Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

CBOLC > HAZMAT Tech 1 > Flashcards

HAZMAT Tech 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is a hazardous Materials Technician level responder?

A
  • responds to hazardous materials/WMD incidents

- APIET

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Technician Level Responders receive additional training from…

A

Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the goals of a HMT?

A 
APIET*
Analyze
Plan
Implement 
Evaluate
Terminate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The HMT goal of “analyze” includes:

A
  • survey the incident
  • collect and interpret hazard and response information
  • describe
  • estimate size of endangered area using COMPUTER MODELING, MONITORING EQUIPMENT, OR SPECIALISTS IN THIS FIELD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are Biological Hazards?

A

microorganisms, such as viruses or bacteria (or their toxins) that may cause severe, disabling disease or illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a characteristic of bio hazards?

A

many can be transferred from the blood or other bodily fluids of an infected individual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are Corrosivity Hazards?

A

Materials that destroy living tissue and damage or destroy metal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the two groups that corrosivity hazards are divided into?

A

Acids and Bases (Alkaline)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the three energy hazards?

A
  • Explosivity
  • Reactivity
  • Radioactivity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Define Explosivity

A
  • any substance with a great deal of potential energy that may rapidly expand and release upon activation (undergo an explosion)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Define Reactivity

A

describes a substances ability to undergo a chemical reaction with itself or other materials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Define Radioactivity

A

comes in different forms of varying energy levels.

  • nonionizing: least energetic
  • ionozing: most energetic and hazardous
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Examples of ionizing and nonionizing radiation

A

nonionizing: visible light and radio waves
ionizing: UV rays

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Define Flammability

A

A materials susceptibility to ignite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a hazards flammability used determine?

A

incident strategies and tactics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Define Oxygen Concentration

A

total amount of oxygen in a given system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the percentages for normal oxygen conditions, oxygen deficient and oxygen enriched conditions?

A
  • Normal Atmosphere: 19.5-23.5&
  • Oxygen Deficient: below 19.5%
  • Oxygen Enriched: above 23.5%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which substances are considered toxic?

A

chemicals or substances that cause sickness, illness, or injury by doing damage on the molecular scale when in contact with the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How does state of matter affect sampling?

A

affects the monitoring, and detection techniques and devices used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is an important characteristic of gases?

A

most gases sink

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How do you properly determine concentrations of different gases?

A

operate the devices at different HEIGHTS and GRADES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How do you verify monitoring and sampling results?

A

use more than one sampling method and more than one technology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Warnings!

A
  • Never rely on one type of detection equipment exclusively
  • You need the proper training to sample, monitor, etc
  • Must wear PPE when operating in potentially hazardous areas
  • Detection devices do not provide accurate readings in an oxygen efficient atmosphere
  • Always assume more than one hazard is present
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How do we operate in an unknown environment?

A
  • Follow SOPs of the AHJ
  • approach upwind, uphill, and upstream
  • take an analytic approach
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the order of approach when testing for the unknown?

A
  • Radiation
  • Flammables/Combustible
  • Oxygen
  • Corrosives
  • Toxics
  • Exothermic reactions
  • Oxidizers (and explosives)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

True or False, HAZMAT in a solid state usually WILL travel far.

A

FALSE. HAZMAT in a solid state usually WILL NOT travel far.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

When handling HAZMAT in a solid state, responders are typically sufficiently protected in which PPE?

A

SCBA or Level C PPE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the characteristics of HAZMAT in the liquid state?

A
  • vaporize
  • expand rapidly
  • potentially travel great distances
  • fill low level and confined places
  • personnel may need to don the most protective levels of respiratory and chemical PPE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the characteristics of HAZMAT in the gaseous state?

A
  • expand rapidly
  • fill enclosed spaces
  • potentially travel great distances
  • corrosive gases can penetrate PPE
  • can present fire hazard
  • can cause explosions
  • inert gases can displace oxygen
  • responders should operate with extreme caution
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What should we consider when selecting equipment?

A
  • the mission
  • protecting against radiation and corrosives
  • portability and user friendliness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is important to remember about Instrument Reaction Time?

