Hazards Flashcards

1
Q

Where is Haiti located?

A

Haiti is located in the Caribbean, on the east of the island of Hispaniola.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What geological characteristics make Haiti seismically active?

A

Haiti is seismically active due to two fault lines on a constructive margin, leading to high magnitude shallow focus earthquakes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the impact of deforestation in Haiti?

A

Deforestation makes landslides more frequent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What percentage of Haiti’s land is mountainous?

A

60% of Haiti’s land is mountainous.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What social issues contribute to vulnerability in Haiti?

A

Poor quality housing, inherent poverty, lack of hazard education, 50% unemployment, and extreme rates of gang and organized crime.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is Haiti’s GDP per capita?

A

Haiti’s GDP per capita is $21,300.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What percentage of the Haitian population lives on less than $2 per day?

A

77% of the population lives on less than $2 per day.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe the political situation in Haiti.

A

Haiti has extreme political instability, with a militant, corrupt government, often relying on Haitian UN police for policing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How many tropical storms occur in Haiti annually?

A

Around 4-5 tropical storms occur in Haiti annually.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the effect of tropical storms on Haiti’s economy?

A

In 2008, 4 tropical storms hit Haiti, affecting over 5% of its GDP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Fill in the blank: Haiti is the ______ developed country in the West.

A

least

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

True or False: Haiti has a stable political environment.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What caused the large shallow focus earthquakes in Haiti?

A

Haiti’s positioning between the North American plate and the Caribbean plate

Both plates are moving in the same direction, leading to seismic activity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What was the magnitude and depth of the earthquake that struck near Port-au-Prince?

A

Magnitude 7 with a 13km deep epicenter

The epicenter was just 25km from the capital city.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How many people required emergency food aid after the earthquake in Haiti?

A

4 million people

This indicates the scale of the disaster’s impact on the population.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the NDRMS?

A

An NGO project that developed an energy operation center for disaster management in Haiti, It was designed for civil servants to manage disasters effectively.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What happened to the NDRMS Emergency Operations Centre during the 2010 Haiti earthquake?

A

It was destroyed

This significantly hampered disaster response efforts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What types of equipment did the NDRMS expand for disaster prediction in Haiti?

A

Weather monitoring equipment

This allowed the National Meteorological Centre to predict hazards more easily.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What were the consequences of the 2010 Haiti earthquake on emergency response?

A

Poor rollout of aid and emergency responses, Many emergency crews were injured, affecting the response efficiency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How many people received emergency shelter materials after the 2010 earthquake in Haiti?

A

1.5 million people

This highlights the extensive need for immediate shelter following the disaster.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How many children were moved to temporary education facilities after the 2010 Haiti earthquake?

A

195,000 children

This was part of the efforts to provide continuity in education despite the disaster.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What percentage of displaced people from Port-au-Prince required health clinics after the 2010 Haiti Earthquake?

A

90% of people. This indicates a critical need for healthcare services in the aftermath of the earthquake.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What negative consequence arose from the UN soldiers’ presence after the 2010 Haiti earthquake?

A

Spread of disease compounding the challenges faced by the affected population after the earthquake.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Why was the Haiti 2010 earthquake thought to have had such a large impact?

A

Long term inaction was described as a contributing factor to the earthquake’s consequences Long-term inaction can exacerbate the effects of natural disasters.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

When did Hurricane Katrina form?

A

25th August 2005

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What was the maximum gust speed reached by Hurricane Katrina?

A

215 mph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which US States did Hurricane Katrina impact after forming?

A

Florida, Louisiana, Alabama, Mississippi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What typical conditions in the Caribbean sea contribute to the formation of tropical storms like hurricane Katrina?

A

Optimal 25°C temperature and low pressure with strong winds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What latitude range is associated with the conditions for large tropical storms such as hurricane Katrina?

A

5-10 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How many houses in New Orleans were flooded due to Hurricane Katrina?

A

110,000 of the 180,000 houses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What was the size of the disaster zone declared after Hurricane Katrina?

A

233,000 km squared

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How many people were left without power after Hurricane Katrina?

A

5 million people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What type of infrastructure was damaged in the Gulf area due to Hurricane Katrina?

A

Oil installations (rigs and refineries)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What area in New Orleans was severely damaged, affecting tourism revenues as a result of hurricane Katrina?

A

French Quarter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What was the estimated financial cost of Hurricane Katrina in the USA?

A

$200 billion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Fill in the blank: Hurricane Katrina was the most deadly storm felt in the US for over ______ years.

A

75 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

True or False: Hurricane Katrina hit Florida before impacting Louisiana.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What environmental impact did Hurricane Katrina have on New Orleans?

A

The city and surroundings were completely flooded causing extensive damage to infrastructure and homes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How many people became refugees as a result of Hurricane Katrina?

A

More than 1million people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What percentage of Katrina evacuees stayed within 400km of their homes?

A

75%, many people sought refuge in nearby areas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

On what date did the National Guard arrive in response to Hurricane Katrina?

A

9th September, their arrival was part of the emergency response efforts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What actions did the Army Corps take after Hurricane Katrina in New Orleans?

A

Plugged levees and pumped water out of flooded areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What shelter was set up for those who could not leave New Orleans?

A

New Orleans ‘Super Dome’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How many people were stranded in New Orleans after Hurricane Katrina?

A

60,000 people, this number highlights the scale of the crisis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How many of the 60,000 stranded individuals were rescued by the Coast Guard?

A

More than 33,500 people, this rescue operation was a significant part of the emergency response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How much aid was provided by the US government for Hurricane Katrina relief?

A

$50 billion ,this funding was essential for recovery efforts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What supports the levees in New Orleans that were repaired after Hurricane Katrina?

A

New steel beams that are as deep as 65ft, these reinforcements were made to prevent future flooding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Define Preparedness in managing wildfires

A

Increasing peoples’ awareness of the potential hazards associated with wildfires.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What does mitigation aim to achieve in wildfire management?

A

Actions aimed at reducing the severity of an event and lessening its impact.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the goal of prevention in the context of wildfires?

A

Actions aimed at preventing large-scale events from starting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What does adaptation involve in managing wildfires?

A

Accepting that natural events are inevitable and adapting behaviour accordingly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What do wildfires need to ignite?

A

Fuel, Oxygen and heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the purpose of controlled burning?

A

To reduce the amount of fuel available to help manage the risk of wildfires.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are the potential impacts of controlled burning on the ecosystem?

A

Reduces litter store and releases carbon dioxide. This affects natural ecosystems and nutrient cycles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Why is public awareness of rules important in wildfire prevention?

A

To enforce rules regarding the use of campfires, barbeques and other activity that could increase wildfire risk. This is especially crucial in campsites and public areas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What do many countries implement during times of high wildfire risk?

A

‘Fire bans’ to help mitigate the risk of wildfires.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Since what year has Smokey Bear been promoting fire safety?

A

1944, Smokey Bear has been influential in educating Americans about responsible fire behavior.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What percentage of Americans recognize Smokey Bear?

A

96 percent, His message of fire safety is well-known among the public.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the percentage of Americans who can recall Smokey Bear’s message of fire safety?

A

70 percent, This indicates the effectiveness of his campaign.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

How has the average number of hectares lost to wildfires changed since 1944 (the implementation of Smokey Bear)?

