Hazmat Final Flashcards by Brandon Clark

What is the approximate flash point of diesel fuel?

a. 120 degrees F
b. 240 degrees F
c. 360 degrees F
d. 485 degrees F

a. 120 degrees F

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How is flammable range related to the relative danger of a substance?

a. The higher the bottom number, the more dangerous the substance is.
b. The narrower the range, the more dangerous the substance is.
c. The wider the range, the more dangerous the substance is.
d. There is no relationship between the quantities

c. The wider the range, the more dangerous the substance is.

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Normal temperature and pressure (NTP) for vapor pressures assume a standard ambient temperature of:

a. 0 degrees C
b. 20 degrees C
c. 70 degrees C
d. 100 degrees C

b. 20 degrees C

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_______ is to liquids as vapor density is to gases.

a. Specific gravity
b. Volatility
c. Viscosity
d. Molecular weight

a. Specific gravity

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Corrosives can be broken down into:

a. polars and nonpolars
b. chlorine-based and hydrogen-based corrosives
c. acids and bases
d. liquids and solids

c. acids and bases

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At what pH is a substance neither acidic nor basic?

a. 0
b. 1
c. 7
d. 15

c. 7

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Which of the following is the best example of secondary contamination?

a. Exposure to alpha radiation from broken transport packaging
b. Contact occurring during operations by emergency personnel to resolve the incident
c. Contact with material outside of its containment vessel or packaging
d. Contact with tools and equipment used to control a leak

d. Contact with tools and equipment used to control a leak

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Flammable liquids with low boiling points are dangerous because:

a. a relatively low temperature can start the liquid boiling
b. once one of these substances begins to boil, it is very difficult to make it stop
c. a low boiling point translates into a tendency for early explosion in a fire
d. they may produce large volumes of flammable vapor at relatively low temperatures

d. they may produce large volumes of flammable vapor at relatively low temperatures

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What is the temperature at which a flammable liquid will ignite without the need for an external ignition source?

a. Fire point
b. Flash point
c. Self-sustaining temperature
d. Ignition temperature

d. ignition temperature

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How would a fuel/air mixture in which there is not enough fuel be described?

a. Too rich
b. Starved
c. Too lean
d. Preignited

c. too lean

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What characteristic of a gas is quantified as its vapor density?

a. Its tendency to dissipate in open air
b. Its weight relative to air
c. How much moisture it contains
d. How thickly it boils

b. Its weight relative to air

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What is the vapor density of air?

a. 14.7
b. 3.1
c. 1.7
d. 1

d. 1

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What does the letter “C” stand for in 4H MEDIC ANNA?

a. Contain
b. Cervical
c. Casualties
d. Carbon Monoxide

d. Carbon Monoxide

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What quantity is the weight of a liquid as compared to an equal volume of water?

a. Vapor density
b. Atmospheric pressure
c. Specific gravity
d. Buoyancy

c. Specific gracity

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What is the specific gravity of water?

a. 10
b. 7
c. 1
d. 0

c. 1

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What term refers to the ability of a material to cause damage on contact to skin, eyes, or other body parts?

a. Organicity
b. Volatility
c. Corrosivity
d. Reactivity

c. Corrosivity

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Which of the following pH values would indicate a strong acid?

a. 9.5
b. 7.0
c. 4.3
d. 1.7

d. 1.7

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_______ is one toxic chemical found in most smoke caused by fire.

a. Sodium
b. Xenon
c. Cyanide
d. Acetic acid

c. Cyanide

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Which of the following is a type of radiation?

a. Omega
b. Delta
c. Alpha
d. Theta

c. Alpha

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________ identify(ies) the hazard as a liquid, solid, or gas.

a. Matter properties
b. State of matter
c. Physical matter
d. Chemical matter

b. State of matter

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A change in the state of a material is known as ________ change.

a. physical
b. chemical
c. property
d. matter

a. physical

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The alteration of the molecular nature of a material is known as a ________ change.

a. physical
b. chemical
c. property
d. matter

b. chemical

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What is the boiling point of water?

a. 112 degrees F
b. 112 degrees C
c. 212 degrees F
d. 212 degrees C

c. 212 degrees F

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What is the standard atmospheric pressure at sea level?

a. 1 pound per square inch (psi)
b. 7.7 psi
c. 12.8 psi
d. 14.7 psi

d. 14.7 psi

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What is one of the most important aspects to consider when looking at the fire potential of a flammable liquid?

a. Flammable range
b. Explosive range
c. Propagation rating
d. Flame spread rating

a. Flammable range

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What is the temperature at which a liquid fuel gives off sufficient vapor such that when an ignition source is present the vapors will ignite?

a. Flammable range
b. Flash point
c. Fire point
d. Ignition temperature

b. Flash point

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What is the temperature at which sustained combustion will occur?

a. Flammable range
b. Flash point
c. Fire point
d. Ignition temperature

c. Fire point

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Which term refers to the concentration of a gas or vapor in air that will burn if provided with a source of ignition?

a. Flash point
b. Vaporization range
c. Flammable range
d. Combustible limit

c. Flammable range

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________ describes an amount of vapor mixed with a volume of air.

a. Vaporization
b. Vapor density
c. Fuel/air mixture
d. Flammable range

d. Flammable range

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What is the term for the presence exerted by the vapor of a liquid until the vapor and the liquid are in equilibrium?

a. Vapor density
b. Vapor pressure
c. Head pressure
d. Head density

b. Vapor pressure

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What will gasoline or diesel fuel do when water is applied?

a. mix
b. sink to the bottom
c. float to the top
d. separate

c. float to the top

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What is the term for the ability of a substance to dissolve in water?

a. Water formulation
b. Water corrosivity
c. Chemical solubility
d. Water solubility

d. Water solubility

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What is used as a measurement of the corrosive strength of a substance?

a. Corrosivity index
b. pH
c. Sed rate
d. Partial pressure

b. pH

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Which particle has a positive charge?

a. Electron
b. Photon
c. Proton
d. Neutron

c. Proton

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Which particle does not have an electrical charge?

a. Electron
b. Photon
c. Proton
d. Neutron

d. Neutron

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Which particle has a negative electrical charge?

a. Electron
b. Photon
c. Proton
d. Neutron

a. Electron

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_______ refers to the process in which unstable atoms of an element decay to a different state and emit excess energy in the form of particles or waves.

a. Electromagnetism
b. Radioactivity
c. Covalence
d. Molecular decomposition

b. Radioactivity

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Which is the most energetic type of radiation?

a. Alpha
b. Beta
c. Gamma
d. Photon

c. Gamma

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What is the term for the process by which people, animals, the environment, and equipment are subjected to contact with a hazardous material?

a. Contamination
b. Risk
c. Hazard
d. Exposure

d. Exposure

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A person develops asbestosis after repeated exposures over 20 years. This is an example of a(n) ________ health effect.

a. acute
b. sensitized
c. prolonged
d. chronic

d. chronic

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Damage to a person’s skin, resulting from exposure to sulfuric acid, is an example of a(n) ________ health effect.

a. acute
b. persistent
c. recurring
d. chronic

a. acute

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The LC50 applies to materials in the _________ state.

a. solid
b. suspended
c. liquid
d. gaseous

d. gaseous

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Which type of radiation is emitted as pure electromagnetic energy?

a. Alpha
b. Beta
c. Gamma
d. Neutron

c. Gamma

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Which statement about radiation is correct?

a. Exposure to nonionizing radiation is very rare.
b. Nonionizing radiation causes chemical changes at the atomic level.
c. Ionizing radiation adds electrons to unstable atoms.
d. Ionizing radiation is more dangerous than nonionizing radiation.

b. Nonionizing radiation causes chemical changes at the atomic level.

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A responder has come in contact with a hazardous material by handling a tool that was used to stop a leak. This is an example of:

a. secondary contamination
b. contamination
c. exposure
d. infection

a. secondary contamination

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Under what circumstances are alpha particles the most harmful to the human body?

a. When the skin is wet
b. When they are ingested or inhaled
c. When the victim has no shielding other than clothing
d. When the emanating source is wet

b. Whey they are ingested or inhaled

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Which type of radiation is the most harmful to the human body?

a. Gamma
b. Beta
c. Delta
d. Omega

a. Gamma

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How would a fuel/air mixture in which there is too much fuel be described?

a. Too lean
b. Condensed
c. Too rich
d. Saturated

c. Too rich

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What does it mean if a substance’s vapor density is 2.3?

a. It will float in air.
b. It has a relatively high boiling point.
c. It has an extraordinary high boiling point.
d. It will sink in air.

d. It will sink in air

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What will a liquid with a specific gravity of 0.7 do in water?

a. Float on top
b. Sink to the bottom
c. Mix
d. Dissolve

a. Float on top

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What is secondary contamination?

a. Contamination with a Class II(2) substance or radioactivity
b. Contamination with small amounts that do not cause harm
c. Contact with another benign substance
d. A contaminated person or object contaminating someone else, such as a rescuer

d. A contaminated person or object contaminating someone else, such as a rescuer

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What type of changes can chemicals undergo when subjected to outside influences, such as heat, cold, and pressure?

a. Thermoplastic
b. Physical
c. Thermodynamic
d. Spatial

b. Physical

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When the letters “LD” or “LC” are followed by a number, what does that number indicate?

a. The average short-term exposure limit
b. The percentage of test subjects that will die when exposed to a specified amount
c. The lethal amount for all subjects of a specific test group
d. The average permissible limt

b. The percentage of test subjects that will die when exposed to a specified amount.

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How does the vapor pressure of a liquid relate to its rate of evaporation?

a. There is no relationship between those two quantities.
b. Vapor pressure and rate of evaporation are synonymous.
c. The greater the vapor pressure, the slower a liquid will evaporate.
d. The greater the vapor pressure, the faster a liquid will evaporate.

d. The greater the vapor pressure, the faster a liquid will evaporate.