A
  • some require a delay ranging from seconds to minutes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is important to remember about calibration?

A
  • MOST instruments require calibration
  • many factors affect the process
  • use calibration gases recommended by the manufacturer
  • store devices as directed by manufacturer
  • be aware of expiration dates
  • test instruments routinely
  • calibrating in the field can be difficult
  • dont zero in the hot or warm zone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Before operating a device, responders should:

A
  • Calibration Test (bump test)

- Zeroing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is a Calibration test (bump test)?

A

ensures that sensors function appropriately but does NOT test the accuracy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What does zeroing do?

A
  • resets the memory of an instrument so that it will read at normal (baseline) levels in fresh air
  • some zero automatically
  • some have a dedicated function to zero
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the name of the unit which measures large amounts of radiation exposure?

A

Roentgen Equivalent Man (rem)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Smaller amounts of radiation are described in…

A

millirem (mrem)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What do Radiation Absorbed Dose (rads) express?

A

the amount of radiation energy absorbed by a material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

True or False: rads apply to any material and all types of radiation

A

true!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What do rem measure?

A

the dose equivalent (or effective dose), which combines the amount of energy (from any type of ionizing radiation that is deposited in human tissue), along with the medical effects of the given type of radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What don’t rads take into account?

A

rads don’t take into account the potential effects that different types of radiation have have on the human body (example, 1 rad of alpha causes more that 1 rad of gamma but they are both 1 rad)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are Rotegens (R)?

A
  • systems of units are used to measure and express radiation exposure
  • only measure exposure to gamma and X-ray radiation
  • radiation survey meters use R per hour (R/hr)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the SI System?

A
  • used to measure radiation dose and exposure
  • unit used to measure absorbed dose is called Gray (Gy)
  • unit for dose equivalence is Sievert (Sv)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the two general categories of radiation detectors?

A
  • gas filled detectors

- scintillation detectors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which type of container is this? :

  • also known as General-Service Tank Cars
  • transport hazardous and nonhazardous materials
  • 60 to 100 psi
A

Nonpressure Tank Cars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which type of container is this? :

  • transports ammonium nitrate fertilizer, dry caustic soda, and plastic pellet
  • rounded ends with two or more sloping sided bays at the bottom
  • 20-80 psi
  • safety relief devices set at 75% of tank test pressure
A

Pneumatically Unloaded Hopper Cars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which type of container is this? :

  • 100 to 600 psi
  • off white paint indicates sprayed on thermal insulation
  • black paint usually indicates a jacketed tank car
A

Pressure Tank Cars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which type of container is this? :

  • IM 101 portable tank or IMO Type 1 Tank Container
  • built to withstand Maximum Allowable Working Pressures (MAWP) of 25.4 to 100 psi
  • nonhazardous and hazardous materials
A

Non-pressure Intermodal Tanks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which type of container is this? :

  • Also know as DOT specification 51 Portable Tanks or IMO type 5 tank Containers
  • 100 to 500 psi
  • carries LP-gas, anhydrous ammonia, motor fuel antiknock compounds or aluminum alkyls
A

Pressure Intermodal Tank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Which type of container is this? :

  • International Standards Organization (ISO) frame
  • used for helium, nitrogen, and oxygen
  • stainless steel high-pressure 3T cylinders
  • 9 to 48 inches in diameter that are permanently mounted inside an open frame
  • 3000 to 5000 psi
  • cascade type valve system
A

Tube Modules (Specialized Intermodal Tanks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which type of container is this? :

  • transports helium, hydrogen, nitrogen, and oxygen
  • 3,000 to 5,000 psi
  • “tube trailer”
  • stacked and cascaded together
  • manifold at the rear
A

Compressed Gas Tube Trailers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which type of container is this? :

  • overturn and splash protection
  • black tarlike material
  • 35 to 50 psi
A

Corrosive Liquid Cargo Tank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which type of container is this? :

  • 1500 cubic feet
  • V shaped hulls
  • “pneumatically off-loaded hopper trailers”
  • heavy loads
  • HAZARDS: centrifugal forces and static charges
A

