping authority and responsibility

56
Q

Compare the Hot, Warm, and old Zones

57
Q

What are the requirements for the staging area?

A

It must be in an isolated spot, a safe area, and located where occupants cannot interfere with ongoing operations

58
Q

What are the purposes of a cornering/quartering staging procedure?

A

spreads out emergency personnel, which increases the area which they can affect and protects them from being targeted by enemies

59
Q

What does the General Hazardous Materials Behavior Model assume?

A

Assumes HAZMAT incidents have the following common elements:

  • materials presenting hazards to people, the environment, or property
  • containers have or have the potential to fail
  • exposure or potential exposure to people, property, or the environment
60
Q

Review pages from Page 121 to 123

A

reviews types of stretches and breaches

60
Q

What is a crucial step in implementing the Initial Action Plan?

A

Initiating the Incident Management System

61
Q

What is the purpose of the IAP?

A

to develop the necessary strategy and tactics to affect a positive and safe outcome

62
Q

What is the Incident Management System?

A

A management framework used to organize emergency incidents

63
Q

What does the IMS provide?

A

command structure and management terminology

64
Q

All emergency service organizations in the US are mandated to use the ______________________.

A

National Incident Management System - Incident Command System (NIMS-ICS)

65
Q

Which organization provides a functional, systemic organizational structure that clearly shows the lines of communication and chain or command?

66
Q

What is included in NFPA 1026 and NFPA 1561?

A

more information on ICS structure and applications

67
Q

The Command Post must be:

A
  • at a safe location
  • accessible
  • readily identifiable
68
Q

Where can a CP be located?

A
  • Facility
  • Conveniently located building
  • Radio- equipped vehicle in a safe area
69
Q

What is the difference between the Service and Support Branch within the Logistics Section?

A

SERVICE: medical, communications, food services

SUPPORT: supplies, facilities, ground support

70
Q

What specific units are under the Finance Section?

A
  • Time Unit
  • Procurement Unit
  • Compensation Claims Unit
  • Cost Unit
71
Q

OSHA and the EPA refer to Hazard Control Zones as _________.

A

Site work zones or scene-control zones

72
Q

Hazard Control Zones are established for:

A
  • Accountability
  • To minimize contamination
  • To create an awareness of the hazards present

*this is not exactly how it is listed in the book (page 117) however, all the options listed fall into one of these categories

73
Q

Due to the logistics of incidents involving crime, what operations may need to be conducted in the hot zone?

A
  • Triage
  • Treatment
  • Transportation
74
Q

What are the requirements for a staging area?

A

It needs to be:

  • in an isolated spot
  • in a safe place
  • where occupants cannot interfere with ongoing operations
75
Q

Which kind of tactics confine a hazardous material that has been released from its container?

A

Spill-control tactics

76
Q

Spill control may also be called _______.

A

Confinement

77
Q

True or False: Spill control tactics are offensive.

A

FALSE. Spill control tactics are DEFFENSIVE.

78
Q

What do ICs need to do before using equipment to contain spills?

A
  • seek advice from technical sources

- determine if spilled materials will adversely affect equipment

79
Q

Rapidly spreading spills may require the use of:

A
  • heavy construction-type equipment
  • floating confinement booms
  • special sewer and storm drain plugs
80
Q

True or False: Strategically placed water streams can direct gases or allow water to absorb or move them.

81
Q

What factors dictate confinement efforts?

A
  • Material type
  • rate of release
  • speed of spread
  • number of personnel available
  • tools and equipment needed
  • weather
  • topography
82
Q

What do techs do during spill-control tactics?

A
  • take protective actions

- close a remote shutoff valve from a safe location

83
Q

Which defensive spill control tactic soaks up or retains a liquid hazardous material in some other material?

A

Absorption

84
Q

What are common absorbents?

A
  • sawdust
  • clays
  • charcoal
  • polyolefin-type fibers
  • specially designed absorbent pads, pillows, booms, and socks
85
Q

Which defensive spill control tactic is defined by molecules of the liquid hazmat physically adhering to the adsorbent material?

A

Adsorption

86
Q

Which defensive spill control tactic utilizes tools such as:

  • tarps
  • plastic sheeting
  • salvage covers
  • foam
A

Blanketing/covering

87
Q

Which defensive spill control tactic is a physical method of confinement by which barriers are constructed to prevent or reduce the quantity of liquid flowing into the environment?

88
Q

What is the difference between an underflow and overflow dam?

A
  • underflow dams are used to trap floating lighter than water materials, while overflow dams trap sinking heavier than water materials
  • both trap liquids BEHIND the dam
  • both allow uncontaminated water to flow unobstructed
89
Q

Which defensive spill control tactic is a physical method of confinement by which barriers are constructed on ground used to control the movement of liquids, sludges, solids, or other materials?

90
Q

Which defensive spill control tactic is a physical method of confinement by which barriers are constructed on ground or placed in a waterway to intentionally control the movement of a hazardous material into an area where it will pose less harm to the community and the environment?

91
Q

Which defensive spill control tactic is a physical method for containment in which a leaking or damaged container, drum, or vessel is placed inside a larger, specially constructed container to confine any further release of product?

A

Overpacking

92
Q

Which defensive spill control tactic is a physical method of confinement by which a liquid is temporarily contained in a area where it can be absorbed, neutralized, or picked up for proper disposal?

93
Q

Which defensive spill control tactic is used to repair leaks, holes, rips, gashes, or tears by placing them over the breach and holding them in place to stop the flow?

94
Q

Which defensive spill control tactic involves inserting, driving, or screwing a chemically compatible object into the breach of a container to reduce of temporarily stop the flow?

95
Q

Which defensive spill control tactic is a physical or chemical method of containment by which the internal pressure of a closed container is reduced?

A

Pressure Isolation and Reduction

96
Q

Which defensive spill control tactic directs of influences the course of airborne HAZMAT?

A

Vapor Dispersion

97
Q

Which defensive spill control tactic controls air movement by using natural or mechanical means?

A

Ventilation

98
Q

Which defensive spill control tactic involves breaking up or dispersing a HAZMAT that has spilled on a solid or liquid surface?

A

Dispersion

99
Q

Which defensive spill control tactic includes the application of water to a water soluable material to reduce the hazard?

100
Q

When are responders most likely to utilize dilution?

A

during decon

101
Q

Which defensive spill control tactic involves raising or lowering the pH of corrosive materials to a neutral pH?

A

Neutralization

102
Q

Where can we find the shutoff device on a CARGO TANK TRUCK and how do we use it?

A
  • Often located behind the driver’s side cab

- Usually operated by: pulling a handle, flipping a switch, breaking off a fusible device

103
Q

Where can we find the shutoff device on a HIGH PRESSURE TANK (MC-331) and how do we use it?

A
  • located on left front corner of tank (behind driver)
  • some larger tanks, such as the MC-331 will have 2 devices
  • may have an electronically operated device that can be activated from 150 ft
104
Q

Where can we find the shutoff device on NON-PRESSURE LIQUID TANKS (DOT -406) AND LOW PRESSURE CHEMICAL TANKS (DOT -407) and how do we use it?

A
  • device is behind driver

- may have additional in rear corner or center

105
Q

Where can we find the shutoff device on a CORROSIVE LIQUID TANKS (DOT -412) and how do we use it?

A

do NOT typically have them

106
Q

Where can we find the shutoff device on GAS SERVICE (HIGH PRESSURE AND CRYOGENIC) INTERMODAL CONTAINERS and how do we use it?

A
  • bottom internal valve

- pull metal cable

107
Q

How do we contain a leak from valve blowout?

A
  • stop flow with a wooden plug

- shut down line or drain container

108
Q

How do we contain a leak from a valve gland?

A
  • tighten the packing nut

- cap the outlet

109
Q

How do we contain a leak from the valve inlet threads?

A

tighten the valve assembly

110
Q

How do we contain a leak from fusible plug?

A

tighten and cap

111
Q

How do we contain a leak from the valve stem assembly blowout?

A

wooden plug

112
Q

How do we contain the leaks of a pressure container?

A
  • close valves that are open

- replace or tighten loose plugs

113
Q

What are the overpacking procedures for a 55 gall drum?

A
  • slide in
  • rolling slide in
  • slip over
114
Q

How do you operate a specialized dome clamp?

A

eliminate ignition source then install