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Vapor pressures are usually reported in references at an assumed standard temperature of 20 degrees C. Approximately what temperature is that, in everyday terms?

a. Room temperature
b. Too hot to touch, but below boiling
c. Right at the boiling point of water
d. Just above freezing

a. Room temperature

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What term describes the volume increase that occurs when a liquid material changes to a gas?

a. Off-gassing
b. Liquefaction
c. Expansion ratio
d. Vapor pressure

c. Expansion ratio

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What is the term for a catastrophic failure of a pressurized cylinder of liquid?

a. BEDEL
b. PLUME
c. CLOPE
d. BLEVE

d. BLEVE

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How would a fuel/air mixture in which there is too much fuel be described?

a. Too lean
b. Condensed
c. Too rich
d. Saturated

c. Too rich

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What is secondary contamination?

d. A contaminated person or object contaminating someone else, such as a rescuer

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What type of changes can chemicals undergo when subjected to outside influences, such as heat, cold, and pressure?

a. Thermoplastic
b. Physical
c. Thermodynamic
d. Spatial

b. Physical

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The U.S. Department of Transportation’s definition of hazardous materials specifies three entities against which a hazardous material poses an unreasonable risk. Which of the following is one of these entities?

a. Newly arriving emergency personnel
b. Drivers and handlers of the material
c. Receivers and shippers
d. The environment

d. The environment

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Which of the following is not routinely regarded as a hazardous substance unless a large quantity of it is spilled into a creek or waterway?

a. Milk
b. Chlorine
c. Nitrogen
d. Oxygen

a. Milk

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What information does the ERG provide to awareness level hazardous materials personnel when responding to an incident?

a. Detailed information on material properties
b. Initial actions to take at a hazardous materials incident
c. Mitigation and recover procedures
d. Decontamination and environmental remediation procedures

b. Initial actions to take at a hazardous materials incident

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Which NFPA standard addresses competencies for hazardous materials/WMD responders?

a. 1500
b. 1072
c. 1902
d. 1421

b. 1072

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What is the first defense against danger for fire fighters when responding to a hazardous materials incident?

a. Proper selection of PPE
b. Maintaining crew integrity
c. Recognition and awareness of the situation
d. Preparatory lessons learned in the classroom

c. Recognition and awareness of the situation

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Compliance with the standards of the __________ is voluntary.

a. National Fire Protection Association
b. Department of Transportation
c. Environmental Protection Agency
d. Occupational Safety and Health Administration

a. National Fire Protection Association

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Which entity creates consensus-based standards?

a. Environmental Protection Agency
b. National Fire Protection Association
c. Congress
d. Occupational Safety and Health Administration

b. National Fire Protection Association

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What is the acronym for the OSHA federal document containing hazardous materials response competencies?

a. HAZEL
b. HAZWOPER
c. HADDOCK
d. HAPPIER

b. HAZWOPER

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Which agency establishes requirements for fire department hazardous materials training?

a. OSHA
b. EPA
c. USFA
d. FSTC

a. OSHA

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What level of hazardous materials training enables individuals on scene only to recognize a potential hazardous materials incident, isolate and deny entry to other responders and the public, evacuate persons in danger, and take defensive action?

a. Awareness
b. Initial responder
c. Operations
d. Field

a. Awareness

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Awareness level hazardous materials personnel are qualified to:

a. implement protective actions.
b. assist with decontamination of victims.
c. conduct searches in a warm zone.
d. perform reconnaissance from a warm zone

a. implement protective actions

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Which action is within the awareness level scope of responsibility?

a. Prepare for emergency decontamination of civilians
b. Perform passive mitigation
c. Determine appropriate actions based on the ERG
d. Perform defensive tactics

c. Determine appropriate actions based on the ERG

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According to NFPA standards, which item is a core competency for operations level hazardous materials responders?

a. Preserve evidence
b. Control leaking product
c. Perform victim recovery
d. Perform atmospheric monitoring

a. Preserve evidence

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According to NFPA standards, which item is a mission-specific competency for operations level hazardous materials responders?

a. Scene survey and analysis
b. Collection of data from reference sources
c. Prediction of the likely behavior of a hazardous material
d. Response to illicit laboratory incidents

d. Response to illicit laboratory

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Which entity determines whether a need exists to provide mission-specific competency training for local operations level hazardous materials responders?

a. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)
b. State fire marshal
c. Authority having jurisdiction (AHJ)
d. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)

c. Authority having jurisdiction (AHJ)

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When performing a mission-specific competency, operations level hazardous materials responders must:

a. be secured to a mechanical means of retrieval.
b. work in pairs.
c. work under the direct supervision of technician level personnel.
d. wear Level A protective clothing.

c. work under the direct supervision of technician level personnel.

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Which responder level is trained to enter heavily contaminated areas for the purpose of stopping a hazardous materials release?

a. Operations
b. Advanced
c. Awareness
d. Technician

d. Technician

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Which level receives more advanced hazardous materials training than the technician level?

a. Specialist
b. Interventionist
c. Technologist
d. Expert

a. Specialist

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Which of the following standards is for “Hazardous Materials/Weapons of Mass Destruction Emergency Response Personnel Professional Qualifications?”

a. 472
b. 1001
c. 1072
d. 1082

c. 1072

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What law requires businesses that handle chemicals to report type, quantity, and storage methods to the local fire department?

a. INSTEP
b. HAMSTER
c. ASTHMA
d. EPCRA

d. EPCRA

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_________ are issued and enforced by governmental bodies such as the EPA.

a. Standards
b. Regulations
c. Policies
d. Guidelines

b. Regulation

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What does the “S” stand for in SERC?

a. Special
b. System
c. State
d. Start

c. State

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NFPA standards identify optional mission-specific competencies for _______ level hazardous materials/WMD responders.

a. operations
b. technician
c. awareness
d. specialist

a. operations

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________ was created as a method and standard practice for a local community to understand and be aware of the chemical hazards in the community.

a. OSHA
b. EPA
c. NFPA
d. SARA

d. SARA

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What suborganization within the NFPA produces the hazardous materials/WMD standards?

a. Technical Committee on Hazardous Materials Response Personnel
b. Special Task Force on Hazardous Materials Substances, Responses, and Disposal
c. Scientific and Technical Committee for Field Applications
d. Study Group on the Integration of Applicable Hazardous Materials Regulation

a. Technical Committee on Hazardous Materials Response Personnel

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The NFPA has produced three standards on various aspects of hazardous materials and emergency response to them. Which of the following is one of these standards?

a. 1901
b. 1002
c. 473
d. 10

c. 473

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What level of hazardous materials training enables personnel on scene only to recognize a potential hazardous materials emergency, protect themselves, isolate the area, and call for assistance?

a. Awareness
b. Operations
c. Scout
d. Field

a. Awareness

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After the initial training requirements, what is the OSHA requirement for refresher training?

a. There is no requirement for refresher training.
b. Once every two years.
c. Annually.
d. Annually if no responses occurred during the year.

c. Annually

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What is the NFPA “Standard for Competence of Responders to Hazardous Materials/Weapons of Mass Destruction Incidents?”

a. 470
b. 471
c. 472
d. 473

c. 472

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How are standards for hazardous materials developed?

a. They are created separately by each fire department.
b. They are formed by participation from industry manufacturers.
c. They are laws passed by several states’ legislatures.
d. They are issued by nongovernmental agencies such as NFPA.

d. They are issued by nongovernmental agencies such as NFPA.

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Which section of 29 CFR 1910.120 covers emergency response?

a. h
b. m
c. p
d. q

d. q

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The DOT defines a hazardous material as one that poses an unreasonable risk when:

a. it is being transported
b. it is not properly contained or stored
c. it is used in a reasonable, controlled manner
d. it is exposed to common environmental conditions

b. it is not properly contained or stored

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When does the response to a hazardous materials incident begin?

a. Not until everyone is assembled onsite and the planning and evaluation process has been completed.
b. Not until the first person trained in hazardous materials arrives on the scene.
c. When the first call is received by the communications center or other agency of notification.
d. With learning about the regulations, agencies involved, and potential hazards in the jurisdiction.

d. With learning about the regulations, agencies involved, and potential hazards in the jurisdiction.

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In general, which type of incident requires the most time, planning, and forethought?

a. Structure fire
b. Hazardous materials incident with rescue
c. Structure fire with rescue
d. Hazardous materials incident with no life hazard

b. Hazardous materials incident with rescue

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Which of the following statements best describes the correct perspective to take at a hazardous materials/WMD incident?

a. Take aggressive action to minimize the threat.
b. Slow down and think before you act.
c. Contain and confine but provide for safety first.
d. Risk a lot to save a lot.

b. Slow down and think before you act.

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Which NFPA standard addresses competencies for emergency medical personnel working a hazardous materials/WMD incident?

a. 470
b. 471
c. 1072
d. 473

d. 473

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The following is a list of actions that might be taken on a hazardous materials incident. Which action is appropriate for operations level responders, but not for awareness level responders?

a. Avoid contact with the material.
b. Take steps to contain the release.
c. Eliminate the ignition sources.
d. Use the “Emergency Response Guide” to identify the material.

b. Take steps to contain the release.

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Which federal agency regulates and governs issues related to hazardous materials in the environment?

a. OSHA
b. DOA
c. DOE
d. EPA

d. EPA

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The _______ serves as the liaison between local and state levels of authority.

a. local emergency planning committee
b. state emergency response commission
c. federal coordination and reporting hotline
d. regional hazardous materials team

b. state emergency response commission

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Hazardous materials response agencies should focus incident-planning activities on ________ hazards in the jurisdiction.

a. residential
b. potential
c. vulnerable
d. target

d. target

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The minimum level of hazardous materials training for a hazardous materials incident commander is:

a. operations
b. awareness
c. specialist
d. technician

a. operations

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Which tactical activity requires technician level training?

a. Basic hazard and risk assessment
b. Planning a response to a leak
c. Performing decontamination
d. Plugging or patching

d. Plugging or patching

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Which federal agency enforces and publicizes laws and regulations governing transportation of goods?

a. OSA
b. OPA
c. DOT
d. DOHA

c. DOT

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What dictates the actions taken at a hazardous materials incident?

a. The chemical involved
b. The level of protection
c. The type of equipment
d. The type of decontamination

a. The chemical involved

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What is the term for any material that poses an unreasonable risk to human health, safety, or the environment?

a. Hazardous good
b. Dangerous material
c. Hazardous material
d. Dangerous commodity

c. Hazardous material

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Which committees gather and disseminate information about hazardous materials to the public?

a. IOSCO regional committees
b. USFA annual planning committees
c. Industry self-monitoring committees
d. Local emergency planning committees

d. Local emergency planning committees

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In hazardous materials preincident planning, once the agency has identified the threats in its jurisdiction, the agency should:

a. take no further action.
b. determine how it will respond
c. run full-scale drill exercises
d. run tabletop drill exercises

b. determine how it will respond

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Each U.S. state has the right to adopt and supersede safety and health regulations put forth by federal OSHA. The states that choose that option are:

a. OSHA-exempt states.
b. state-plan states.
c. sub 6 states.
d. compliant states

b. state-plan states.

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Which of the following best describes how hazardous materials regulations are created?

a. They are created in each fire department separately by that department.
b. They are issued by government bodies such as OSHA.
c. They are formed by participation from industry manufacturers.
d. They are laws passed by several states’ legislatures.

b. They are issued by government bodies such as OSHA.

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The “OSHA HAZWOPER” regulation mandates the operations level hazardous materials/WMD responders must be trained to respond in a(n) ________ fashion.

a. offensive
b. indirect
c. passive
d. defensive

d. defensive

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Incident planning should focus on both the real threats that exist in the department’s community and:

a. the real threats that exist in adjacent communities that the department might assist.
b. threats that are not real today, but that may become real as technology changes.
c. model threats, which exercise all the available resources in a standard set of circumstances.
d. random threats; always expect the unexpected, especially with the terrorism concerns of the new millenium.

a. the real threats that exist in adjacent communities that the department might assist.