Dry Bulk Cargo Tanks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Which type of container is this? :

  • transports Liquid Propane (LP) gases and anhydrous ammonia
  • 2,500 (bobtail) to 11,500 (cargo tank) gallons
  • 100 to 500 psi
  • upper 2/3 painted white
  • protected against damage by collision, jackknifing, and overturning
A

High-pressure Cargo Tanks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Which type of container is this? :

  • transports flammable and combustable liquids, poisons, and chemicals with a vapor pressure of 18psi at 100 degrees or greater but not more than 40psi at 170 degrees
  • double shell with insulation
  • horseshoe shaped
  • must be equipped with a self-closing internal emergency shut off valve
A

Low-pressure chemical cargo tanks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Which type of container is this? :

  • transports petroleum products
  • oval
  • underbelly outlets
  • elliptical cross section
  • 3 to 5 psig
A

Non-pressure Liquid Cargo Tanks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Which type of tank is this? :

  • stores flammable, combustible, and corrosive liquids
  • roof to shell seam designed to fail in case of fire or explosion
A

Cone Roof Tank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Which type of tank is this? :

  • Stores flammable and combustable liquids
  • Ladder on roof
  • Roof actually floats on liquid surface
A

Open Floating Roof Tank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Which type of tank is this? :

  • stores flammable and combustible liquids up to 1,000,000 gallons
  • also referred to as an Internal Floating Roof
  • large vents found at the top of the tank shell
A

Covered Floating Roof Tank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Which type of tank is this? :

  • horizontal cylindrical tank sitting on legs and blocks
  • 300 to 20,000 gallons
  • used in fuel dispensing operations
A

Horizontal Tank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Which type of tank is this? :

  • any tanks with greater than 10% surface area underground
  • vents, fill points, and potential occupancy/locations
A

Underground Storage Tanks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Which type of tank is this? :

  • stores LP gases, anhydrous ammonia, vinyl chloride, high vapor pressure flammable liquids
  • rounded ends
  • painted white or highly reflective color
A

Pressure Tank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Which type of packaging is this? :

  • can be sealed in a variety of ways
  • carries everything but materials that are radiological, liquid, or gas
A

Bags

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Which type of packaging is this? :

  • commonly 1 to 20 pounds
  • carries Class 6 and 8 materials along with nonhazardous liquids
  • glass or plastic bottle with a plastic cover
A

Carboys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Which type of cylinder is this? :

  • small cylinders made of metal, glass, or plastic
  • contains hazardous materials with a propellant
  • ex: cleaners, lubricants, paint, pesticides, poisons, flammable/combustibles, reactive liquids and gasses
A

Aerosol Container (cylinder)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are the three types of cylinders?

A

Aerosol, uninsulated, and cryogenic (insulated) containers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Which type of cylinder is this? :

  • typically made of steel
  • come in a variety of sizes up to 420 pounds
  • used for pressurized and liquified gases such as acetylene, LPG, chlorine, propane and oxygen
A

Uninsulated Containers (cylinder)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Which type of cylinder is this? :

- majority equipped with pressure relief device such as a relief valve, rupture disk, or fusible plug

A

cryogenic (insulated) containers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Which type of container is this? :

  • commonly 55 gallons
  • used for liquids and solids
A

Drums

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are the types of drums?

A

Closed Head and Open Head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Describe a closed head drum

A
  • closure contains 2 openings: 2 inch and 3/4 inch diameter plugs called Bungs, which are used to pump out liquid material
72
Q

Describe an open head drum

A
  • closure on an open head drum is called a “Chime Ring”

- used to transport solid materials such as dry fertilizer

73
Q

What are the types of Radioactive Materials Packages?

A
  • Excepted: extremely low levels.
  • Industrial: low levels. GREEN CONNEX
  • Type A: non-life-endangering amounts
  • Type B: higher levels than allowed in Type A
74
Q

What are the types of Intermediate Bulk Containers (IBC)?