A

From 54 million hectares to 16.5 million hectares, This shows a significant reduction in wildfire damage over the years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

True or False: There is a belief that fires are a natural regenerative process within forest ecosystems.

A

True, Some advocate for allowing fires to take their natural course in certain circumstances.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

List at least 2 ways that citizens can prepare their property for wildfires

A

Any 2 from:
- Reduce tree and brush cover
- Dispose of Debris left from thinning
- Remove dead limbs, leaves and other litter
- Stack firewood away from home
- Maintain an irrigated green belt
- Mow dry grasses and weeds
- Prune tree branches to around 10ft above ground
- Trim branches
- Clean roof and gutters
- Reduce density of forest surrounding property

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What does mitigation involve?

A

Reducing the severity of an event by direct intervention and support following a disaster

This includes actions taken before and after disasters to minimize their impact.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Why is early fire detection crucial?

A

It allows for timely intervention to prevent the spread of wildfires

Early detection can significantly reduce the damage caused by fires.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What methods were historically used for fire detection?

A

Observation from high fire towers

This method has largely been replaced by more advanced technologies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What modern technologies are used for fire detection?

A

Satellites, infrared sensors, and cameras

These technologies can detect thermal variations and early ignition of fires.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is NASA developing for wildfire management?

A

Drone technology for surveying vast areas

This technology aims to enhance monitoring and response capabilities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is Back Burning?

A

Removing the fuel (vegetation) through burning vegetation ahead of the fire front to create a controlled barrier.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What natural barriers can be used to control fire spread?

A

Rivers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is ‘spotting’ in the context of wildfires?

A

When embers are carried far from the active fire, igniting new fires elsewhere. Spotting can significantly complicate wildfire suppression efforts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

How can disaster aid mitigate the effects of wildfires?

A

By providing financial and logistical support to affected individuals. This support can help communities recover more effectively after a disaster.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the purpose of risk assessments in Colorado Springs?

A

To identify where the largest threats to individual homes are. This information was posted online to encourage community action in reducing risks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What types of grants are provided to residents in Colorado Springs for fire risk improvement?

A

Federal, state, and local grants. These grants are aimed at those who cannot afford to make improvements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What vegetation management practice is implemented around properties in Colorado Springs?

A

Thinning of vegetation surrounding properties. This practice includes using granular hardeners to protect housing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is the purpose of the curbside chipper program in Colorado Springs?

A

To allow free branch removal and reduce financial impact on locals. This program facilitates the cutting down of larger shrubs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What type of roofing is promoted for homes in Colorado Springs?

A

Class A roofing, designed to provide better fire resistance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is a technique used in wildfire management to reduce the fuel available for fire through digging trenches?

A

Control lines may be built to reduce the amount of fuel available for the fire by removing potential fuels and using natural barriers such as rivers and terrain breaks.

This can be done manually with tools like pulaskis or with bulldozers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is the purpose of air drops in wildfire management?

A

Aeroplanes and helicopters release water and fire-retardant chemicals onto the wildfire.

These air drops help to suppress the fire and prevent its spread.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What are smokejumpers?

A

Smokejumpers are firefighters who parachute directly into wildfires.

They carry axes and small amounts of fire retardant gel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What technique involves deliberately burning areas of land ahead of a wildfire?

A

Backfiring is used to deliberately burn areas of land ahead of the fire to use up the fuel.

This technique is controlled by firefighting services and may involve bulldozers for large areas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

How many smokejumpers are often active in the US?

A

There are often 450 smokejumpers active in the US.

They are deployed to remote fires that could potentially cause issues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What actions do smokejumpers take when they arrive at small fires?

A

Smokejumpers remove fuel on the cutside part of the small fires and dig soil to cool it down.

This helps to prevent the fire from spreading further.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is a crown fire?

A

A crown fire spreads across tree canopies and affects forested areas.

Crown fires are typically intense and can move rapidly through the treetops.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is a surface fire?

A

A surface fire burns across surface vegetation.

Surface fires usually burn low to the ground and can affect grasses, shrubs, and small trees.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is a ground fire?

A

A ground fire burns beneath the ground in layers of dry organic peat.

Ground fires can smolder for long periods and are often difficult to detect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What does the ladder effect describe?

A

The ladder effect describes the process of fires from the forest floor spreading to the tree canopy.

This effect can lead to more severe fire conditions and increased spread of fire.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What was the nickname of the wildfire that swept across Alberta in May 2016?

A

The Beast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

In which province did the Fort McMurray wildfire occur?

A

Alberta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What type of forestry contributed to the rapid spread of the Fort McMurray wildfire?

A

Wooded pine forestry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What was a significant psychological effect experienced by 1 in 3 students who experienced the Fort McMurrey Wildfire?

A

Symptoms of PTSD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What was the impact on adolescent alcohol and drug consumption among those who experienced the Fort McMurrey Wildfire?

A

Higher than surrounding populations of children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What did many families experience due to the rapid evacuation during the Fort McMurrey wildfire?

A

Loss of pets and homes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What was the general sentiment among residents regarding the rebuilding of their community after the Fort McMurrey wildfire?

A

A strong sense of resilience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Fill in the blank: The Fort McMurray wildfire had the largest impact on the ________ (Which region) of Alberta.

A

North east

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

True or False: The residents of Fort McMurray felt hopeless after the wildfire.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What year did the Fort McMurray wildfire occur?

A

2016

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What type of fire was prevalent in the Fort McMurray wildfire?

A

Crown fires

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What was a major consequence for families affected by the Fort McMurray wildfire?

A

Huge impacts on their mental health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

How did the perception of the Fort McMurrey wildfire differ among residents?

A

Devastating yet resilient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

When did the Fort McMurray wildfire ignite?

A

1st May 2016

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What caused the initial control of the fire to change during the Fort McMurray wildfires?

A

A shift in the wind direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What environmental conditions contributed to the outbreak of the Fort McMurray wildfire?

A

Early snow melt and warmer than average temperatures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What happened to the humidity levels and temperatures in late April before the Fort McMurrey wildfire?

A

Humidity was extremely low and temperatures soared

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What were the temperature conditions in May during the Fort McMurrey wildfire?

A

Exceeding 30°C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What phenomenon helped to increase the intensity of the Fort McMurray wildfire?

A

El Niño Year (Above average temperatures)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What impact did the Fort McMurrey wildfire have on the boreal forest ecosystem?

A

Scorched soil and burnt tree roots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What risk does the dry and scorched party soil pose after the Fort McMurrey wildfire?

A

It could reignite at any time until the first heavy rainfall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

How much carbon dioxide was released into the atmosphere due to the Fort McMurrey wildfire?

A

Several million tonnes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What toxins were released from burning trees during the Fort McMurrey wildfire?

A

Mercury, lead, and organic compounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What environmental issue was caused by the toxins released during the Fort McMurrey wildfire?

A

Severe air pollution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What happened to the ash after heavy rain following the Fort McMurrey wildfire?

A

It was washed into water courses, leading to water pollution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What potential contamination risk arose from the ash washing into water courses after the Fort McMurrey wildfire?

A

Possible contamination of fish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What kind of waste had to be disposed of after the Fort McMurray wildfire?

A

Huge quantities of waste, including rotting food from freezers and toxic debris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

How many people were forced to flee Fort McMurray due to the wildfire?

A

90,000 people

This mass evacuation was a direct result of the wildfire’s impact on the community.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What was the estimated damage inflicted upon Fort McMurray by the wildfire?