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How is the lid on an open-head drum fastened?

a. Hooks are welded to the sides and grip it.
b. The lid flange is crimped over the drum lip.
c. The lid is twisted onto a thread encircling the body.
d. A ring and tightening hardware are applied.

d. A ring and tightening hardware are applied.

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What do Dewar containers hold?

a. Bulk amounts of distilled spirits.
b. Substances that cannot come into contact with foodstuffs.
c. Anything that is transported by passenger jet.
d. Cryogenic liquids.

d. Cryogenic liquids

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What is the expansion ratio of cryogenic helium?

a. 1500:1
b. 750:1
c. 300:1
d. 19:1

b. 750:1

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What is the function of a Dewar container?

a. To keep contents hot
b. To minimize sloshing of contents
c. To keep contents cold
d. To hold contents in negative pressure

c. To keep contents cold

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Closed-head drums usually have bungs of what size?

a. 12 inches
b. 8 inches
c. 6 inches
d. 2 inches

d. 2 inches

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A thick glass carboy protected by a wooden or foam crate will typically contain:

a. flammable liquids.
b. pesticides.
c. strong bases.
d. strong acids.

d. strong acids.

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What is the maximum design pressure, in pounds per square inch, for a large, fixed-site, compressed-gas cylinder?

a. Up to 2000
b. 5000 or more
c. Between 10,000 and 15,000
d. Up to and over 15,000

b. 5000 or more

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What type of container holds cryogens?

a. Carboy
b. Pressure stick
c. Dewar container
d. Vacuum tube

c. Dewar container

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If a volume of cryogenic helium is allowed to warm and vaporize entirely in its container, what kind of pressure (in pounds per square inch) could it generate?

a. 800
b. 2500
c. 14,500
d. 125,000

c. 14,500

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If the load contains more than one hazard class, what type of placard might be used during transport?

a. Warning
b. Caution
c. Other regulated material
d. Dangerous

d. Dangerous

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What is the Department of Transportation’s hazard class for flammable liquids?

a. Class 1
b. Class 2
c. Class 3
d. Class 4

c. Class 3

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What does the red diamond on the NFPA 704 symbol indicate?

a. Flammability
b. Instability
c. Special Hazards
d. Health

a. Flammability

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What does the yellow diamond on the NFPA 704 symbol indicate?

a. Flammability
b. Instability
c. Special Hazards
d. Health

b. Instability

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What does the white diamond on the NFPA 704 symbol indicate?

a. Flammability
b. Instability
c. Special Hazards
d. Health

c. Special hazards

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On an NFPA 704 symbol, what number indicates the greatest hazard?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

d. 4

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What is the term for shipping documentation carried on railroad transportation?

a. Waybill
b. Air bill
c. Dangerous cargo manifest
d. Bill of lading

a. Waybill

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What is the term for shipping documentation carried on marine vessels?

a. Waybill
b. Manifest
c. Consist
d. Bill of lading

b. Manifest

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For air transportation, where would a fire fighter locate the air bill?

a. Wheel well
b. Cargo area
c. Cockpit
d. Entrance door

c. Cockpit

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What does the “R” stand for in “ERG”?

a. Radiological
b. Response
c. Region
d. Rules

b. Response

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Which section of the ERG contains the Table of Initial Isolation and Protective Action Distances?

A. Green
B. Yellow
C. Blue
D. Orange

A. Green

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Which is a detailed profile of a chemical or chemical mixture provided by the manufacturer?

A. Local emergency response plan (LERP)
B. Emergency Response Guide (ERG)
C. Safety data sheet (SDS)
D. NFPA 49 (Hazardous Chemicals Data)

C. Safety data sheet (SDS)

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What is the acronym for the detailed profile of a single chemical or mixture that is provided by the manufacturer and/or supplier of a chemical and is collected by the LEPC in a jurisdiction?

A. INSECT
B. SDS
C. UNLOCK
D. ANDS

B. SDS

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What is the process by which hazardous materials enter the body by permeating the skin?

A. Absorption
B. Ingestion
C. Injection
D. Inhalation

A. Absorption

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What is the process by which chemicals enter the body through the gastrointestinal tract?

A. Absorption
B. Ingestion
C. Injection
D. Inhalation

B. Ingestion

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What is the first priority on any hazardous materials incident?

A. Safety of responders
B. Rescue of victims
C. Stoppage of leak
D. Confinement of material

A. Safety of responders

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In the yellow- and blue-bordered sections of the ERG, how are materials that are included in the Table of Initial Isolation and Protective Distances identified?

A. They are in bold print.
B. They are italicized.
C. They are highlighted.
D. They are underlined.

C. They are highlighted

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Materials are listed in the green section of the ERG because of their:

A flammability or explosion hazard.
B. toxicity.
C. reactivity.
D. instability .

B. toxicity.

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In the ERG, the Initial Isolation and Protective Action Distances are found on pages that have ___________ borders.

A red
B. yellow
C. blue
D. green

D. green

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What term does the ERG use for the distance from a spill or leak that all persons should be evacuated in all directions?

A. Exclusion zone
B. Protective area
C. Contaminated area
D. Initial isolation zone

D. Initial isolation zone

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What does the term isolation mean, as it applies to hazardous materials response strategy?

A. Taking steps to control the direction of a material release and minimize downwind exposures.
B. Using appropriate PPE to prevent direct contact with the material.
C. Preventing the spread of a material beyond a specified zone or perimeter
D. Keeping responders and the public a safe distance away from the hazard

D. Keeping responders and the public a safe distance away from the hazard

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What kind of container holds from 5 to 15 gallons of corrosive liquid?

A. Bung
B. Dewar flask
C. Carboy
D. Tote bag

C. Carboy

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Which of the following is a significant drawback to using the senses to detect the presence of hazardous materials?

A. They are unreliable.
B. They become insensitive with prolonged exposure.
C. Sensory inputs are easily confused.
D. Their use involves potential exposure to the hazard.

D. Their use involves potential exposure to the hazard.

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Pipeline warning signs include a warning symbol, the pipeline owner’s name, and a(n):

A. United Nations identification number.
B. emergency contact number.
C. ERG guide number.
D. hazard statement.

B. emergency contact number.

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What is the Department of Transportation’s hazard class for explosives?

A. Class 1
B. Class 2
C. Class 3
D. Class 4

A. Class 1

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What is the term for the process by which chemicals are brought into the body through an open cut?

A. Absorption
B. Ingestion
C. Injection
D. Inhalation

C. Injection

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On an NFPA 704 symbol, what does a W with a slash through it (W) indicate?

A. Water reactive
B. Wetting agent
C. Extinguish with water
D. Use water for decontamination

A. Water reactive

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What is the term for shipping documentation carried on road and highway transportation vehicles?

A. Waybill
B. Consist
C. Dangerous cargo manifest
D. Bill of lading

D. Bill of lading

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Which section of the ERG would a fire fighter use when he or she knows the chemical name of the hazardous material?

A. Green
B. Yellow
C. Blue
D. Orange

C. Blue

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What is the process by which toxic substances are brought into the body through the respiratory system?

A. Absorption
B. Ingestion
C. Injection
D. Inhalation

D. Inhalation

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The ERG refers to the ___________ as the area downwind of the spill or leak where steps must be taken to protect the public.

A. evacuation area
B. protective action distance
C. initial isolation zone
D. exclusion zone

B. protective action distance

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Closed-head drums have a permanently attached lid with one or more small openings. What are these small openings called?

A. Bungs
B. Ports
C. Bobs
D. Eyes

A. Bungs

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What would be a typical pressure reading, in pounds per square inch, on a standard oxygen cylinder used in the medical field?

A. 20,000
B. 2000
C. 200
D. 20

B. 2000

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What is the term for gaseous substances that have been chilled until they liquefy?

A. Antigens
B. Thermogens
C. Cryogens
D. Barogens

C. Cryogens

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Which statement about drum construction is correct?

A. Regulations pertaining to drum construction vary by state.
B. The National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health establishes specifications for drum construction.
C. By international treaty, all drums everywhere are made of the same materials and in the same way.
D. Construction is determined by the type of material it will contain.

D. Construction is determined by the type of material it will contain.

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What is the Department of Transportation’s hazard class for toxic substances?

A. 8
B. 6
C. 4
D. 1

B. 6

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Where must placards be located on highway transport vehicles, railcars, and other forms of transportation carrying hazardous materials?

A. Top
B. Front and back
C. All four sides
D. Not required

C. All four sides

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What does the blue diamond on the NFPA 704 symbol indicate?

A. Flammability
B. Instability
C. Special hazards
D. Health hazard

D. Health hazard

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The military hazardous materials/WMD marking system is based on \_\_\_\_\_\_ hazards.
A.	detonation and exposure
B.	detonation and fire
C.	exposure and fire
D.	explosion and detonation

B. detonation and fire

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Which of the following is the best source of basic information about the chemical make-up of a substance, the potential hazards it presents, appropriate first aid, and other pertinent safe-handling data?

A. Cargo manifest
B. ERG
C. Safety data sheet
D. Shipping papers

C. Safety data sheet

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Which section of the ERG would a fire fighter use when he or she knows the chemical identification number of the hazardous material?

A. Green
B. Yellow
C. Blue
D. Orange

B. Yellow

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Which of the following is a commonly used resource to determine the size of a vapor cloud?

A. Scientific functions-capable calculator
B. Specialized computer software
C. Preincident plan
D. GPS triangulation

B. Specialized computer software

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What is the purpose of a secondary device?

A. Initiate detonation of the primary device
B. Kill and injure emergency personnel
C. Act as backup in case of failure of the primary device
D. Create misdirection or a diversion

B. Kill and injure emergency personnel

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What does the letter A stand for in the EVADE acronym?

A. Avoid touching anything that might conceal an explosive device
B. Assist victims cautiously
C. Assess the scene for likely locations of secondary devices
D. Assume the presence of a secondary device at all scenes

A. Avoid touching anything that might conceal an explosive device

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What does the EVADE acronym address?

A. Decontamination
B. Nerve agent poisoning
C. Scene assessment
D. Secondary devices

D. Secondary devices

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What does the letter D stand for in the EVADE acronym?

A. Deny entry
B. Do not become part of the problem
C. Designate and enforce scene control zones
D. Dike, dam, dilute, and divert

C. Designate and enforce scene control zones

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How large must the capacity of a liquid storage container be to qualify as a bulk storage container?

A. More than 119 gallons
B. More than 499 gallons
C. 1000 gallons or more
D. 2500 gallons or more

A. More than 119 gallons

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Are intermodal tanks shipping or storage vehicles?

A. They are neither shipping nor storage vehicles.
B. Shipping
C. Storage
D. They can be either shipping or storage vehicles.

D. They can be either shipping or storage vehicles.

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Are intermodal tanks pressurized or nonpressurized?