A
  • Flexible Containers (Super Sacks)
  • Rigid Containers (Composite IBC’s)
  • Ton Container
  • Pipelines
75
Q

What type of Intermediate Bulk Containers (IBC) is this? :

  • solid materials
  • range from 15-85 cubic feet
  • fill port is on top and discharge point on bottom
A

Flexible Containers (Super Sacks)

76
Q

What type of Intermediate Bulk Containers (IBC) is this? :

  • liquid materials
  • a polypropylene tank surrounded by a rigid metal frame with a capacity of 300 to 500 gallons
  • fill port on top and a BALL VALVE at the discharge port on the bottom
A

Rigid Containers (composite IBC’s)

77
Q

What type of Intermediate Bulk Containers (IBC) is this? :

  • 3 ft by 8ft
  • convex or concave heads
  • able to transport one ton of chlorine
  • fusible plugs and/or spring-loaded safety relief valve
A

Ton Container

78
Q

What is a “Pig”?

A
  • A plug like device that hugs the interior pipe while the moving with the liquid product flow.
  • Isolates a product that may have just been transported from a different product that is to follow
  • transmits its location when passing through specific locations
79
Q

What information must be displayed on a pipeline?

A
  • Product
  • Owner
  • Emergency contact number
  • Signal Word
80
Q

Pipelines are constructed according to standards established by the ___________.

A

American Society Mechanical Engineers (ASME).

81
Q

What are the procedures for checking gas migration?

A
  • The Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition System (SCADA) monitors the materials flow and the pressure within the pipeline.
  • SCADA can pinpoint a possible leak, indicated by loss of pressure
  • Pipeline maps
82
Q

Why might we contact the pipeline company?

A

to shut down the line or control the leak

83
Q

What are the types of stress?

A
  • Thermal
  • Chemical
  • Mechanical
84
Q

What are the Damage Characteristics?

A
  • undamaged, no product release
  • damaged, no product release
  • damaged, product release
  • undamaged, product release
85
Q

What are the types/examples of tank car damage?

A
  • Cracks
  • Scores
  • Gouges
  • Dents
86
Q

How do we determine if there has been radioactive container damage?

A
  • Visual Inspection
  • Smear of Swipe Test: test the ground surrounding package
  • Transport Index
87
Q

How do we determine the pressure remaining in containers?

A
  • Pressure Gauges

- Temperature of the contents

88
Q

What is important to remember when using the temperature of the contents to determine pressure?

A

the temperature of the tank’s contents may lag ambient temperatures up to 6 hours

89
Q

How do we determine the quantity remaining in damaged containers?

A
  • Shipping Papers
  • Container Specification Marking
  • Gauging Devices
  • Frost Line
90
Q

True or False: Cryogenic Liquids vaporize rapidly when exposed to the higher ambient temperatures outside the tank.

91
Q

What is Rapid Vaporization?

A

a release of cryogenic liquid above -130 degrees

92
Q

What is the Expansion Ratio of cryogenic liquids?

A

560 to 1,445 to 1

93
Q

Higher expansion ratios =

A

more gas produced, therefore the danger area becomes larger

94
Q

What resources are available for the effects of mixing HAZMAT?

A
  • NFPA 491M has a guide to hazardous chemical reactions
  • Bretherick has a Handbook of Reactive Chemical Hazards
  • Lewis has a Hazardous Chemicals Desk Reference
95
Q

NFPA 491M has a guide to hazardous chemical reactions: what does it tell us?

A

diamond ratings for 160 chemicals and data on combustibility and static electric characteristics

96
Q

Bretherick has a Handbook of Reactive Chemical Hazards: what does it tell us?

A
  • covers 5000 elements and compounds
  • classified on the basis of similarities in structure or reactivity
  • listed alphabetically
97
Q

Lewis has a Hazardous Chemicals Desk Reference: what does it tell us?

A
  • Safety Profiles, synonyms, physical properties, standards, and recommendations of government agencies
  • 5,000 chemicals
  • variety of criteria including OSHA standard, ACGIH TLV, or being listed in the International Agency for Research on Cancer
98
Q

What is the General Hazardous Materials Behavior Model (referred to as the General Emergency Behavior Model or GEBMO) based on?