A

CAN$9 billion

This estimate was provided by initial insurance company assessments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

How many homes and other buildings were burned down in Fort McMurray?

A

2400 homes and other buildings

This significant loss contributed to the social and economic impacts of the disaster.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What effect did the wildfire have on jobs and livelihoods in Fort McMurray?

A

Jobs and livelihood were affected and movement in the area was restricted

The disruption had a broad impact on the local economy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What happened to the water supplies in Fort McMurray during the wildfire?

A

Water supplies became contaminated

Untreated water was deliberately introduced into the municipal water supply to assist firefighters.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What portion of the workers in the oil sands industry had to be evacuated due to the Fort McMurrey Wildfires?

A

About one third of the 25,000 workers

This evacuation led to a significant halt in production and operations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Which company’s mining operation was temporarily shut down due to the Fort McMurray wildfire?

A

Shell Canada Albion Sands mining operation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

True or False: The Fort McMurrey wildfire led to increased levels of anxiety about the future among residents.

A

True

This psychological impact was one of the social consequences of the disaster.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What political debate was fueled by the Fort McMurray wildfire?

A

Impacts of climate change

The wildfire highlighted the potential damage related to climate-related events.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What role did government officials play during the Fort McMurray wildfire?

A

Oversee evacuation programmes

They had to coordinate with emergency services for effective evacuation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What impact did the Fort McMurray wildfire have on transport in the region?

A

Transport was seriously affected

This included disruptions at the nearby international airport.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What was the immediate effect of the wildfire on power supplies in Fort McMurray?

A

Power supplies were disrupted

This disruption added to the challenges faced by residents during the crisis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

When did Cyclone Nargis strike Myanmar?

A

May 2008

Cyclone Nargis caused huge devastation in Myanmar during this time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What type of government was in place in Myanmar during Cyclone Nargis?

A

Military dictatorship

Myanmar is known for its isolationist policies and avoiding western intervention.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Where did Cyclone Nargis develop?

A

Bay of Bengal

The cyclone started as a low pressure system in this region.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What was the initial classification of Cyclone Nargis on April 27, 2008?

A

Tropical depression

The Indian Meteorological Department (IMD) reported this classification.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

How fast was Cyclone Nargis moving on April 27, 2008?

A

8 mph

The depression was moving north-west at this speed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What wind speed did Cyclone Nargis reach by May 1, 2008?

A

100 mph

This increase was due to high water temperature and the Coriolis effect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What category hurricane was Cyclone Nargis when it hit land?

A

Category 4

The cyclone had wind speeds of 135 mph at this point.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What town did Cyclone Nargis hit on May 2, 2008?

A

Wagon

The cyclone made landfall in this southwestern town.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

What was the height of the storm surge produced by Cyclone Nargis?

A

3-3.5 metres high

The storm surge significantly impacted the coastline.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

When did Cyclone Nargis finally subside?

A

May 3, 2008

The cyclone lasted for several days before it subsided.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What geographical feature contributed to the impact of Cyclone Nargis on the coastline?

A

Coastal inlets

The topography of the land along the coast funneled the storm surge.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What caused the storm surge from Cyclone Nargis to be channeled inland?

A

Coastal inlets along Myanmar’s coastline

These inlets directed the surge further into the land.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

How did the shallow continental shelf affect Cyclone Nargis?

A

It caused the storm surge to rise further inland

The shallow nature of the shelf amplified the surge.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

What type of community was affected by Cyclone Nargis?

A

A densely populated rural community

This demographic increased the impact of the cyclone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What was the estimated economic damage caused by Cyclone Nargis?

A

$10 billion worth of damage

This figure reflects the extensive destruction caused by the cyclone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

What percentage of buildings collapsed in Myanmar due to Cyclone Nargis?

A

75% of buildings

In the delta region, 95% of buildings collapsed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

How many temples were destroyed by Cyclone Nargis?

A

1,163 temples

This loss contributed to the cultural impact of the cyclone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What environmental impacts did Cyclone Nargis have on agriculture?

A

The 2008 to 2009 harvests were destroyed

This led to significant food shortages.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

What were the maximum wind speeds recorded during Cyclone Nargis?

A

Up to 135 mph

These winds contributed to the destruction of infrastructure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What was the height of the storm surge during Cyclone Nargis?

A

7.6 m

This surge caused extensive flooding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

How far inland did floodwaters penetrate due to Cyclone Nargis?

A

40 - 50 km inland

This distance indicates the severity of the flooding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

What social impacts did Cyclone Nargis have on the population?

A

Lack of food and water, many died of disease

The aftermath led to numerous health crises.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

How many children were orphaned as a result of Cyclone Nargis?

A

Many children were orphaned

This highlights the human tragedy of the disaster.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

How many people were reported missing after Cyclone Nargis?

A

50,000 people

Many of these individuals were never found.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

What was the estimated death toll from Cyclone Nargis?

A

At least 136,000 people

This figure represents the devastating human cost.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Approximately how many people were severely affected by Cyclone Nargis?

A

Around 2.4 million people

This indicates the widespread impact of the cyclone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

What was the extent of structural damage caused by Cyclone Nargis?

A

Extensive, causing over a million to become homeless

The structural damage was a significant issue in recovery efforts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

What was the initial perception of Cyclone Nargis among the population?

A

Many were unaware of the event until very late due to poor communication and warnings from the government

This lack of awareness contributed to the severity of the cyclone’s impact on the population.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

How did Cyclone Nargis affect employment for the people?

A

Many were left without a job, seeing the cyclone as life altering under economic collapse

The economic consequences of the cyclone exacerbated existing challenges in the region.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

What type of programs were initiated following Cyclone Nargis?

A

Many education programs were implemented to help those most impacted recover and mitigate damage in future storm events

These programs aimed to build resilience among communities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

What was the initial response of the military government to Cyclone Nargis?

A

The initial response was appalling

The government was criticized for its lack of preparedness and ineffective management of the disaster.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Why did the military Junta refuse foreign aid immediately after the Cyclone Nargis?

A

They did not want foreign people coming into the country and destabilizing their political oppression

This refusal delayed crucial assistance to the affected population.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

How long after the impact of Cyclone Nargis made landfall did the government request aid?

A

A full 6 days after the storm made landfall

This delay highlighted the government’s skepticism and inadequate initial response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

What was the effect of the government’s skepticism on aid distribution during Cyclone Nargis?

A

Aid was far more restricted and therefore less effective

The limited access to aid hindered recovery efforts for the affected communities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

When did the Junta finally allow international aid to be delivered in Cyclone Nargis?

A

Members of the Association of South-East Asian admittance were allowed to deliver aid from 19 of May

This acceptance of aid came after significant international pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

What were the conditions for the people of the nation regarding food and medicine after Cyclone Nargis?

A

The people were still limited to reduced food, medicine, and basic supplies

This scarcity of resources created ongoing challenges for the affected population.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

What sea temperature is required for tropical storm formation?

A

27°C or above

This temperature provides a continuous source of heat to maintain rising air currents.

163
Q

What is the minimum ocean depth required for tropical storm formation?

A

At least 70m

This depth provides moisture that contributes latent heat, which powers the storm.

164
Q

At what latitude must a location be for tropical storm formation?

A

At least 5° north or south of the Equator

This is necessary for the Coriolis force to induce rotation of air.