A. They are neither pressurized nor nonpressurized.
B. They can be either pressurized or nonpressurized.
C. Pressurized only
D. Nonpressurized only

B. They can be either pressurized or nonpressurized.

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What is one type of intermodal tank designation?
A.	TXD-IM-3
B.	U-Z751
C.	IM-101
D.	Type 7

C. IM-101

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What is the term for an engineered catch basin around a 5000-gallon liquid container that is designed to contain the product if the container fails?

A. Auxiliary diking
B. Moller wall
C. Confinement barrier
D. Secondary containment

D. Secondary containment

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Bulk storage containers can be:

A. pressurized.
B. nonpressurized.
C. either pressurized or nonpressurized.
D. neither pressurized nor nonpressurized.

C. either pressurized or nonpressurized.

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What do large, above-ground, horizontal storage tanks typically hold?

A. Nonflammable liquids
B. Silica or aluminum grains
C. Flammable or combustible liquefied gas
D. Liquid foodstuffs, such as milk or juice

C. Flammable or combustible liquefied gas

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13 . How many gallons can be stored in pressurized horizontal tanks?

A. 10 or less
B. 10 to 100
C. 100 to 1000
D. More than 1000

D. More than 1000

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What is the purpose of the rings around an MC-312 corrosives tanker ?

A. Cooling
B. Heating
C. Structural stability
D. Vapor collection

C. Structural stability

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What is the approximate maximum capacity, in gallons, of a rail tank car?

A. 10,000
B. 15,000
C. 20,000
D. 40,000

D. 40,000

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Which type of railcar design should a fire fighter be able to identify?

A. Carboy
B. Ballast regulator
C. Mixed cargo
D. Special use

D. Special use

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How large must the internal capacity of a solids storage container be to qualify as a bulk storage container?

A. More than 351 pounds
B. More than 405 pounds
C. More than 599 pounds
D. More than 882 pounds

D. More than 882 pounds

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What is the small area of vapor space above the liquid in tanks?

A. Neutral air
B. Pressure relief space
C. Expansion space
D. Headspace

D. Headspace

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Nonpressurized horizontal storage tanks are typically made of:

A. steel .
B. zinc.
C. manganese .
D . iron.

A. steel .

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Which of the following is an identifying characteristic of pressurized horizontal tanks?

A. Red stenciling
B. Wheels at one end
C. Access hatches down the side
D. Rounded ends

D. Rounded ends

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About how much, in gallons, do intermodal tanks hold?

A. 60,000
B. 6000
C. 600
D. 60

B. 6000

What do intermodal tanks look like?

A. Round horizontal tanks in a boxlike steel framework
B. Similar to a standard MC-306 over-the-road trailer
C. Car-sized rectangular boxes
D. Short, squat, round tanks, chest-high, with a lifting ring at the top

A. Round horizontal tanks in a boxlike steel framework

Which of the following materials is most likely to be transported in a highway tanker that is narrower than most tankers and has several reinforcing rings around the circumference?

A. Petroleum products
B. Nonpotable water
C. Concentrated sulfuric acid
D. Rebar

C. Concentrated sulfuric acid

What do tube trailers carry?

A. Lengths of pipe
B. Lengths of rod
C. Cable
D. Compressed gas

D. Compressed gas

What is the internal working pressure of a pressurized railcar?

A. 100 to 500 pounds per square inch (psi)
B. 500 to 1000 psi
C. 1000 to 2500 psi
D. 5000 to 6000 psi

A. 100 to 500 pounds per square inch (psi)

What free service can be used to connect fire fighters with chemical manufacturers, chemists , and other specialists during a chemical incident?

A. NRC
B. NRTC
C. AMERITEC
D. CHEMTREC

D. CHEMTREC

MC-306 refers to:

A. the tag on gas pumps that states, “This device must start on zero.”
B. the grounding harness woven into gasoline-dispensing device hoses .
C. the test that all gasoline products undergo to determine their octane value .
D. the familiar oval-shaped highway gasoline tanker.

D. the familiar oval-shaped highway gasoline tanker.

A fire fighter locates Petri dishes, microscopes, and incubators during a hazardous materials response. These items may be a sign that are being used.

A. chemical agents
B. methamphetamines
C. biological agents
D. radiological agents

C. biological agents

Which of the following is one potential means for dispersing a chemical agent over a wide area?

A. Crop-dusting aircraft
B. Steam radiator
C. Railway tank car
D. 55-gallon drum

A. Crop-dusting aircraft

What kind of agent is anthrax?

A. Blood agent
B. Infectious disease
C. Chemical asphyxiant
D. Neurotransmitter

B. Infectious disease

How many anthrax spores are needed to cause an anthrax infection?

A. 1 to 10
B. 1 00 to 1000
C. 2000 to 4000
D. 8000 to 10,000

D. 8000 to 10,000

How infectious is smallpox?

A It is not at all infectious.
B. It is highly infectious.
C. It can be infectious, but only in warm, moist environments.
D. It can be infectious, but only to people with compromised immune systems.

B. It is highly infectious.

What part of the body does bubonic plague attack?

A. Liver and kidneys
B. Lymph nodes
C. Immune system
D. Brain

B. Lymph nodes

To be effective, liquid nerve agents must be in _________ form.

A. dried
B. liquid
C. solid
D. aerosol

D. aerosol

An agent that takes weeks to evaporate is said to be:

A. persistent.
B. stable.
C. volatile.
D. hydrogenated.

A. persistent.

What medical intervention was developed as an antidote to nerve agent exposure?

A. Pam-2
B. DuoDote
C. P-tab
D. Physostigmine

B. DuoDote

If smallpox was eradicated from the world in 1980, why is it a threat today?

A. It was premature to declare eradication in 1980.
B. It has a spore form that can lie dormant for a decade or more.
C. It was not eradicated; rather everyone was either immune or vaccinated.
D. Some countries kept samples of it alive.

D. Some countries kept samples of it alive.

What is the most common method of transporting hazardous materials?

A. Rail
B. Road
C. Air
D. Sea

B. Road

Which tanker is used to transport cryogenic materials?

A. MC-306
B. MC-312
C. MC-331
D. MC-338

D. MC-338

If a victim is twitching, what agent would you suspect he or she has been exposed to?

A. Nerve
B. Blister
C. Biological
D. Choking

A. Nerve

Which of the following is a more effective method to disperse a nerve agent such as VX?

A. Pour on the floor
B. Leave in an open container
C. Aerosolize
D. Pour onto a porous surface

C. Aerosolize

Where is the bacterium that causes plague commonly found?

A. On rodents
B. In rotting wood
C. In decomposing animals
D. In animal stool

A. On rodents

A _____ team conducts a quick evaluation of the area to identify the number of people involved.

A. recon
B. rescue
C. survey
D. search

A. recon

Drums, bags, and carboys are examples of containers.

A. non-bulk
B. bulk
C. flammable-materials
D. dry-bulk

A. non-bulk

What is distinctive about IMO type 5 containers?

A. They are open to the air.
B. They are vacuum containers.
C. They are high-pressure vessels.
D. They are designed for prolonged immersion in saltwater.

C. They are high-pressure vessels.

A _____________ is bulk storage vessel, described as a portable plastic tank surrounded by a stainless steel web, that can hold a few hundred gallons.

A. cistern
B. vault
C. tote
D. magazine

C. tote

Which of the following is contagious?

A. Smallpox
B. Anthrax
C. Bubonic plague
D. Bacillus

A. Smallpox

Packing radioactive material around an explosive device creates what is known as a _________ bomb.

A. rad
B. truck
C. dirty
D. neutron

C. dirty

The _____ is the time period between infection and when a person first begins to show symptoms.

A. latent period
B. dormancy period
C. metastatic period
D. incubation period

D. incubation period

Under what circumstances is it sufficient to rely on odor to detect a chemical agent?

A. Under no circumstances
B. Only when the agent is known to be larger than 2 microns
C. When the agent is a known, familiar substance
D. When the agent is an odorized gas, such as natural gas

A. Under no circumstances

How do the pupils present in victims of nerve agent exposure?

A. Widely dilated
B. Normal
C. Unequal
D. Pinpoint

D. Pinpoint

When should fire fighters handle a potentially explosive device?

A. When doing so will eliminate a threat to life
B. Only when the building cannot be evacuated easily
C. At no time
D. Only when the timer is visible and the bomb squad clearly will not arrive in time

C. At no time

When responding to a terrorist event, you should be particularly alert for the possibility of:

A. secondary events designed to harm or hamper emergency responders.
B. the use of sets and accelerants.
C. the occurrence of backdrafts, BLEVEs, or other unusual events. D signs and symptoms of critical incident stress.

A. secondary events designed to harm or hamper emergency responders

What type of radiation packaging provides the least protection?

A. Type A
B. Type B
C. Type C
D. TypeD

A. Type A

What mnemonic helps fire fighters remember the seven symptoms of nerve agent exposure?

A WAFFLES
B. PANOPRY
C. SLUDGEM
D. CALLUPP

C. SLUDGEM

Which tanker is used to transport ammonia, butane, or propane?

A. MC-306
B. MC-312
C. MC-331
D. MC-338

C. MC-331

Early responders should establish a plan for decontamination at:

A. incidents involving gases or vapors.
B. incidents that will likely involve direct contact with the material.
C. incidents involving offensive operations.
D. all incidents.

D. all incidents.

Which of the following is a critical factor in determining the appropriate level of PPE?

A. The experience of the fire fighters on hand
B. The availability of protective gear
C. The physical state and characteristics of the material
D. The responders’ experience with this material

C. The physical state and characteristics of the material

Which of the following is a defensive action?

A. Plugging
B. Patching
C. Diking
D. Product transfer

C. Diking

Which of the following values is the maximum concentration to which an adult can be exposed 8 hours per day, 40 hours per week?

A. Time-weighted average
B. Long-term exposure limit
C. Working exposure limit
D. Ceiling level

A. Time-weighted average

The _____ threshold limit value sets a maximum concentration above which no exposure of any duration should be permitted.

A. ceiling
B. maximum exposure limit
C. short-term exposure limit
D. permissible exposure limit

A. ceiling

If it is necessary to isolate a hazardous materials incident , it will also be necessary to:

A. take protective actions .
B. deny entry.
C. contain the material.
D. evacuate.

B. deny entry.

What is the term for the amount of solute dissolved in a given amount of solution?

A. Dispersion
B. Concentration
C. Diffusion
D. pH

B. Concentration

A Level _________ chemical-protective suit is designed to protect the wearer from gases, vapors, and liquids.

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

A. A

Level _______ protective equipment is required when working with highly toxic vapors .

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

A. A

________ is the most important element of PPE for hazardous materials responders.

A. Vapor protection
B. Respiratory protection
C. Splash protection
D. Thermal protection

B. Respiratory protection

What is a primary advantage of a supplied-air respirator?