A

Ludwig Benner Jr.’s definition of hazardous materials (can escape and hurt things they touch)

99
Q

What are the stages of a HAZMAT incident?

A
  1. Stress
  2. Breach
  3. Release
  4. Dispersion/Engulf
  5. Exposure/Contact
  6. Harm
100
Q

What occurs during Dispersion/Engulf?

A
  • the HAZMAT inside the container release and MOVE AWAY FROM THE CONTAINER
  • patterns of dispersion
101
Q

What occurs during Exposure/Contact?

A

Anything that is in the area of the release is exposed

102
Q

What does harm depend on?

A

Time exposed and concentration of the material

103
Q

What are the components, subgroups, and elements that an incident can be broken into?

A
  • Components: product, environment, container
  • Subgroups: damage, hazard, vulnerability
  • Elements: spill, leak, fire
104
Q

Resources to predict the areas of potential harm:

A
  • computer modeling
  • monitoring equipment
  • technical assistance
  • specialists
105
Q

What are the steps to identify the hazards within the endangered area?

A

1: determine the concentration
2: determine acceptable exposure limits

106
Q

How do we determine the dimensions of the endangered area?

A
  • estimate exposures
  • measure concentrations
  • estimate hazards
  • identify areas of potential harm
107
Q

Acute exposure guideline levels for airborne chemicals (AEGLs)

A

Describes the human health effects from once in a lifetime exposure to airborne chemicals

108
Q

Becquerel (Bq)

A

International system unit of measuring for radioactivity in a certain period of time

109
Q

Counts per minute (CPM) and kilocounts per minute (KCMP)

A

measurements of radioactivity

110
Q

Curie (Ci)

A

The amount of ionizing radiation released one element spontaneously a mess energy as a result of the radioactive decay

111
Q

Immediately dangerous to life and health (IDLH) value

A

Likely to cause death or a minute or delayed permanent adverse health effects or prevent escape from such an environment

112
Q

Incubation period

A

The latency between exposure to a pathogen an onset of symptoms

113
Q

Infectious dose

A

The amount of a pathogen necessary to manifest its pathogenicity. Dependent on variables

114
Q

Parts per billion (ppb)

A

Denotes one particle of a given substance for every 999,999,999 other particles

115
Q

Parts per million (ppm)

A

One ppm equals 1 mL/m3. Denotes one particle of a given substance for every 999,999 other particles

116
Q

Permissible exposure limit (PEL)

A

Maximum concentration, averaged over eight hours, to which 95% of healthy adults can be repeatedly exposed for eight hours per day, 40 hours per week

117
Q

Radiation absorbs dose (rad)

A

Quantity of radiation absorbed by material

118
Q

Sievert, milliSievert (mSv), microsivert

A

Unit of measurement equivalent to REM

119
Q

Threshold limit value ceiling (TLV-C)

A

Maximum concentration without risk of injury

120
Q

Threshold limit value short term Exposure limit (TLV-STEL)

A

Maximum average concentration averaged over a 15 minute period to which healthy adults can be safely exposed for up to 15 minutes continuously. Exposure should not occur more than four times a day with at least one hour between exposures.

121
Q

Threshold limit value time weighted average (TLV-TWA)

A
  • Maximum concentration, averaged over eight hours

- Can be repeatedly expose for eight hours per day, 40 hours per week

122
Q

What do fire protection systems do?

A

Allow for the application of fire extinguishing agents quicker to manage the incident and its early stages allowing it to remain relatively small

123
Q

What is the carbon dioxide system And what does it do?

A
  • Environmentally safe gas that is colorless, odorless, electrically non-conductive, and highly efficient as a fire suppression agent
  • provides I have a blanket of gas that reduces the oxygen level to a point where combustion cannot occur
124
Q

What is the Halon system and what does it do?

A
  • Liquefied gassed extinguishing agent

- Extinguishers fire by chemical interruption of combustion

125
Q

What is the FM 200 system and what does it do?