165
Q

What atmospheric condition is necessary for tropical storm formation?

A

Atmospheric instability

This condition causes the convergence of air in the lower atmosphere.

166
Q

What type of winds are required for tropical storm formation?

A

Uniform winds

Uniform winds allow for wind speeds to build up, which is essential for storm development.

167
Q

What is the first stage of a tropical storm?

A

Developing: With sea surface temperatures over 27°C, warm air rises and starts to spin

This stage is critical for the formation of a storm system.

168
Q

What occurs during the Embryo stage of storms?

A

Clusters of thunderstorms drift over warm ocean waters

This stage indicates the initial organization of storm elements.

169
Q

What happens during the Decaying stage of a tropical storm?

A

As the tropical storm moves over land, it loses its source of energy and weakens

The transition to land is crucial for the storm’s lifecycle.

170
Q

What characterizes the Mature stage of a tropical storm?

A

As the tropical storm moves over the ocean, it picks up more warm air, wind speeds increase and it grows in size

This stage is when the storm is at its strongest and most developed.

171
Q

What happens to average air temperature due to global warming?

A

Average air temperature increases.

This increase is a key factor in climate change and its effects on weather patterns.

172
Q

What effect does increasing average air temperature have on sea temperature?

A

Sea heats up.

The warming of the sea is a direct consequence of rising air temperatures.

173
Q

What is the global effect of increased water temperature?

A

Average water temperature globally increases.

This increase affects marine ecosystems and weather patterns.

174
Q

How does increased water temperature affect the occurrence of tropical storms?

A

Increases the area in which tropical storms can occur.

Warmer waters provide more energy for storms, potentially leading to more frequent and intense tropical storms.

175
Q

Which areas may soon see tropical storms due to climatic changes?

A

Areas further north and south of the equator.

This shift may expose regions previously unaffected by tropical storms to severe weather.

176
Q

What does aseismic mean in the context of building design?

A

Earthquake resistant

Aseismic structures are designed to withstand seismic forces.

177
Q

Name one method to make a building earthquake resistant.

A

Using a large concrete weight that moves in the opposite direction of the earthquake force

This method counteracts stress during seismic events.

178
Q

What is the purpose of large rubber shock absorbers in building foundations?

A

To allow for movement of the building and reduce the effect of seismic waves

Shock absorbers help to minimize structural damage during earthquakes.

179
Q

How do cross bracing steel beams contribute to earthquake resistance?

A

They hold the structure together when it shakes

Cross bracing enhances the lateral stability of buildings.

180
Q

What can be done to older buildings to improve their earthquake resistance?

A

Retrofitting with devices such as shock absorbers and bracing

This process helps to modernize and strengthen existing structures.

181
Q

How can education help minimize loss of life during earthquakes?

A

By issuing instructions on home preparation and conducting drills

Education plays a crucial role in disaster preparedness.

182
Q

What measures are taken in schools to prepare for earthquakes?

A

Children participate in earthquake drills

Drills help instill emergency response behaviors in students.

183
Q

What is the function of smart meters in fire prevention during earthquakes?

A

They can cut off gas supply when a significant earthquake occurs

Smart meters help prevent gas leaks that could lead to fires.

184
Q

How does the gas network in Tokyo respond to seismic activity?

A

Transmits seismic information to a computer that informs employees to switch off pipelines

This system reduces the risk of gas leaks and subsequent fires.

185
Q

What is essential for effective emergency services organization?

A

Careful planning and availability of heavy lifting gear

Many people should also receive first aid training due to potential delays in medical personnel arrival.

186
Q

How can hazardous areas be managed in land use planning during earthquakes?

A

Identify hazardous areas and regulate land use

Important structures like schools and hospitals should be placed in low-risk areas.

187
Q

What is the significance of open space in land use planning?

A

Provides a safe area away from fires and aftershock damage

Open spaces are crucial for safety during and after seismic events.

188
Q

What is a common recommendation for residents in wealthier areas regarding insurance?

A

Take out insurance to cover potential losses

The high cost can be a significant burden for individuals.

189
Q

What type of aid is typically provided to poorer nations after a disaster?

A

Medical services, shelter, water purification, search and rescue equipment

Aid in the immediate aftermath is more common than long-term reconstruction support.

190
Q

What are the challenges associated with long-term aid after disasters?

A

Reconstruction of the built environment and economic redevelopment

Long-term aid is often more complex and difficult to coordinate.

191
Q

Can tsunamis be entirely predicted?

A

No

However, automated systems can provide warnings based on pressure sensors.

192
Q

What technology is used to predict the impact of impending tsunamis?

A

Bottom pressure sensors attached to buoys

These sensors measure the pressure of the overlying water column to detect tsunami waves.

193
Q

Fill in the blank: Certain types of buildings should be placed in areas of ______ risk.

194
Q

When did the Tohoku Earthquake occur?

A

March 11, 2011

195
Q

What was the magnitude of the Tohoku Earthquake?

196
Q

How far was the Tohoku earthquake felt from Japan’s east coast?

197
Q

What immediate action was triggered by the Tohoku earthquake?

A

Tsunami warnings

198
Q

Which power station was particularly affected by the Tohoku earthquake and tsunami?

A

Fukushima power station

199
Q

What type of event was the Tohoku Earthquake categorized as?

A

1 in 1000 year event

200
Q

What contributed to the large magnitude of the Tohoku earthquake?

A

Seismic waves travelling along interlinked fault systems

201
Q

How long did the seismic waves travel to build up energy during the Tohoku earthquake?

A

Around 500 km

202
Q

How many consecutive earthquakes occurred during the Tohoku earthquake event?

203
Q

How quickly did the tsunami develop after the Tohoku earthquake?

A

Within 20 minutes

204
Q

What areas were inundated by the tsunami during the Tohoku earthquake?

A

Coastal lowlands

205
Q

How many aftershocks greater than magnitude 5.0 were recorded in the weeks following the Tohoku earthquake disaster?

206
Q

Fill in the blank: The Tohoku Earthquake was felt _____ miles east of Japan’s coast.

207
Q

True or False: The Tohoku Earthquake triggered tsunami warnings immediately after it occurred.

208
Q

What contributed to the vulnerability of Japan’s coastline during the Tsunami formed due to the Tohoku earthquake?

A

Multiple factors including geological and geographical features

These factors led to harsher primary and secondary impacts on Japan socially, economically, environmentally, and politically.

209
Q

What type of earthquakes were predicted off the Sendai coastline during the Tohoku earthquake?

A

Small earthquakes

This prediction was based on the characteristics of the older, cooler, and denser crust.

210
Q

What is a Ria coastline, how did Japans effect the wave energy of the Tohoku Tsunami?

A

A rugged and jagged coastline with many inlets

This geographical feature concentrates wave energy into bays and rivers.

211
Q

What percentage of Japan is mountainous, how did this impact the Tohoku tsunami?

A

70%

This mountainous terrain forces urban and industrial development into narrow, low-lying coastal areas.

212
Q

What type of land is susceptible to ground shaking in Japan, how did this effect the Tohoku earthquake?

A

Soft reclaimed land

This susceptibility can lead to landslides during seismic events.

213
Q

What did the Japanese Prime Minister acknowledge regarding government officials after the Tohoku disaster?

A

They were too complacent and believed in technological infallibility

This acknowledgment reflects a critical view of the preparedness for disasters.

214
Q

What major incident occurred due to the position of the Fukushima nuclear power plant as a result of the Tohoku disaster?

A

A nuclear explosion

This explosion triggered the formation of an area of radiation.

215
Q

Fill in the blank: Japan’s rugged coastal features lead to concentrated wave energy in _______ as a result of the Tohoku Tsunami.

A

bays and rivers

This concentration increases the destructive potential of waves during a tsunami.

216
Q

What was the recorded death toll of the Tohoku Earthquake?

A

Around 20,000

With 3,000 still missing and over 60% of the deaths being elderly people.

217
Q

How many buildings were destroyed due to the Tohoku Earthquake?

A

Over 300,000 buildings

Additionally, just under 1,000,000 buildings were damaged, leaving half a million people homeless.

218
Q

What infrastructure was damaged during the Tohoku Earthquake?

A

4,000 roads, 78 bridges, and 29 railways

This extensive damage impacted transportation and recovery efforts.

219
Q

What major nuclear incident occurred as a result of the Tohoku Earthquake?

A

Fukushima nuclear explosion

This included partial reactor meltdowns, hydrogen explosions, and leaks of radiation, causing a 12-mile evacuation zone.

220
Q

What environmental issue arose from the Fukushima incident?

A

Need for environmental cleanup

This involved removing radioactive layers of soil nearby.

221
Q

What natural disaster accompanied the Tohoku Earthquake?

A

A tsunami of almost 40 metres

The tsunami caused many secondary impacts along a 2000 km stretch.

222
Q

What was the magnitude of the Tohoku Earthquake?

A

9.0

It was described as a 1 in 1000 year event.

223
Q

Fill in the blank: The Tohoku Earthquake caused a tsunami with a height of almost _______.

224
Q

True or False: Over 60% of the deaths from the Tohoku Earthquake were elderly people.

225
Q

Fill in the blank: Approximately _______ buildings were left destroyed after the Tohoku Earthquake.

226
Q

What was the radius of the evacuation zone caused by the Fukushima nuclear incident?

227
Q

What percentage of the deaths were elderly people in the Tohoku Earthquake?

228
Q

What natural phenomenon triggered many landslides in mountainous areas during the Tohoku Earthquake?

A

The earthquake

229
Q

Fill in the blank: The Tohoku Earthquake resulted in _______ roads being damaged.

230
Q

What was the general evaluation of the short term responses to the Tohoku earthquake and tsunami?

A

Short term responses proved fairly unsuccessful compared to long term responses.

231
Q

What assumption was made regarding the predictions for the Tohoku earthquake?

A

Predictions assumed a point source of energy.

232
Q

What limitation did the protection systems in Japan have during the Tohoku earthquake?

A

Protection systems only cope with an 8.0 magnitude earthquake.

233
Q

What false sense did many people have regarding Japan’s disaster preparedness during the Tohoku earthquake?

A

Many felt a false sense of security with Japan’s world-class advanced protection systems.

234
Q

What critical element was missing from the risk map produced for the Tohoku earthquake?

A

The risk map did not include the prediction of a powerful 500km range tsunami.

235
Q

What role did well-practiced drills play during the Tohoku earthquake?

A

Well-practiced drills taught to students and residents were critical in saving communities.

236
Q

How many children were evacuated to high ground in Kamaishi after the Tohoku earthquake?

A

3000 children were evacuated to high ground.

237
Q

What long-term response actions were taken in areas impacted by Fukushima?

A

Redevelopment and soil removal were conducted in impacted areas.

238
Q

What was the impact of the Tohoku disaster on nuclear power plants in Japan? How many power plants were closed?

A

The disaster led to the temporary closure of 54 nuclear power plants for maintenance.

239
Q

How many search and rescue specialists did the UK send to assist in the Tohoku disaster?

A

63 search and rescue specialists were sent by the UK.

240
Q

How many Japanese soldiers were deployed in response to the Tohoku disaster?

A

100,000 Japanese soldiers were deployed.

241
Q

What factor contributed to the high death toll in the Tohoku disaster?

A

An ageing population was crucial in the high death toll.

242
Q

What is a common sentiment among people regarding returning to areas affected by radiation during the Tohoku disaster?

A

Many believe they should return to the area of the fallout as it is their ancestral home. However some are still not willing to accept the risk of returning.

243
Q

What is the main concern for the majority of people who have not returned to the fallout area created by the Tohoku earthquake?

A

Concern about the radiation’s risk to their health.

244
Q

Fill in the blank: The Tohoku earthquake’s predictions were reliant on the world’s densest _______.

A

seismometer network

245
Q

What was the magnitude of the earthquake that occurred on March 2011?

246
Q

How far offshore was the Tohoku earthquake felt?

247
Q

What was the death toll associated with the Tohoku earthquake and tsunami?

A

Around 28,000 dead or missing

248
Q

How far inland does the coastal plain go following the Tohoku tsunami?

249
Q

What is the size of the evacuation zone around the Fukushima Nuclear Power Plant as a result of the Tohoku earthquake?

250
Q

How many bags of nuclear waste are being stored after the Fukushima disaster?

A

9 million bags

251
Q

What was the cost associated with the Fukushima disaster?

A

20 billion yen

252
Q

What happened to the school in Naraha following the Tohoku disaster?

A

It was demolished and then rebuilt to a 300 pupil capacity, only 68 students returned

253
Q

How many students were present at the rebuilt school in Naraha after the Tohoku earthquake?

A

68 students

254
Q

What was installed in the car park of the rebuilt school in Naraha as a result of the Tohoku earthquake?

A

A radiation monitor

255
Q

What must be done to each food ingredient before consumption in the affected area of radiation due to the Fukushima disaster?

A

Each ingredient has to be tested for radiation

256
Q

True or False: Less than half of the residents returned to Naraha after it was deemed safe.

257
Q

Fill in the blank: Many see the evacuation radius of Fukushima as an __________ home and feel as if they had to return.

A

ancestral/historic

258
Q

What incentive was provided to residents to move back into Naraha after the cleanup of the Fukushima evacuation radius?

A

Subsidies to move out were removed

259
Q

What are earthquakes?

A

Sudden and violent movements of the rocks within the Earth’s crust, causing vibrations called seismic waves at the epicentre of the movements.

Earthquakes can vary in intensity and impact depending on their location and depth.

260
Q

What is the focus of an earthquake?

A

The point within the Earth’s crust where the earthquake originated from.

This is also known as the hypocenter.

261
Q

What is the epicentre of an earthquake?

A

The point where the shock waves reach the crust’s surface.

The epicentre is directly above the focus.

262
Q

Where are the majority of earthquakes found globally?

A

At major plate boundaries, such as the mid-Atlantic ridge or the Ring of Fire.

These areas are tectonically active and prone to seismic activity.

263
Q

What type of earthquakes occur at destructive margins?

A

Deeper focus earthquakes, which are less powerful due to greater wave energy dissipation.

These earthquakes originate at significant depths within the Earth’s crust.

264
Q

Where are shallow focus earthquakes found?

A

At constructive and conservative margins, where more powerful earthquakes are felt.

Shallow focus earthquakes can cause significant damage due to their proximity to the surface.

265
Q

What are primary waves?

A

The fastest type of seismic wave, recorded first on seismographs, able to travel through solids and fluids with longitudinal compressions.

Primary waves push and pull on the crust.

266
Q

What are secondary waves?

A

Slower traveling transverse waves that can move through solid rock, shaking the crust up and down.

Secondary waves cannot travel through fluids.

267
Q

What are Love waves?

A

A type of surface wave that moves the ground from side to side, often considered the most destructive in terms of infrastructure.

Love waves are named after A.E.H. Love, who developed a mathematical model for their propagation.

268
Q

What are Rayleigh waves?

A

Waves near the surface that move in an ellipse as the wave passes, breaking up the surface.

Rayleigh waves can cause significant shaking and damage.

269
Q

What is the Richter Scale?

A

A logarithmic scale (from 1 to 9) measuring energy released proportional to magnitude

Many geologists criticize it for being region-specific and only measuring body waves.

270
Q

What are the limitations of the Richter Scale?

A

Region-specific and only measures earthquake body waves

This has led to dissatisfaction among geologists regarding its effectiveness.

271
Q

What is the Moment Magnitude Scale (MMS)?

A

A scale that estimates the total energy released by an earthquake, applicable to all sizes and distances

It is the preferred method of measurement for earthquakes.

272
Q

How does the Moment Magnitude Scale differ from the Richter Scale?

A

MMS can rate earthquakes of all sizes and distances, while Richter is limited in scope

MMS follows a logarithmic 1-10 scale without the issues of the Richter scale.

273
Q

What is the Mercali Intensity Scale?

A

A subjective, qualitative scale based on observed damage caused by an earthquake

It is not a preferred method for measuring seismic activity.

274
Q

What are secondary seismic hazards?

A

Tsunamis, landslides, avalanches, fires, soil liquefaction

These hazards are caused by seismic activity and can lead to significant destruction.

275
Q

What causes a tsunami?

A

Displacement of water due to the movement of the earth’s crust

An example is the Boxing Day Tsunami in the Indian Ocean in 2004.

276
Q

What can trigger landslides and avalanches?

A

Seismic waves and plate slip

An example is the Nepal Avalanche in 2018.

277
Q

How can earthquakes lead to fires?

A

Falling power cables can ignite fires

A notable example is the Kobe earthquake in Japan in 1995.

278
Q

What is soil liquefaction?

A

Loosely packed soil held by friction can slip and fill with water during an earthquake

This phenomenon can cause land to behave like a fluid, as seen in Palau, Indonesia, in 2018.

279
Q

What was the impact of the 7.9 magnitude earthquake in Indonesia?

A

250,000 homes were destroyed

This destruction was partly due to soil liquefaction.

280
Q

What magnitude was the earthquake that caused the Boxing Day Tsunami?

A

9.1

The earthquake occurred in the Indian Ocean, north west of Sumatra, Indonesia.

281
Q

How many people were killed by the Boxing Day Tsunami?

A

230,000

Millions lost their homes due to the tsunami.

282
Q

What was the height of the waves that hit Sumatra during the Boxing Day Tsunami?

A

20m

The waves struck just 15 minutes after the earthquake.

283
Q

What natural disaster occurred in Nepal in 2015?

A

Avalanche

The avalanche was caused by an earthquake and affected Everest base camp.

284
Q

How many people died as a result of the Nepal 2015 avalanche?

A

18

Hundreds were directly affected, and many upper level base camps were demolished.

285
Q

What are some factors that affect vulnerability to seismic hazards?

A
  • Hazard Resistant Structures
  • Wealth
  • Education + Preparation strategies
  • Fire Prevention, Aid and Emergency services
  • Topography of Surroundings
  • Defence infrastructure
286
Q

Fill in the blank: Hazard _______ Structures can reduce vulnerability to seismic hazards.

A

[Resistant]

These structures are designed to withstand seismic activity.

287
Q

True or False: Education and preparation strategies can increase vulnerability to seismic hazards.

A

False

Education and preparation strategies help reduce vulnerability.

288
Q

What are the main components of the Earth’s core?

A

Iron and Nickel

The inner core is solid despite temperatures around 3700 degrees Celsius.

289
Q

What causes convection currents in the Earth’s core?

A

High temperatures in the inner core

These temperatures lead to the movement of molten material.

290
Q

What is the composition of the mantle?

A

Molten silicates and other minerals

It is the source of movement in Earth’s interior.

291
Q

How deep do convection currents in the mantle extend?

A

2900 km deep

This depth is significant for the movement of tectonic plates.

292
Q

What are the two types of crust?

A

Continental and Oceanic

Continental crust is less dense, while oceanic crust is more dense.

293
Q

What is the thickness of the lithosphere?

A

Approximately 80 - 90 km thick

It includes the crust and the rigid upper section of the mantle.

294
Q

What does the lithosphere consist of?

A

Crust and rigid upper mantle

It is divided into 7 different larger plates.

295
Q

What is the asthenosphere?

A

Semi-molten layer beneath the lithosphere

This allows the tectonic plates above to float and move.

296
Q

What theory did Alfred Wegener propose?

A

Theory of Continental Drift

It suggests that continents were once part of a supercontinent.

297
Q

How does Wegener’s theory suggest continents drifted apart?

A

Rock types and dinosaur species across continents

The continents fit together like a jigsaw puzzle.

298
Q

Fill in the blank: The ________ is a zone of molten silicates and other minerals.

299
Q

True or False: The asthenosphere is a rigid layer.

A

False

The asthenosphere is semi-molten.

300
Q

What did Harry Hess study regarding the Atlantic Ocean?

A

The age of the rocks on the floor of the Atlantic Ocean

301
Q

Where are the youngest rocks located in the Atlantic Ocean?

A

In the middle (Iceland)

302
Q

Where are the oldest rocks located in the Atlantic Ocean?

A

Nearest the USA and Caribbean

303
Q

What is the estimated rate of sea floor spreading?

A

5cm per year

304
Q

What phenomenon confines the rate of sea floor spreading?

A

Paleomagnetism

305
Q

How often does the earth’s magnetic field switch polarity?

A

Every 400,000 years or so

306
Q

What records the earth’s magnetic orientation at the time of lava eruption?

A

Magnetic (Iron Oxide) in lava

307
Q

What is indicated by mirror images patterns of switches or reversals on the sea floor?

A

Sea floor spreading from mid-ocean ridges

308
Q

What is Ridge Push?

A

Gravitational sliding at mid-ocean ridges

309
Q

What happens to magma at mid-ocean ridges?

A

It heats surrounding rocks and forms new rock that cools and becomes denser

310
Q

What causes new rock to slide down the slope at mid-ocean ridges?

311
Q

What is Slab Pull?

A

A dominant theory explaining the movement of plates at a destructive margin

312
Q

How can you tell that a subducting oceanic plate denser than the surrounding material at a destructive margin?

A

Because it sinks into the mantle

313
Q

What effect does the sinking oceanic plate have on the rest of the plate?

A

It pulls the rest of the plate behind it

314
Q

Fill in the blank: The process that occurs at mid-ocean ridges is called _______.

A

[Ridge Push]

315
Q

True or False: Slab Pull has emerged as a less dominant theory over the last decade.

316
Q

What direction do the plates move at a Divergent/Constructive plate margin

A

Away from each other

317
Q

What direction do tectonic plates move in a Convergent/Destructive/Collision plate margin

A

Towards each other

318
Q

What direction do tectonic plates move in a Transformer/Conservative plate boundary

A

Move in a parallel direction

319
Q

What landforms can form at divergent/constructive plate boundaries

A

Rift Valleys, Mid Ocean Ridges, Volcanic Islands

320
Q

What landforms can form at Convergant/Destructive plate boundaries

A

Deep Ocean Trenches, Island Arcs, Explosive Acid Volcanoes, Fold Mountains

321
Q

Describe the formation of young fold mountains

A
  • Occurs when 2 equal density continental crusts converge
  • As they converge the pushing force causes the plates to move up into fold mountains
  • Some material is forced downwards causing the mountain to form roots
322
Q

Describe the formation of Rift Valleys

A
  • As continental plates move apart they become brittle and start to fracture
  • Sections of crust move apart causing the land in between the faults to collapse into deep wide valleys (called Graben), separated by upright blocs of Land (called horsts).
323
Q

Describe the formation of Ocean Ridges

A
  • At a constructive plate margin where 2 oceanic plates begin to move apart.
  • This happens due to ridge push caused by mantle convection.
  • This forms a ridge in the middle of the ocean and can cause earthquakes
324
Q

Describe the formation of deep sea trenches

A
  • Where an oceanic and continental plate meet, the denser oceanic plate is forced bellow the less dense continental one.
  • This oceanic plate is further moved down by ridge push
  • The down warping of this oceanic plate forms a deep trench beneath the ocean
325
Q

Describe the formation of Island Arks

A
  • Radiation from the earths core can cause the mantle to have a much larger temperature
  • This allows it to break through the mantle forming “hot spots”
  • When “hot spots” occur underwater mantle can cool to form a volcano
  • If eruptions occur offshore a line of volcanic islands to form
326
Q

Describe the formation of Volcanoes at a convergent plate margin

A

At the boundary when an oceanic plate subducts bellow a continental plate, the less dense continental plate rises and scrunches up into a fold/composite volcano

327
Q

Describe the formation of Volcanoes at Constructive plate margins

A

At divergent boundaries, shield volcanoes form as large amounts of mantle exit the gap and cooling to form a shallow slopes shield volcano

328
Q

Where do volcanoes tend to be found globally?

A

Volcanoes tend to surround the Pacific Plate around the ‘Ring of Fire’ on destructive and constructive margins with other plates.

329
Q

What are the two types of plate margins where volcanoes occur?

A

Volcanoes occur on constructive and destructive margins.

330
Q

What are hotspots in relation to volcano formation?

A

Hotspots are areas in the mantle where magma is warmer due to radioactive decay, causing volcanic activity.

331
Q

What happens when a volcano occurs at a hotspot underwater?

A

It forms land on the surface as the magma burns through the crust.

332
Q

How does the movement of tectonic plates affect volcano formation at hotspots?

A

As plates move, the crack in the crust moves with it, leading to the formation of new islands.

333
Q

True or False: Volcanoes only occur at destructive margins.

334
Q

What determines the severity of a volcanic hazard?

A

Multiple factors including magnitude, type of eruption, aerial extent, duration, and speed of onset.

Each of these factors contributes to the overall impact of a volcanic event.

335
Q

How does the magnitude of a volcanic eruption affect damage?

A

It influences the extent of damage and the time available for the surrounding population to prepare.

Higher magnitude eruptions typically result in more significant damage and can catch populations off guard.

336
Q

What is the impact of the type of eruption on volcanic hazards?

A

Different eruption types (gas, ash, lava, pyroclastic) lead to varying levels of human damage, with pyroclastic flows usually being more destructive than lava flows.

Pyroclastic flows can travel faster and are more deadly than lava flows.

337
Q

What role does aerial extent play in volcanic hazards?

A

Large airborne ash clouds can restrict air travel and hinder aerial aid from other nations.

This can delay rescue and recovery efforts following a volcanic event.

338
Q

How does the duration of a volcanic eruption affect its impact?

A

It influences the distance lava flows travel and the extent of damage, as well as the time required for recovery.

Longer eruptions may lead to more extensive damage and prolonged recovery periods.

339
Q

What is the significance of the speed of onset in volcanic hazards?

A

It affects the response time needed to reduce casualties and minimize damage.

A rapid onset can lead to higher casualties as there is less time for evacuation.

340
Q

What is the main measurement of volcanic magnitude?

A

VEI (Volcanic explosivity index)

The VEI is a logarithmic scale running from 0-8.

341
Q

What is the characteristic of the Richter scale in relation to volcanic measurement?

A

Outdated, location specific, California centric

The Richter scale is not commonly used for volcanic hazards.

342
Q

How can the frequency and regularity of eruptions be used in volcanic hazard assessment?

A

They indicate potential volcanic activity

Eruptions of Mount St Helens and Chances Peak, Montserrat, highlighted that dormant volcanoes can become active.

343
Q

What factors affect the characteristics of magma?

A

Silica content and tectonic margin

Higher silica content leads to higher viscosity and more violent eruptions.

344
Q

What type of volcano is formed at destructive margins?

A

Composite Volcano

These volcanoes have a higher cone shape and are more explosive.

345
Q

What type of volcano is formed at constructive margins?

A

Shield Volcano

Shield volcanoes have gently sloped profiles and more gentle eruptions.

346
Q

Fill in the blank: Higher silica contents lead to _______ viscosity.

347
Q

True or False: Volcanoes at constructive margins tend to be more explosive.

A

False

Explosive volcanoes are typically found at destructive margins.

348
Q

What is a significant volcanic eruption event in 1980?

A

Eruption of Mount St Helens

This eruption challenged the notion of long-term dormancy.

349
Q

What is a significant volcanic eruption event in 1995?

A

Eruption of Chances Peak, Montserrat

Similar to Mount St Helens, this eruption proved its previous dormancy was misleading.

350
Q

What are tephra?

A

Fragments of rock produced when magma/rock is explosively ejected

Tephra can vary in size from 64mm diameter blocks/bombs to less than 2mm and can travel thousands of square kilometers.

351
Q

What is the primary risk associated with lava flows?

A

Anything in the flow’s path will be burnt, knocked over, buried, or melted

While deaths due to lava flows are uncommon, injury and localized risks do exist.

352
Q

What characterizes pyroclastic events?

A

A high density mix of hot lava blocks, ash, and volcanic gases

These flows can travel at speeds of 50 mph and temperatures between 200-700 degrees Celsius.

353
Q

What are the typical speeds and temperatures of pyroclastic flows?

A

Speeds of 50 mph at temperatures between 200-700 degrees Celsius

This makes pyroclastic flows highly dangerous to the surrounding area.

354
Q

What types of gases can be emitted during a volcanic eruption?

A

Volcanic gases such as CO2

These gases can flow down the slopes of volcanoes and can be lethal to life but typically have no impact on infrastructure.

355
Q

True or False: Ash poses a greater threat to life compared to lava flows.

A

False

Ash and tephra pose little threat to life compared to other primary effects of volcanic eruptions.

356
Q

Fill in the blank: Pyroclastic flows consist of a mix of hot lava blocks, ash, and _______.

A

volcanic gases

357
Q

What is the main effect of tephra on infrastructure?

A

Disruption to surrounding infrastructure

Tephra can travel over large areas, affecting various structures.

358
Q

What is the viscosity of rock in relation to lava flows?

A

Differing viscosity affects the speed of lava flows

The viscosity determines how quickly lava can move, impacting its destructive potential.

359
Q

What are lahars?

A

Unconsolidated ash from a recent eruption combined with water, forming a hot dense mudflow

Lahars can cause large scale devastation to areas surrounding volcanoes.

360
Q

What is acid rain?

A

Rain caused by sulfur dioxide dissolved in rainwater

Acid rain can damage property surrounding the eruption and may cause potential health problems.

361
Q

How do volcanic eruptions affect climate change?

A

Ash clouds can reduce the effect of the sun’s rays, causing global temperatures to temporarily drop

This effect is global but typically has no huge long-term impact.

362
Q

What can volcanic eruptions cause in areas with ice sheets?

A

Melting of ice sheets, leading to flooding and torrents of meltwater

This flooding can wash away land, agriculture, infrastructure, and properties, causing large scale damage.

363
Q

What are tsunamis in relation to volcanic eruptions?

A

Sea waves generated by violent volcanic eruptions

An example is the tsunamis formed by Krakatoa in 1883, which caused significant damage to coastlines.

364
Q

What type of eruption occurred at Lake Nyos?

A

Gas Eruption

Lake Nyos experienced a gas eruption characterized by the release of CO2 clouds denser than air.

365
Q

When did the Lake Nyos gas eruption occur?

A

August 21st, 1986

This event led to the suffocation of villagers due to the dense CO2 cloud.

366
Q

What caused the CO2 to emerge from Lake Nyos?

A

A landslide

The landslide triggered the release of gas clouds from fissures beneath the lake.

367
Q

How many people were found dead after the Lake Nyos eruption?

A

606

This includes 6 individuals who suffocated in their sleep and 600 others later discovered deceased.

368
Q

What type of eruption occurred at Krakatoa?

A

Pyroclastic Eruption

Krakatoa’s eruption was marked by four large eruptions on August 27, 1883.

369
Q

What natural disaster was caused by the Krakatoa eruption?

A

Tsunami

The pyroclastic flow from the eruption entered the ocean, generating a tsunami that traveled at 150 mph.

370
Q

How many people were killed due to the Krakatoa eruption and its tsunami?

A

36,000

The tsunami caused significant loss of life following the eruption.

371
Q

What type of eruptions does Kilauea produce?

A

Lava Eruptions

Kilauea is known as the world’s most active volcano and primarily produces lava.

372
Q

What risk does Kilauea pose to life or infrastructure?

A

Little risk

Buildings are constructed away from the lava flows, minimizing damage.

373
Q

In how many years is a new island likely to form from Kilauea?

A

60,000 years

This indicates the long-term geological processes involved in volcanic activity.

374
Q

True or False: The eruptions at Kilauea regularly cause significant damage to nearby buildings.

A

False

Due to strategic building practices, Kilauea’s eruptions do not typically damage infrastructure.

375
Q

What event led to the evacuation of almost 60,000 people in the Philippines in 1991?

A

Continuous ash eruptions at Piratebo

This was one of the largest eruptions in the 20th century.

376
Q

What natural phenomena accompanied the volcanic eruptions at Piratebo?

A

Repeated earthquakes and pyroclastic flows

These did not result in fatalities.

377
Q

What was the primary cause of the 320 deaths during the Piratebo eruption?

A

Strong mudflows/lahars destroying and burying properties

Structural issues caused by earthquakes contributed to the devastation.

378
Q

What is an essential preparation step for volcanic events?

A

Predictions and practice evacuations

Monitoring systems can provide warnings for early evacuation.

379
Q

What is the purpose of lava control technology, as seen in Eyajaffukol?

A

To save people, infrastructure, and properties from damage

This helps to minimize the overall damage during an eruption.

380
Q

When lava control is not possible, what is a recommended option?

A

Evacuation

This remains a viable strategy to ensure safety.

381
Q

What adaptation strategies can help reduce damage from volcanic eruptions?

A

Differing building design and zoning

These strategies can lower death tolls and costs associated with eruptions.

382
Q

When did Mount Etna erupt in 2002-2003?

A

Late night of October 26th 2002

This eruption was aggressive and had a huge impact on the surroundings.

383
Q

Where is Mount Etna located?

A

East coast of Sicily in the Metropolitan City of Catania

It is known as Europe’s most active volcano.

384
Q

What geological feature contributes to Mount Etna’s activity?

A

Convergent plate boundary

The African plate subducts below the Eurasian plate.

385
Q

What type of volcano is Mount Etna primarily classified as?

A

Shield volcano and explosive composite volcano

The bottom is a shield volcano, while the upper section is an explosive composite volcano.

386
Q

What happens as pressure from plate subduction increases?

A

The volcano begins to erupt

This leads to the frequent eruptions of Mount Etna.

387
Q

How do locals perceive Mount Etna?

A

As a mother figure, often called ‘Mama Etna’

This reflects a sense of family and harmony with the volcano.

388
Q

What significance do some people attribute to Mount Etna?

A

Religious significance

Lava flows have avoided religious statues, which gives Christians faith in its consciousness.

389
Q

Why do residents rarely see Mount Etna as a threat?

A

Regular eruptions cause little damage

Lava flows do not typically harm agricultural areas.

390
Q

What type of jobs do many people in the area of Mount Etna hold?

A

Lower paying primary sector jobs

This is influenced by the land use and agricultural activities in the region.

391
Q

How many volcanic sensors were present on Mount Etna?

A

78 volcanic sensors

This regulation helps monitor volcanic activity.

392
Q

What date did the 2002-2003 Mount Etna eruption occur?

A

Late on October 26th, 2002

This eruption led to a range of significant impacts.

393
Q

How many people were forced to flee their homes due to the 2002-2003 Mount Etna eruption?

A

1000

This evacuation was a direct result of the eruption’s social impact.

394
Q

What type of infrastructure was damaged during the 2002-2003 Mount Etna eruption?

A

Transport infrastructure

Streets were coated in clouds of ash.

395
Q

Which areas of Mount Etna were most affected by the 2002-2003 eruption?

A

South and north east sides

The southern villages experienced a slightly larger impact.

396
Q

What happened to a BBC film crew during the eruption?

A

They were badly injured by volcanic bombs and pyroclastic material

This incident highlights the dangers posed by volcanic eruptions.

397
Q

Were church gatherings affected during the 2002-2003 Mount Etna eruption?

A

No, many church gatherings still took place

The church remained open during the eruptions.

398
Q

What happened to old tourist buildings after the 2002-2003 Mount Etna eruption?

A

They were replaced with new movable tourist buildings

This was part of the economic impact of the eruption.

399
Q

What was the name of the restaurant that was destroyed and rebuilt after the 1983 eruption?

A

La Cantoniera

It had to be rebuilt in the same area after its destruction.

400
Q

What impact did the eruption have on agricultural land?

A

Agricultural land was damaged

This affected many people’s livelihoods.

401
Q

What geological feature formed as a result of the 2002-2003 Mount Etna eruption?

A

Lava tubes

These formed in the surrounding area.

402
Q

What long-term effect did the 2002-2003 Mount Etna eruption have on soil fertility?

A

Increase in soil fertility

The ash and material covered green areas, contributing to this effect.

403
Q

What action did local authorities take in response to the 2002-2003 Mount Etna eruption?

A

Zoned areas in terms of their safety

This was part of the political impact of the eruption.