A. Reduces weight and bulk for the wearer
B. Provides greater mobility
C. Is less susceptible to mechanical damage
D. Eliminates the need to carry an air cylinder

A. Reduces weight and bulk for the wearer

Which of the following statements about air-purifying respirators is correct?

A. They are supplied by a low-pressure hose connected to a remote air supply .
B. A filter must be selected based on the specific contaminant.
C. They use a closed-circuit system.
D. The catalytic type may be used in low oxygen.

B. A filter must be selected based on the specific contaminant.

Which type of breathing apparatus is equipped with an escape cylinder?

A. Supplied-air respirator
B. Powered air-purifying respirator
C. Closed-circuit SCBA
D. Open-circuit SCBA

A. Supplied-air respirator

What is the term for a person having a radioactive material on his or her clothing?

A. Exposure
B. Contamination
C. Absorption
D. Contact

B. Contamination

A fully encapsulated suit is part of Level _________ protective clothing.

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

A. A

Relocation of people who are threatened by a potential hazard is called:

A. evacuation.
B. isolation.
C. decontamination.
D. rescue.

A. evacuation.

How can a thermal imaging camera be useful at a hazardous materials spill?

A. To detect the direction of travel of a plume
B. To predict the direction of travel of vapor or smoke
C. To indicate the level of material remaining in a container
D. To assist in material identification

C. To indicate the level of material remaining in a container

For which situation will structural firefighting protective clothing provide you with adequate protection?

A. When you will be exposed to splashes of the material
B. When you will have to handle the material
C. When there are high atmospheric concentrations of the material
D. None of these is correct.

D. None of these is correct.

The use of Level _____ protective clothing should be used only in situations where there is no atmospheric hazard.

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

D. D

Which is the best example of secondary contamination?

A. Exposure to alpha radiation from broken transport packaging
B. Contact occurring during operations by emergency personnel to resolve the incident
C. Contact with material outside of its containment vessel or packaging
D. Contact with runoff from firefighting operations on an ignited material

D. Contact with runoff from firefighting operations on an ignited material

Which function should occur in the warm zone?

A. Command post
B. Decontamination corridor
C. Triage area
D. Staging area

B. Decontamination corridor

What does the abbreviation TLV stand for?

A. Type limit variable
B. Total limit viability
C. Time length variable
D. Threshold limit value

D. Threshold limit value

What can be used to determine the pH of a hazardous material?

A. Litmus paper
B. Organic paper
C. M-8 paper
D. M-9 tape

A. Litmus paper

What is the most effective way to maintain the security of an isolation perimeter?

A. Posting security personnel
B. Placing traffic cones, signage, and barrier tape
C. Erecting barricades
D. Using emergency vehicles to block access points

A. Posting security personnel

What service does the NFPA perform with regard to hazardous materials PPE?

A. Creates standards
B. Performs testing and certification
C. Recommends usage
D. All of these are correct.

A. Creates standards

_______ offer(s) recommendations for levels of hazardous materials PPE to be used under specific conditions.

A. HAZWOPER regulations, Appendix B
B. Emergency Response Guide (ERG)
C. NFPA standards
D. Material safety data sheets

A. HAZWOPER regulations, Appendix B

A proximity suit is designed for:

A. limited exposures to high temperatures.
B. protection from radiological hazards.
C. protection from both chemical and heat hazards.
D. hazardous materials support work, such as decontamination.

A. limited exposures to high temperatures.

You have responded to a hazardous materials incident involving a substance that has been positively identified. It is determined that this substance is harmful by inhalation but not by skin contact. What is the minimum level of PPE for this situation?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

B. B

What is the highest level of chemical protective clothing that permits the use of an air purifying respirator?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

C. C

Which form of decontamination typically consists of removing contaminated clothing and dousing the victim with large volumes of water?

A. Technical
B. Mass
C. Emergency
D. Formal

C. Emergency

A victim of a motor vehicle accident involving hazardous materials is transported by ambulance to a hospital. This action will result in of ambulance personnel and the medical care facility.

A. exposure
B. contamination
C. secondary contamination
D. infection

C. secondary contamination

Which of the following statements about positive-pressure self-contained breathing apparatus is correct?

A. They are also known as “rebreathers.”
B. They filter and condition atmospheric air for breathing.
C. They prevent exposure by ingestion as well as by inhalation.
D. They use compressed or liquid oxygen.

C. They prevent exposure by ingestion as well as by inhalation.

How does a closed-circuit SCBA operate?

A. Fresh air is supplied by one tank, and exhaled air is stored in another tank.
B. Exhaled carbon dioxide reacts with a catalyst to produce oxygen.
C. Exhaled breath is released to the atmosphere.
D. All inhaled and exhaled gas stays within the system.

D. All inhaled and exhaled gas stays within the system.

What does the C in CBRN stand for?

A. Chemical
B. Communication
C. Corrosive
D. Contact

A. Chemical

How is the concentration of a gas typically expressed?

A. Parts per million (PPM)
B. As a percentage
C. pH
D. Units of weight per unit of volume

B. As a percentage

Which of the following terms refers to assessing what is happening at the scene and then using that information to devise a plan of action?

A. Hazard assessment
B. Size-up
C. Evaluation
D. Command

B. Size-up

Which of the following is the starting point for making plans to bring an emergency situation under control?

A. Size-up
B. Salvage
C. Forcible entry
D. Ventilation

A. Size-up

At a hazardous materials incident, a hazardous materials safety officer, a decontamination team, and a hot zone entry team would report directly to the:

A. safety officer.
B. planning section chief
C. technical unit leader.
D. hazardous materials branch director.

D. hazardous materials branch director.

What serves as the collection point for all information and resources?

A. Incident command post
B. Liaison officer
C. Staging
D. Communication center

A. Incident command post

What is the first step after determining that a hazardous material is present?

A. Establish control of the scene.
B. Look up the substance in the ERG.
C. Call CHEMTREC)
D. Rescue endangered people.

A. Establish control of the scene.

Once you have determined that a substance is leaking from a container, what should you do?

A. Isolate the material.
B. Identify the material .
C. Contain the spill.
D. Consult the ERG .

A. Isolate the material.

What does the term isolation mean as it applies to hazardous materials response ?

A. Taking steps to control the direction of a material and subsequent exposure contact
B. Using appropriate personal protective equipment to prevent direct contact with the material
C. Preventing spread of a material beyond a specified zone or perimeter
D. Establishing a perimeter around the incident and controlling access

D. Establishing a perimeter around the incident and controlling access

What is the purpose of a control zone?

A. To mark the transition from the cold zone into the warm zone
B. To prevent access by unauthorized personnel into the emergency scene
C. To mark the transition from the warm zone into the hot zone
D. To prevent spread of material from inside the perimeter to outside the perimeter

B. To prevent access by unauthorized personnel into the emergency scene

Where in the ERG can you find evacuation distances for small spills or fires ?

A. In the orange-bordered pages
B. In the Material Name Index
C. In the Emergency Response Index
D. In the green-bordered pages

A. In the orange-bordered pages

Which job function is part of the ICS command staff?

A. Support
B. Service
C. Public information
D. Communication

C. Public information

Which job function is part of the ICS command staff?

A. Operations
B. Liaison
C. Resource
D. Agency representative

B. Liaison

The safety officer position is part of which ICS organizational element?

A. Medical unit
B. Operations section
C. Safety branch
D. Command staff

D. Command staff

The individuals on the command staff report directly to the :

A. staging manager.
B. operations section chief
C. planning director.
D. incident commander.

D. incident commander.

The _________ is responsible for monitoring activities to ensure the safety of personnel.

A. operations section chief
B. safety officer
C. medical officer
D. compensation/claims unit leader

B. safety officer

Which position has the authority to immediately terminate any unsafe work practice?

A. Safety officer
B. Medical unit leader
C. Division or group supervisor
D. All of these are correct.

A. Safety officer

In the ICS, the __________ is the point of contact for representatives from outside agencies.

A. public information officer
B. liaison officer
C. staging area manager
D. incident commander

B. liaison officer

Which position serves as a point of contact between the ICS and the news media?

A. Media unit leader
B. Liaison officer
C. Company officer
D. Public information officer

D. Public information officer

The operations function is part of which ICS organizational element?

A. General staff
B. Tactical group
C. Unified command
D. Command staff

A. General staff

The planning section is part of which ICS element?

A. Command staff
B. General staff
C. Logistics section
D. Sit-stat group

B. General staff

When should divisions and groups be established?

A. When the number of resources exceeds manageable span of control
B. When the incident extends beyond the initial operational period
C. When the incident is not readily divided either functionally or geographically
D. When the incident straddles jurisdictional boundaries

A. When the number of resources exceeds manageable span of control

What is the ICS term for a functionally defined area of operations?

A. Branch
B. Sector
C. Division
D. Group

D. Group

What is the ICS term for a geographically defined area of operations?

A. Group
B. Division
C. Sector
D. Branch

B. Division

Which element is between a section and a division on the ICS organizational chart?

A. Branch
B. Group
C. Unit
D. Strike team

A. Branch

The hazardous materials branch director reports to the:

A. incident commander.
B. operations section chief
C. logistics section chief
D. resource unit leader.

B. operations section chief

Which ICS section is responsible for the collection, evaluation, dissemination, and use of information relevant to the incident?

A. Strategy
B. Staging
C. Planning
D. Logistics

C. Planning

Which ICS section tracks the status of incident resources?

A. Logistics
B. Planning
C. Staging
D. Documentation

B. Planning

Which ICS section is responsible for providing needed services, facilities, supplies, and other forms of support?

A. Planning
B. Logistics
C. Resources
D. Facilities

B. Logistics

An intrinsically safe electrical device is one that:

A. will not ignite a flammable atmosphere.
B. meets or exceeds NFPA standards.
C. is safe for use around or in water.
D. is electrically fully isolated.

A. will not ignite a flammable atmosphere.

Which control zone immediately surrounds the contaminated area?

A. Red
B. Target
C. Restricted
D. Hot

D. Hot

Which function should occur in the warm zone?

A. Command post
B. Decontamination corridor
C. Triage area
D. Staging area

B. Decontamination corridor

The area that is accessed in the warm zone is the:

A. support.
B. decontamination corridor.
C. exclusion.
D. isolation perimeter.

B. decontamination corridor.

A minimum of __________ personnel is necessary to perform work in the hot zone.

A. two
B. four
C. six
D. eight

A. two

Levels of contaminant necessitate that you wear PPE while performing an evacuation. Which operational mode is this?

A. Rescue
B. Offensive
C. Defensive
D. Evacuation

A. Rescue

When people are being sheltered-in-place, what should be done with the ventilation system?

A. It should be turned off.
B. It should be set to recirculate.
C. It should be set to evacuate.
D. It should be set to fresh air exchange.

A. It should be turned off.

Weakness, dizziness, and sweating are typical of heat:

A. exhaustion.
B. stroke.
C. cramps.
D. exposure.

A. exhaustion.

Which of the following is a recommended treatment for heat exhaustion?