A
  • does not remove oxygen
  • Remove the heat energy from fire
  • Approved by the environmental protection agency
126
Q

What is the FE-25 System And what does it do?

A

Similar to FM 200 however it requires 20% less agent

127
Q

What is the aqueous film forming foam and what does it do?

A
  • concentrated aqueous solution of one or more hydrocarbon
  • blankets the fuel surface and smothers the fire
  • fuel is cools by phone
  • Suppresses the release of flammable vapor that can mix with the air
128
Q

What is the water missed system and what does it do?

A

High pressure miss technology that extinguishes using three primary mechanisms, cooling and Nurding and radiant heat blocking.

  • minimum water results in less property damage
  • Mist is safe for people, equipment, and the environment
129
Q

Compare the two types of gas filled detectors

A
  • Ion chambers are affected by temperature and humidity. They gave responses directly proportional to the intensity of the radiation and are reliable.
  • Geiger-Meuller (GM) tubes Are not affected by temperature and humidity because they’re sealed from ambient air. They have a thin window that may detect alpha, beta, and gamma radiation. If sealed with a metal body then they can detect gamma radiation but are no longer suitable for alpha and beta radiation.
130
Q

What happens in a gas filled detector?

A
  • Radiation ionizes the gas inside the detection chamber

- Instruments electronics measure the quantity of ions created

131
Q

What do scintillation detectors do?

A
  • Radiation interacts with a crystal to produce a small flash of light which is amplified by photo multiplier tube tube
  • some have a thin mylar covering useful for detecting radiological contamination
  • Help detect small amounts of radiation
  • some detectors seal scintillation crystals in a metal body
132
Q

What is the purpose and function of monitoring and personal dosimetry devices?

A

They keep track of their total accumulated radiation dose and some do not require processing at a lab to retrieve dose information

133
Q

How do you self reading dosing meter (SRD) Measure radiation dose?

A

Roentgens, Milliroentgens, sieverts, or gray

134
Q

What do self reading to symmetries usually measure?

A

Gemma and x-ray radiation

135
Q

What are examples of SRDs?

A

Direct reading decimeter (DRD), pocket ion chamber (PIC), pencil dosimeter

136
Q

How do Combustible gas indicators (CGI’s) measure the amount of flammable vapors and gases in the atmosphere?

A
  • Percentage of the lower explosive limit
  • parts per million
  • Percentage of gas per volume of air
137
Q

True or false LEL meters will sound an alarm at 15% of the LEL of the calibration gas

A

False. LEL Meters will sound an alarm at 10% of the LEL

138
Q

What are the calibration issues of CGI’s?

A
  • calibrated to a specific flammable gas
  • Manufacturers provide response curves and conversion factors that are specific to individual meters which responders will have to utilize
  • need specific oxygen levels to function properly because they use a combustion chamber
  • they need enough oxygen to support combustion but too much can exaggerate readings because of this responders should monitor oxygen levels concurrently
139
Q

A wheat stone bridge is a …

140
Q

What do oxygen devices require?

A

A certain percentage of atmospheric oxygen in order to function correctly

141
Q

What do oxygen readings below 20.9% indicate?

A

A contaminant in the air is displacing the oxygen

142
Q

True or false oxygen sensors continually degrade even when not in use

143
Q

Do humidity and temperature and elevation affect readings from oxygen sensors?

144
Q

Where should oxygen sensors be zeroed?

A

In clean air at the elevation of the incident

145
Q

What is pH?

A

The concentration of hydronium or hydroxide ions in a solution determines the solutions pH

146
Q

What is the difference between acidic substances and basic substances?

A

Acidic substances have access hydronium ion well basic substances have excess hydroxide ions

147
Q

What are the primary equipment used to detect and measure corrosivity?

A

pH meters and pH paper

148
Q

How do we determine concentration?

A

The ratio of the amount of chemical to the amount of water

149
Q

A solution is more acidic or more basic dependent on what?

A

A stronger acid has more hydronium ion while a stronger base has higher numbers of hydroxide ions

150
Q

What are the associations to remember in terms of pH paper?