A. No intervention is necessary.
B. Perform rapid cooling by any means available.
C. Give drinks high in glucose.
D. Remove the patient from the heat source.

D. Remove the patient from the heat source.

What is a typical symptom of heat stroke’)

A. Cessation of sweating
B. Profuse sweating
C. Cold, clammy skin
D. Weak pulse

A. Cessation of sweating

_______ is a primary influence on the development of cold-related injuries.

A. Humidity
B. Dew point
C. Precipitation
D. Wind speed

D. Wind speed

Softened, numb, peeling skin as a result of wearing wet socks for a long period of time could result in:

A. trench foot.
B. frost nip.
C. chilblains.
D. hypothermia.

D. hypothermia.

Karen Note… Look this up, It’s gotta be A trench foot

The number of people that one person can supervise effectively is known as:

A. unit integrity.
B. division of labor.
C. unity of command.
D. span of control.

D. span of control.

ICS was developed in response to:

A. the September 11, 2001, attack on the World Trade Center.
B. a series of fires in California in the 1970s.
C. Hurricane Katrina.
D. Hurricane Andrew.

B. a series of fires in California in the 1970s.

Which of the following is one of the key benefits of using ICS?

A. Common terminology
B. Reciprocal aid agreements
C. Decentralized command authority
D. Scalar organization

A. Common terminology

During hazardous materials incidents, OSHA does not permit the incident commander and the positions to be filled by the same person.

A. operations section chief
B. safety officer
C. planning section chief
D. hazardous materials branch director

B. safety officer

Which of the following is one of the initial actions responders should take at a hazardous materials incident ?

A. Initiate
B. Investigate
C. Indicate
D. Isolate

D. Isolate

What term refers to when a person’s internal body temperature falls below 95°F?

A. Hypoglycemia
B. Hypothermia
C. Hyperactivity
D. Hypertempura

B. Hypothermia

Hot, dry, red skin is most typical of heat:

A. exhaustion.
B. stroke.
C. cramps.
D. rash.

B. stroke.

Which resource gives information on the necessary initial distances of evacuation for hazardous materials incidents?

A. USFA Table 1.6
B. ERG
C. Wilt evacuation distances wheel
D. Both NFPA 1001 and NFPA 1003

B. ERG

Which of the following is one of the general staff positions of the ICS?

A. Logistics
B. Information
C. Strategy
D. Liaison

A. Logistics

Which of the following is one of the key benefits of using ICS?

A. Manpower sharing
B. Mutual aid agreements
C. Consistent organizational structure
D. Standard operating procedures

C. Consistent organizational structure

What is the first priority during any hazardous materials incident?

A. Ensuring life safety
B. Rescuing victims
C. Stopping material release
D. Minimizing exposure

A. Ensuring life safety

In the sequence of evacuation, when is the safe area selected and arranged?

A. Concurrently with the issuing of the evacuation order
B. Within 30 minutes of giving the evacuation order
C. Not until everyone is first out of the danger area
D. Before the evacuation order is given

D. Before the evacuation order is given

In which situation is shelter-in-place the best option?

A. The majority of the exposed population is outdoors.
B. The population will be exposed to a slow-spreading toxic plume.
C. A toxic release is probable but has not yet occurred.
D. The exposed population consists of patients in a healthcare facility.

D. The exposed population consists of patients in a healthcare facility.

Which of the following is one of the “shuns” of evacuation?

A. Evaluation
B. Information
C. Habitation
D. Persuasion

C. Habitation

Which of the following is one of the command staff functions of the ICS?

A. Safety
B. Planning
C. Resources
D. Recovery

A. Safety

Typical span of control is __________ subordinates to one supervisor.

A. three
B. four
C. five
D. six

C. five

What is heat stroke?

A. High body temperature due to failure of the body’s heat-regulating systems
B. A coma brought on by fluid and electrolyte depletion
C. Hypotension caused by the pooling of blood near the skin as the body tries to cool itself
D. Interruption of blood supply to some parts of the brain as a result of overheating

A. High body temperature due to failure of the body’s heat-regulating systems

________ refers to when a responder protects people from a hazardous materials incident by keeping them in a safe atmosphere without evacuating them.

A. Zone exclusion
B. Shelter-in-place
C. Straddling the warm zone
D. Modular local protection

B. Shelter-in-place

Which function should occur in the cold zone?

A. Forward access point
B. Safe haven
C. Personnel staging
D. Decontamination corridor

C. Personnel staging

In general, a hazardous material in a ___________ state will usually require the largest hot zone.

A. liquid
B. gas
C. solid
D. particulate

B. gas

Which ICS section is responsible for the accounting and financial aspects of an incident?

A. Cost unit
B. Finance /administration
C. Planning
D. Logistics

B. Finance /administration

When are branches established?

A. When the number of groups and divisions exceeds span of control
B. When both divisions and groups must report to the same supervisor
C. When the incident is not readily divided either functionally or geographically
D. When both groups and divisions are established for the same incident

A. When the number of groups and divisions exceeds span of control

At hazardous materials incidents, an assistant safety officer may be appointed within the hazardous materials group or branch. For whose safety is this second safety officer responsible?

A. The response team
B. The civilians at risk
C. Everyone present
D. The hazardous materials branch/group

D. The hazardous materials branch/group

Smoke exposure causes _________ health effects.

A. chronic
B. acute
C. no
D. acute and chronic

D. acute and chronic

Who is responsible for establishing rules about self-contained breathing apparatus use?

A. OSHA
B. Shift captain
C. Authority having jurisdiction
D. NFPA

C. Authority having jurisdiction

__________ substances ignite and burn fast.

A. Liquid
B. Synthetic
C. Natural
D. None of these is correct

B. Synthetic

Hydrogen cyanide affects:

A. red blood cells.
B. white blood cells.
C. stem cells.
D. brain cells .

A. red blood cells.

Carbon monoxide is described as having:

A. the odor of freshly mown grass.
B. no odor and no taste.
C. the odor of almonds.
D. a fruity odor and taste .

B. no odor and no taste.

Hypoxia is defined as:

A. losing the ability to smell some types of odors.
B. losing the capability of transporting oxygen in the blood.
C. losing the capability of inhaling oxygen.
D. gaining oxygen in the blood.

B. losing the capability of transporting oxygen in the blood.

Which of the following converts nutrients into energy-yielding molecules of adenosine triphosphate to fuel the cell’ s activities?

A. Mitochondria
B. Morbidity
C. Adenosine
D. Hypoxia

A. Mitochondria

Signs and symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning are:

A. shallow breathing and slow heart rate.
B. rapid heart rate and rapid breathing.
C. headache, nausea, and disorientation.
D. flushed skin, backache, and a tingling sensation in extremities.

C. headache, nausea, and disorientation.

Who should be wearing self-contained breathing apparatus?

A. Anyone who is in contact with the products of combustion
B. Only interior fire fighters
C. Exterior fire fighters
D. Only the lead fire fighter

A. Anyone who is in contact with the products of combustion

Which type of meter or monitoring device has the quickest response time?

A. Photoionization detector
B. Electrochemical sensor
C. Lower explosive limit sensor
D. Colorimetric tube

A. Photoionization detector

The concept of IDLH refers to:

A. an immediate threat to life or interference with the ability to escape the atmosphere.
B. permissible exposure limits for a 30-minute time period.
C. recommended limits of exposure over an 8-hour shift.
D. recommended limits for a 10-hour exposure.

A. an immediate threat to life or interference with the ability to escape the atmosphere.

Common sensors in a multigas meter are:

A. oxygen, carbon monoxide, and gasoline sensors.
B. oxygen, hydrogen sulfide, and lower explosive limit sensors.
C. oxygen, hydrogen cyanide, and carbon monoxide sensors.
D. oxygen and lower explosive limit and carbon monoxide sensors.

B. oxygen, hydrogen sulfide, and lower explosive limit sensors.

In the face of smoke inhalation, which of the following is an acceptable antidote to administer if you suspect hydrogen cyanide poisoning?

A. Sodium hydroxide
B. Amyl nitrite
C. Methylene blue
D. Hydroxocobalamin

B. Amyl nitrite

Hydrogen cyanide interrupts oxygenation at the level.

A. cellular
B. liver
C. thyroid
D. glandular

A. cellular

What is the term for depriving oxygen to the body at the cellular level?

A. Mitochondria
B. Morbidity
C. Adenosine
D. Hypoxia

D. Hypoxia

Self-contained breathing apparatus should be worn at a fire scene until:

A. the fire is extinguished.
B. the smoke has dissipated.
C. all excess heat is gone.
D. fire monitoring has been completed.

D. fire monitoring has been completed.

Following suspected exposure to hydrogen cyanide, at what location should a cyanide antidote kit be administered?

A. Wherever the exposure occurred
B. In a prehospital setting only
C. In a hospital or clinic setting
D. On the fire apparatus

C. In a hospital or clinic setting

What device can significantly add carbon monoxide to a postfire building?

A. Electric smoke ejector
B. Roof ventilation saw
C. Gas-powered positive pressure ventilation fan
D. Battery-operated fan

C. Gas-powered positive pressure ventilation fan

Detection and monitoring should begin:

A. upon arrival on the scene.
B. inside the room of fire origin.
C. outside the building in a clean area.
D. inside the building of fire origin.

C. outside the building in a clean area.

When should metering and monitoring be performed?

A. At the very beginning of the response
B. When the fire is initially attacked
C. When overhaul activities begin
D. Throughout the incident

D. Throughout the incident

Common symptoms of smoke inhalation include:

A. headache and nausea.
B. chills and muscle aches.
C. fever and vision loss.
D. rash and fever.

A. headache and nausea.

Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAH) are compounds that concern responders. PAHs are found in:

A. smoke generated from structure fires.
B. grilled food.
C. tobacco smoke.
D. All of these are correct.

D. All of these are correct.

Monkeys exposed to cyanide lost consciousness at _________ parts per million (ppm).

A. 30
B. 100
C. 200
D. 1240

C. 200

What is the most common source of carbon monoxide?

A. Hydrocarbon vapors
B. Decomposition of organic materials
C. Open drains and sewers
D. Smoke production

D. Smoke production

REL stands for:

A. real exposure limit
B. relative energy level.
C. recommended experience level.
D. relative exposure limit

D. relative exposure limit

Monitors and meters provide information that:

A. is subject to interpretation.
B. is solid and reliable.
C. identifies the specific chemical concentration.
D. is an exact science.

A. is subject to interpretation.

Smoke exposure can be:

A. acute.
B. chronic.
C. cumulative.
D. All of these are correct.

D. All of these are correct.

The majority of chemical-protective clothing is:

A. designed to be disposed of after a single use.
B. fully encapsulated.
C. designed for use on one specific material.
D. reusable.

A. designed to be disposed of after a single use.

Which of the following statements about decontamination of disposable chemical protective equipment is correct?

A. No decontamination is needed prior to disposal.
B. Only gross decontamination is required.
C. Equipment should be decontaminated sufficiently so that removal is safe for the wearer.
D. Decontamination should be thorough and complete.

C. Equipment should be decontaminated sufficiently so that removal is safe for the wearer.

In general, chemical-protective garments should be tested at __________ intervals.

A. 6-month
B. 12-month
C. 18-month
D. 24-month

B. 12-month

Which method is used to test a Level A suit?

A. A reagent solution
B. Ultrasonic scanning
C. Ultraviolet light
D. Pressurization with air

D. Pressurization with air

The level of protection that structural firefighting protective clothing provides first responders at a hazardous materials incident is best described as:

A. excellent.
B. good.
C. limited.
D. nonexistent.

C. limited.

What does the A stand for in TRACEMP?

A. Assessment
B. Asphyxiating
C. Airborne
D. Atmospheric

B. Asphyxiating

What does the E stand for in TRACEMP?

A. Etiological/biological
B. Explosive
C. Evacuation
D. Environment

A. Etiological/biological

What does the P stand for in TRACEMP?

A. Psychogenic
B. Poison
C. Permeation
D. Personal protective equipment

A. Psychogenic

A Level B protective ensemble consists of:

A. full turnouts with self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA).
B. multi-piece chemical protective clothing and SCBA.
C. ordinary work uniform and an air-purifying respirator or powered air-purifying respirator.
D. vapor protection with SCBA.

B. multi-piece chemical protective clothing and SCBA.

____________ is a simple asphyxiant.

A. Nitrogen
B. Carbon monoxide
C. Benzene
D. Hydrazine

A. Nitrogen

What is the subject of the acronym TRACEMP?

A. Methods of terrorist attack
B. Symptoms of radiation sickness
C. Symptoms of chemical agent poisoning
D. Potential types of harm at a hazardous materials incident

D. Potential types of harm at a hazardous materials incident

Chemicals pass into and through a material on a molecular level by:

A. absorption.
B. permeation.
C. diffusion.
D. infiltration .

B. permeation.

What is the process by which a hazardous chemical flows through closures, seams, or pinholes in a material?

A. Leakage
B. Seepage
C. Penetration
D. Intrusion

C. Penetration

What is one drawback of vapor-protective clothing?

A. It must be used with a supplied-air respirator.
B. It does not protect against liquid splashes.
C. It cannot be used in atmospheres that are immediately dangerous to life and health.
D. It retains the wearer’s body heat.

D. It retains the wearer’s body heat.

According to the HAZWOPER regulation, Level ________ is the minimum level of protection to be worn when operating in an unknown environment.

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

B. B

When atmospheric conditions at a hazardous materials incident are unknown , what is the minimum level of respiratory protection for operations level responders?

A. Positive pressure self-contained breathing apparatus
B Air-purifying respirator
C. HEPA filter mask
D. Powered air-purifying respirator

A. Positive pressure self-contained breathing apparatus

When referring to a breathing apparatus, what does the S stand for in SARs?

A. Self
B. Supplemental
C. Simple
D. Supplied

D. Supplied

According to the Environmental Protection Agency classification system, what is the level of protection afforded a suit that fully encapsulates the wearer and includes a self contained breathing apparatus?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

A. A

What is Level D protection?

A. Chemical splash-protective clothing
B. Standard work clothing
C. Any type of clothing worn with respiratory protection
D. Vapor-protective clothing

B. Standard work clothing

Standard firefighting turnouts provide some protection against which forms of radiation?

A. Alpha only
B. Both alpha and beta
C. Gamma only
D. Neither alpha nor gamma

B. Both alpha and beta

Which level of protective equipment permits the use of an air-purifying respirator?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

C. C

Level ________PPE should be used when the hazardous material identified requires the highest level of protection for skin, eyes, and lungs.

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

A. A

High temperature- protective equipment is designed to provide how much protection from hazardous materials?

A. Complete
B. Full liquid splash-protection
C. None
D. Full vapor/gas/mist protection

C. None

Who is qualified to use high temperature-protective clothing?

A. Any fire fighter
B. Fire fighters who are specifically trained in its use
C. Any responder trained and qualified to work in a fully encapsulated suit
D. Hazardous materials specialists and technicians only

B. Fire fighters who are specifically trained in its use

What level of chemical protection should be used only when there is no atmospheric hazard?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

D. D

When doffing the Level C chemical-protective clothing ensemble, what is the last piece of equipment removed?

A. Suit
B. Respirator
C. Gloves
D. Boots

B. Respirator

Which level of PPE is no1mally worn as a work uniform in industrial settings?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

D. D

What chemical-protective clothing is a single-piece garment that totally encloses the wearer?

A. Splash suit
B. Encapsulating suit
C. Proximity suit
D. Chemical-protective suit

B. Encapsulating suit

What does the C stand for in CBRN?

A. Chemical
B. Criminal
C. Containment
D. Command

A. Chemical

What is the NFPA standard on liquid splash-protective clothing for hazardous materials emergencies?

A. 1992
B. 1991
C. 1990
D. 1900

A. 1992

Who has the ultimate authority and responsibility to approve the level of PPE required for a given activity?

A. Hazardous materials branch officer
B. Incident commander
C. Operations officer
D. Safety officer

B. Incident commander

Level ________ PPE should be used only when the atmosphere contains no known
hazard and when there is no potential for splashes, immersion, or inhalation of hazardous levels of chemicals.

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

D. D

What is the primary role of the medical monitoring station?

A. To evaluate the medical status of personnel engaged in operations
B. To develop the incident medical plan
C. To provide treatment for exposed personnel
D. To evaluate and monitor the incident for medical hazards

A. To evaluate the medical status of personnel engaged in operations

When should the pre-entrance medical monitoring be completed?

A. Within the past year
B. Just prior to donning PPE
C. When first reporting for duty
D. Immediately upon arrival

B. Just prior to donning PPE

What is the term for the physical destruction or decomposition of a clothing material due to chemical exposure, general use, or ambient conditions?

A. Disintegration
B. Degradation
C. Deterioration
D. Impregnation

B. Degradation

Which of the following statements about chemical-protective clothing is correct?

A. It must be discarded if contaminated.
B. It must provide thermal protection.
C. It should be disposed of after a single use.
D. The clothing must be compatible with the chemical to which it will be exposed.

D. The clothing must be compatible with the chemical to which it will be exposed.

What is the most common problem associated with wearing chemical-protective clothing?

A. Claustrophobia
B. Heat-related stressors
C. Strains and sprains
D. Abrasions

B. Heat-related stressors

How can you check the compatibility of a particular chemical-protective suit with a specific material?

A. Check the suit’s NFPA PPE classification label.
B. Check the compatibility chart supplied by the manufacturer.
C. Refer to the material compatibility table in the ERG
D. Check the suit’s EPA PPE classification label.

B. Check the compatibility chart supplied by the manufacturer.

A(n) ____________ garment provides full body protection from gases, vapors, and liquids.

A. chemical-protective
B. vapor-protective
C. isolation
D. atmospheric

B. vapor-protective

You have responded to a hazardous materials incident involving a substance that has been positively identified. It is determined that an air-purifying respirator is effective with this substance and that the substance does not present a hazard to exposed skin. What is the minimum level of PPE for this situation?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

C. C

What is a limitation of forced-air cooling systems used with fully encapsulating PPE?

A. Limited operational time
B. Limited mobility
C. Significant added weight
D. Reduced air time

B. Limited mobility

What does the acronym CBRN refer to?

A. Strategic priorities at a hazardous materials incident
B. Signs and symptoms of chemical exposure
C. Types of terrorist attacks
D. Pre-entry checklist items

C. Types of terrorist attacks

Signs that chemical protective clothing is undergoing the process of _________ include discoloration, charring, swelling, and shrinking.

A. degradation
B. corrosion
C. decomposition
D. deterioration

A. degradation

What is the NFPA standard on vapor-protective ensembles for hazardous materials emergencies?

A. 1992
B. 1991
C. 1990
D. 1900

B. 1991

What level of chemical-protective clothing would a fire fighter wear if he or she needed a high level of respiratory protection, but less skin protection?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

B. B

Which cooling technology involves a vest designed to wick perspiration away from the body?

A Forced-air cooling
B. Fluid-chilled systems
C. Phase-change cooling technology
D. Gel-pack vests

C. Phase-change cooling technology

In which hazardous materials situation will structural firefighting protective clothing provide you with adequate protection?

A You will be exposed to splashes of the material.
B. You will have to handle the material.
C. There are high atmospheric concentrations of the material.
D. None of these is correct.

D. None of these is correct.

Which statement about chemical-protective clothing is correct?

A. It must be discarded if contaminated.
B. It must provide thermal protection.
C. It should be disposed of after a single use.
D. It may be either encapsulating or nonencapsulating.

D. It may be either encapsulating or nonencapsulating.

The HAZWOPER regulations are located in:

A. OSHA 29 CFR 1910.120.
B. OSHA 29 CFR 1910.134.
C. NFPA 471.
D. NFPA 1072.

A. OSHA 29 CFR 1910.120.

You are working at a hazardous materials incident. In your position, there is no potential for harmful exposure to the substance. What is the minimum level of PPE for this situation?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

C. C

What distinguishes Level B from Level C protection?

A. Respiratory protection
B. Vapor protection
C. Flame resistance
D. Splash protection

A. Respiratory protection

Which of the following is a common technique used for gross decontamination?

A. Simple removal of clothing
B. Stepping close to a powerful heat source for a few seconds
C. Evaporation
D. A shower system

D. A shower system

Which form of decontamination is the most thorough?

A. Mass
B. Primary
C. Technical
D. Secondary

C. Technical

What is a disadvantage of the isolation and disposal method of decontamination?

A. It is costly to replace discarded equipment.
B. It is more time-consuming than other decontamination methods.
C. It is manpower intensive.
D. There is a higher possibility of exposure during decontamination.

A. It is costly to replace discarded equipment.

What is the term for the process of reducing and preventing the spread of hazardous materials by persons and equipment?

A. Dispersion
B. Suppression
C. Decontamination
D. Submersion

C. Decontamination

From the following list, which item is removed last during the decontamination process?

A. Protective suit
B. Boots
C. Gloves
D. Personal clothing

D. Personal clothing

Where should fire fighters proceed after thorough decontamination?

A. Medical station
B. Cold zone
C. Staging area
D. Command post

A. Medical station

What is the term for attempting to keep the hazardous materials on the site or within the immediate area of the release?

A. Adsorption
B. Confinement
C. Remediation
D. Containment

B. Confinement

What are actions that stop a hazardous material from leaking or escaping its container?

A. Confinement
B. Containment
C. Control
D. Mitigation

B. Containment

Which of the following is a confinement tactic?

A. Plugging
B. Patching
C. Diking
D. Righting an overturned container

C. Diking

Diversion of material can be accomplished by utilizing which of the following barriers?

A. PVC pipe
B. Fire hose
C. Water
D. Curbs

D. Curbs

What term means areas in the terrain or places in a structure where materials might be contained or confined?

A. Deelivity
B. Anchor points
C. Topographic basin
D. Natural control points

D. Natural control points

In which process is a material used to soak up and hold a liquid hazardous material like a sponge holds water?

A. Adduction
B. Absorption
C. Abduction
D. Osmosis

B. Absorption

Which of the following items is an absorbent commonly used in hazardous materials operations?

A. Mortar
B. Soil
C. Baking soda
D. Stone tailings

B. Soil

The concept of adsorption is most similar to:

A. burial.
B. a sponge.
C. Velcro.
D. diffusion.

C. Velcro.

Which method of product control results in one material physically adhering to another?

A. Absorption
B. Dilution
C. Adsorption
D. Retention

C. Adsorption

Which is a common adsorbent material?

A. Nitric acid
B. Sawdust
C. Peat moss
D. Activated carbon

D. Activated carbon

What type of dam should be constructed for a material that has a specific gravity greater than l?

A. Scherring
B. Overflow
C. Separation
D. Gravity

B. Overflow

Which of the following items will be needed to build a dam in a flowing stream that is contaminated with a hazardous liquid?

A. Plastic sheeting
B. Rebar
C. PVC pipe
D. Rip-rap

C. PVC pipe

Which of the following terms means the placement of material to form a barrier that keeps a hazardous material from entering an unwanted area?

A. Diking
B. Scherring dam
C. Retention
D. Diversion

A. Diking

Which protective action uses water or another liquid to reduce the concentration of a hazardous material?

A. Dispersion
B. Adsorption
C. Dilution
D. Suppression

C. Dilution

What is the first step in a dilution operation?

A. Determine material compatibility.
B. Assess the viability of the proposed operation.
C. Ensure adequate water supply.
D. Build containment for the diluted product.

B. Assess the viability of the proposed operation.

What is the technique of redirecting the flow of a liquid away from an area?

A. Diversion
B. Damming
C. Diking
D. Detainment

A. Diversion

You have used sandbags to create a barrier to prevent a hazardous liquid from entering a storm drain. Which product control tactic is this?

A. Damming
B. Diversion
C. Diking
D. Retention

B. Diversion

Which control tactic should always be considered in transportation emergencies or incidents at fixed facilities?

A. Damming
B. Retention
C. Remote valve shut-off
D. Diffusion

C. Remote valve shut-off

Where are remote shut-off valves located on MC-306 cargo tanks?

A. Next to the air coupling
B. At the front of the tank
C. Near the front of the cab
D. In the valve box

C. Near the front of the cab

Where are shut-off valves located on MC-331 cargo tanks?

A. In the vent housing
B. At both ends of the tank
C. Near the front of the cab
D. In the valve box

B. At both ends of the tank

Which tactic lowers the concentration of a vapor cloud by spreading it out?

A. Diffusion
B. Ventilation
C. Vapor dispersion
D. Gas retention

C. Vapor dispersion

Which of the following issues requires particular attention when considering an attempt to disperse flammable vapors?

A. Turbulence created by the dispersal may increase vapor production.
B. Personnel may be directly exposed to the material.
C. Water fog will react to many flammable liquids .
D. Dispersal may cause the vapors to ignite.

D. Dispersal may cause the vapors to ignite.

Why should foam be applied so that it flows gently across a liquid?

A. To avoid directly upsetting the burning surface
B. To prevent disruption of the foam blanket
C. To prevent entraining additional air
D. Because liquid agitation will increase the temperature

A. To avoid directly upsetting the burning surface

Aqueous film-forming foam works primarily by:

A. displacing oxygen with an inert gas.
B. inhibiting the chemical chain reaction.
C. cooling the fuel.
D. forming a blanket to suppress vapors.

D. forming a blanket to suppress vapors.

Which of the following statements about fluoroprotein foam is correct?

A. It has poor vapor-suppressing performance.
B. It is effective on Class B fires.
C. It is effective as a Class A wetting agent.
D. It is not available in a polar solvent-resistant formula.

B. It is effective on Class B fires.

When is application of high-expansion foam most appropriate?

A. When vapor suppression of polar solvents is required
B. When foam with high water content is required
C. When using as a wetting agent
D. When flooding a large area with foam

D. When flooding a large area with foam

What foam application method should be used on a pooled liquid fire on the ground producing an intense thermal column?

A. Bounce-off method
B. Rain-down method
C. Roll-in method
D. Subsurface injection method

C. Roll-in method

What foam application method should be used on open-top storage tank fires?

A. Bounce-off method
B. Rain-down method
C. Roll-in method
D. Subsurface injection method

A. Bounce-off method

In which method of foam application is a bank of foam formed on the ground in front of the flammable liquid pool and pushed over the pool by the continued application of foam?

A Bounce-off method
B. Rain-down method
C. Roll-in method
D. Subsurface injection method

C. Roll-in method

Which foam application method is particularly well suited to transport vehicle accidents?

A. Bounce-off method
B. Rain-down method
C. Roll-in method
D. Subsurface injection method

A. Bounce-off method

An aboveground storage tank has leaked flammable liquid into the surrounding diked containment area. A foam stream is directed against the side of the tank. Foam is running down the side of the tank and covering the spilled fuel in the containment area. Which foam application method does this describe?

A. Subsurface injection method
B. Rain-down method
C. Roll-in method
D. Bounce-off method

D. Bounce-off method

A fire fighter is directing a foam stream over an aboveground open-top storage tank, letting the foam gently fall onto the surface of the liquid in the tank. Which foam application method does this describe?

A. Bounce-off method
B. Roll-in method
C. Rain-down method
D. Aerial method

C. Rain-down method

Which foam application method is the least effective when burning fuel is producing a strong thermal column?

A. Bounce-off method
B. Roll-in method
C. Subsurface injection method
D. Rain-down method

D. Rain-down method

What alternate technique for reducing vapor formation works with some hazardous materials?

A. Reducing their temperature
B. Mixing in bicarbonate of soda
C. Gradually bringing the material to a high acidity
D. Placing floating booms to subdivide the surface area

A. Reducing their temperature

Which type of foam is produced by pumping large volumes of air through a small screen coated with a foam solution?
A.	Protein foam
B.	Fluoroprotein foam
C.	Aqueous film-forming foam
D.	High-expansion foam

D. High-expansion foam

Absorption is a difficult technique for operations level responders at a hazardous materials incident because:

A. it is a precise, technically advanced procedure.
B. it must be performed by personnel in Level A PPE.
C. it requires being in close proximity to the hazardous material.
D. the absorbents are difficult to handle.

C. it requires being in close proximity to the hazardous material.

How does a spill boom control a hazardous material?

A. It forms a barrier to the movement of the material.
B. It absorbs the material.
C. It reduces agitation of liquid within the boom perimeter.
D. It covers the material.

A. It forms a barrier to the movement of the material.

Which type of dam is used to contain materials lighter than water?

A. Underflow
B. Gravity
C. Separation
D. Split

A. Underflow

Which of the following is a concern with using dilution at a hazardous materials spill?

A. Once water is added, the identity of the hazardous material may be masked.
B. Chemical treatments may not be effective on diluted solution of the product.
C. Once water is added, it cannot be removed.
D. The diluted product may overwhelm containment measures.

D. The diluted product may overwhelm containment measures.

How much water is needed to effectively dilute a hazardous material?

A. A volume equal to twice that of the material to be diluted
B. A volume equal to three times that of the material to be diluted
C. A volume equal to four times that of the material to be diluted
D. It varies, depending on the material to be diluted.

D. It varies, depending on the material to be diluted.

What is the first step in dike construction?

A. Determine which diking material will be compatible with the spilled material.
B. Dig a shallow depression.
C. Determine the number and location of the pipes.
D. Spread out the plastic sheeting.

A. Determine which diking material will be

You have dug a shallow pit to collect and hold a hazardous liquid. Which control tactic is this?

A. Containment
B. Detainment
C. Diking
D. Retention

D. Retention

Which of the following is an identifying characteristic of a cargo tank truck designed to carry liquids at atmospheric pressure?

A. Oval/elliptical cross-sectional tank shape
B. Circumferential rollover protection
C. External ring stiffeners
D. Top-mounted loading control valves

A. Oval/elliptical cross-sectional tank shape

Which cargo tanks are certified to transport flammable and combustible liquids chemicals transported at low pressure (under 25 pounds per square inch)?

A. MC-307/DOT-407
B. MC-306/DOT-406
C. MC-33l/DOT-431
D. MC-312/DOT-412

A. MC-307/DOT-407

Vapor dispersion with fans or fog streams should only be attempted after:

A. an opposing dispersing stream is ready.
B. a containment basin is dug.
C. the ground has been treated with lime.
D. the hazardous material is accurately identified.

D. the hazardous material is accurately identified.

When foam is applied to a hazardous materials spill, what happens to the volume of the spill?

A. It decreases.
B. It increases.
C. It remains the same.
D. It depends on the substance involved.

B. It increases.

The most common method of vapor suppression is the application of:

A. plastic or other impermeable sheet material.
B. sawdust or other particulate absorbent.
C. firefighting foam.
D. an inert, heavier-than-air gas.

C. firefighting foam.

Which of the following statements about regular protein foam is correct?

A. It is effective on polar solvents.
B. It has a longer shelf life than synthetic foam.
C. It is not effective on Class B fires.
D. It has good expansion properties.

D. It has good expansion properties.

In addition to extinguishing flammable liquid fires, what are Class B foams used for on hazardous materials incidents?

A. To break down the surface tension of fuels
B. As an emulsifier for heavy hydrocarbon fuels
C. To suppress vapor production of unignited fuels
D. As a decontamination agent

C. To suppress vapor production of unignited fuels

Which phase of a hazardous materials incident begins when the imminent danger to people, property, and the environment is controlled and clean-up begins?

A. Remediation
B. Recovery
C. Mitigation
D. Definitive

B. Recovery

The primary objective of the ______ phase of a hazardous materials incident is to return the property or site of the incident to its original condition.

A. restoration
B. mitigation
C. salvage
D. recovery

D. recovery

Which of the following containment methods utilizes PVC pipes to control the material?

A. Retention
B. Dispersion
C. Diking
D. Damming

D. Damming

What is an identifying characteristic of a cargo tank truck designed to carry liquefied gases such as liquefied petroleum gas?

A. External structural rings
B. Top-mount valve controls
C. Insulated tank shell
D. Rounded tank ends

D. Rounded tank ends

Which of the following is a containment tactic?

A. Plugging
B. Damming
C. Diking
D. Vapor control

A. Plugging

When applying foam to a pool of burning fuel, it is important to avoid:

A directing the foam onto any surface other than the liquid.
B. using standard fog or smooth-bore nozzles to apply the foam.
C. agitating the surface of the liquid.
D. using alcohol-resistant formulations.

C. agitating the surface of the liquid.

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Hazmat Final Flashcards

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