A
  • 0 to 3 are especially corrosive acids
  • Seven is neutral
  • 10 to 14 or especially corrosive bases
  • If the pH paper is stripped or bleach that indicates oxidizers and organic peroxides
151
Q

What are the benefits and downfalls of pH meters?

A
  • PH meters provide more precise readings but must be calibrated before each use
  • Temperature oils and other contaminants may all affect pH meter readings
152
Q

What should you do if fluoride test strips change color and air?

A

Responders not wearing level A PPE should evacuate the area immediately

153
Q

True or false, there are devices that can detect reactive materials.

A

False. No current meter or device contact reactive materials. However, if a hazardous material in a container begins to polymerize it will produce heat, Therefore infrared thermometers can help detect these reactions

154
Q

Toxicity is a factor of _________.

A

Exposure over time

155
Q

What is the difference between lethal concentration and lethal dose?

A

Lethal concentration is the minimum concentration of an inhaled substance that will cause death while lethal dose is the minimum amount of a solid or liquid that when ingested absorb or injected will cause death

156
Q

True or false, median lethal dose in the same as LD50

157
Q

What is Lethal Dose Low (LDLO or LDL)?

A

The lowest administer dose of a material capable of killing a specified test species. JUST ONE DEATH

158
Q

What is the incapacitating dose?

A

Indicates the dosage of a chemical or substance required to incapacitate that organism

159
Q

What are photo ionization detectors (PID’s)?

A
  • uses an ultraviolet lamp to ionized samples of gaseous materials to detect low to very low concentrations of potentially toxic vapors
  • real time
  • cannot identify the materials presents
  • use several different lamps to measure the ionization potential present
160
Q

What are colorimetric chips referred to as and how do they work?

A
  • referred to as Chip Measurement Systems (CMS)
  • use chemical specific measuring chips with an electronic analyzer
  • Highly reliable measurements for specific gases
  • fast response
161
Q

What do Biological Immunoassay Indicators do?

A
  • also known as assays

- detect the effects of a biological agent by relying on the evidence of a reaction in the form of antibodies

162
Q

What does DNA Fluroroscopy detect?

A
  • Detects biological agents by detecting protein-based biological substances
  • not portable
163
Q

What do infrared thermometers do?

A
  • To check temperature using a portion of the thermal radiation (sometimes called black body radiation)
  • very accurate
  • useful for measuring temperature
164
Q

What is included on a radioactive materials labels?

A

Vertical bars, contacts, activity, transport index, and significance of each

165
Q

Acids

A
  • containing hydrogen
  • produces hydrogen ions; a proton donor; pH less than 7
  • acidic chemicals are corrosive
166
Q

Air Reactivity

A
  • potentially air reactive and can ignite if they are exposed to air
  • potential for container failure due to over pressurization
167
Q

Alkaline

A
  • Alkali or alkaline metal
  • basic
  • pH of more than 7
168
Q

Auto refrigeration

A
  • A phenomenon
  • rapid release or boiling, of a liquified gas
  • causes it to temporary Lee remain in a liquid state
  • could lead a technician to falsely assume product elimination until the product resumes boiling and its subsequent release
  • Affects planning because the liquid flow is before becoming a gas
169
Q

Base

A
  • alkaline
  • caustic
  • Forming hydroxide ions and water solution that reacts with an acid to form salt
170
Q

Catalyst

A

Used to control the rate of a chemical reaction by either speeding it up or slowing it down

171
Q

Chemical Change

A
  • Takes place on the Molecular level and produces a new substance
172
Q

Chemical interactions

A

Can result in a buildup of heat that causes an increase in pressure. Combine materials could be more corrosive and the container might fail

173
Q

Compound mixture

A

Compounds that have a tendency to break down into their component parts sometimes in an explosive manner

174
Q

Conduction

A

Process by which heat or electricity is directly transmitted through a substance between adjoining regions

175
Q

Convection

A
  • Movement caused within a fluid by the tendency of hotter and therefore less dense material to rise, and colder, dancer material to sink
  • results in transfer of heat

CBOLC (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions