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Radiology Technician > hartwein test 4 > Flashcards

hartwein test 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Which part of the small intestine has a feathery appearance when filled with barium?

A

jejunum

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2
Q

Which part of the small intestine has the largest diameter?

A

duodenum

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3
Q

Which part of the small intestine is the shortest?

A

duodenum

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4
Q

Which part of the small intestine makes up three fifths of the entirety?

A

Ileum

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5
Q

Which aspect of the large intestine is located highest, or most superior, in the abdomen?

A

left colic flexure

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6
Q

Which of the following structures is not considered part of the colon?

A

rectum

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7
Q

Which part of the large intestine is located between the rectum and the descending colon?

A

Sigmoid colon

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8
Q

Which part of the colon has the greatest amount of potential movement?

A

transverse colon

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9
Q

What part of the large intestine has the widest diameter?

A

cecum

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10
Q

What is the term for the three bands of muscle that pull the large intestine into pouches?

A

taenia coli

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11
Q

The sigmoid colon and upper rectum are infraperitoneal structure (true/false)

A

true

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12
Q

Which section of the large intestine will most likely be filled with air with the patient in the prone position during a double contrast barium enema?

A

transverse and sigmoid colon

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13
Q

Which part of the GI tract synthesizes and absorbs vitamins B and K

A

Large intestine

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14
Q

The circular staircase, or herringbone pattern, is a common radiographic sign for a mechanical ileus (true/false)

A

true

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15
Q

Meckel diverticulum is best diagnosed with a nuclear medicine scan. (true/false)

A

true

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16
Q

Which of the following conditions may lead to an adynamic ileus?

A

peritonitis

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17
Q

Which of the following conditions may produce the “cobblestone” or string sign?

A

Regional enteritis (Crohn’s disease)

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18
Q

which of the following procedures is considered as a functional study?

A

Small bowel series

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19
Q

When are small bowel series deemed to be complete?

A

Once the contrast media passes the ileocecal valve

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20
Q

The term describing a double-contrast small bowel procedure is:

A

enteroclysis

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21
Q

The enteroclysis procedure is indicated for patients with regional enteritis.(true/false)

A

true

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22
Q

The patient must be NPO a minimum of ____hours before the small bowel series.

A

8

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23
Q

The tip of the catheter is advanced to the ___ during an enterclysis.

A

duodenojejunal junction (ligament of Treitz)

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24
Q

A twisting of the intestine on its own mesentery is termed:

A

volvulus

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25
Q

A telescoping, or invagination, of one part of the intestine into another is termed:

A

intussusception

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26
Q

The “stovepipe” radiographic sign is often seen with

A

chronic ulcerative colitis

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27
Q

The tapered, “or”corksrew,” radiographic sign is often seen with:

A

volvulus

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28
Q

Which radiographic sign is frequently seen with adenocarcinoma of the large intestine?

A

“Napkin ring” or “apple core” sign

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29
Q

Ultrasound, with graded compression, can be use in diagnosing acute appendicitis (true/false)

A

true

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30
Q

CT is being performed to diagnose acute appendicitis (true/false)

A

true

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31
Q

Which of the following s classified as an irritant laxative?

A

Castor oil

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32
Q

Which of the following conditions would contraindicate the use of a cathartic before a barium enema?

A

Obstruction

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33
Q

Synthetic latex enema tips are safe to use for latex-sensitive patients. (true/false)

A

true

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34
Q

Rectal retention enema tips should be fully inflated by the technologist before beginning a barium enema. (true/false)

A

false

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35
Q

At what stage of respiration should the enema tip be inserted into the rectum?

A

Suspended expiration

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36
Q

In what position is the patient placed for the enema tip insertion?

A

Sims

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37
Q

During the initial enema tip insertion, the tip is aimed:

A

toward the umbilicus

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38
Q

Which of the following pathologic conditions is best demonstrated with evacuative proctography?

A

Rectal prolapse

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39
Q

Which specific aspect of the large intestine must be demonstrated during evacuative proctography?

A

anorectal angle

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40
Q

The ideal kV range kV a double-contrast barium enema is

A

90 to 100

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41
Q

Evacuative proctography is most commonly performed on geriatric patients. (true/false)

A

true

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42
Q

During a colostomy barium enema, a double-contrast retention enema tip is used (true/false)

A

false

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43
Q

The opening leading into the intestine for the patient with a colostomy is termed the stoma (true/false)

A

true

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44
Q

The height of the enema bag should not exceed 36 inches (91 cm) above the radiographic table at the beginning of he study (true/false)

A

true

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45
Q

Which imaging modality can demonstrate abscesses in the retroperitoneum?

A

MRI

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46
Q

Which one of the following imaging modalities and/or procedures is very effective in detecting the Meckel diverticulum?

A

Nuclear medicine

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47
Q

Which of the following statements is not true in regard to a pediatric small bowel series?

A

The transit time for barium through the small intestine is longer than that of an adult

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48
Q

What type of enema tip is recommended for a barium enema on an infant?

A

10Fr, flexibe silicone catheter

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49
Q

Central ray and image receptor centering for a 1-hur small bowel radiograph should be:

A

at the level of the iliac crest

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50
Q

Which projection and/or position is most commonly performed during an evacuative proctogram

A

Lateral

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51
Q

Why is the PA rather than the AP recommended for a small bowel series?

A

better separation of loops of small intestine

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52
Q

Which of the following position best demonstrates the left colic flexure?

A

LAO

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53
Q

Which of the following barium enema projections and/or positions provides the greatest amount of gonadal dosage to both male and female patients?

A

Left lateral decubitus

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54
Q

What is another term for the AP axial projection taken during a barium enema procedure?

A

Butterfly position

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55
Q

How much CR angulation is required for the AP axial projection?

A

30-40 degrees

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56
Q

Why is it important for the technologist to review the patient’s chart and inform the radiologist before beginning the BE exam if a biopsy was performed as part of a prior sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy procedure?

A

the biopsy of the colon may weaken that portion o the colon, which could lead to a perforation during the BE exam

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57
Q

Overhead, radiographic projections are often not taken when using digital fluoroscopy (true/false)

A

true

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58
Q

A single-stage, double contrast barium enema involves instilling both the negative and positive contrast media at the same time (true/false)

A

true

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59
Q

Computed tomography colonography (CTC) is Considered as an effective alternative to endoscopic colonoscopy (true/false)

A

true

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60
Q

Why is contrast media sometimes given during computed tomography colonography?

A

to mark or “tag” possible fecal matter

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61
Q

The average time to scan the large intestine during a computed tomography colonography is

A

10 minutes

62
Q

Inflammation of the intestine

A

enterities

63
Q

chronic inflammatory disease of the GI tract

A

Regional enteritis (Crohn’s disease)

64
Q

Patient with lactose or sucrose sensitivities

A

Malabsorption syndrome (sprue)

65
Q

New growth observed in intestine as filling defects

A

Neoplasm

66
Q

Obstruction of the small intestine

A

Ileus

67
Q

Are often found 50 to100 cm proximal to he ileocecal valve

A

Meckel diverticulum

68
Q

Common parasitic infection of the small intestine

A

Giardiasis

69
Q

Obstruction of the small intestine due to the cessation of peristalsis

A

Adynamic or paralyticileus

70
Q

The suprarenal glands are part of the urinary system (true/false)

A

false

71
Q

The left kidney is generally slightly lower, or more inferior, than the right (true/false)

A

false

72
Q

Which abdominal muscles run on each side of, and medial land posterior to, the kidneys?

A

right and left psoas major

73
Q

The average adult kidney measures ___ in length.

A

4 to 5 inches (10 to 13 cm)

74
Q

What structure enables the kidneys to be visualized on plain abdominal radiographs?

A

Adipose capsule

75
Q

Which of the following functions is not performed by the urinary system?

A

producing and releasing adrenaline

76
Q

The term describing the total functioning portions of the kidney is the

A

renal parenchyma

77
Q

Urine will travel from the major calyces to the

A

renal pelvis

78
Q

The glomeruli, glomerular capsule, and proximal and distal convoluted tubules are located in the ___ of the kidney.

A

cortex

79
Q

The structural and functional unit of the kidney is

A

the nephron

80
Q

One of the three constricted points along each ureter is the pelvic brim. The location of this constricted point is

A

where the iliac blood vessels cross over the ureters

81
Q

What is the total capacity of the average adult bladder?

A

350 to 500 ml

82
Q

Which term describes the act of voiding under voluntary control?

A

urination

83
Q

The numerous mucosal folds located within the urinary bladder are termed:

A

rugae

84
Q

Ionic contrast agents use a parent compound of a carboxyl; group (benzsoic acid) (true/false)

A

true

85
Q

Nonionic contrast agents create a hypertonic condition in the blood plasmas compared with ionic contrast agents (true/false)

A

false

86
Q

Nonionic contrast agents may increase the severity of side effects as compared with ionic contrast agents (true/false)

A

false

87
Q

ionic contrast agents are more expensive than nonionic agents (true/false)

A

false

88
Q

Which of the following compounds is common cation (+) found in ionic contrast media?

A

meglumine

89
Q

Which component of an ionic contrast media adds to its solubility?

A

cation

90
Q

Which of the following is true with nonionic type contrast media?

A

low osmolality
the inability to dissociate into two separate ions
less chance of reaction

91
Q

Which of the following occurs in many patients and is defined as an expected outcome to the introduction of iodinated contrast media?

A

metallic taste in mouth and temporary hot flash

92
Q

the American college of radiology recommends that metformin (a drug used for diabetes mellitus be withheld for ___following a contrast media procedure

A

48 hours

93
Q

The normal creatinine level (diagnostic indication of kidney function) for an adult is:

A

0.6 to 1.5 mg/dl

94
Q

Normal BUN (blood urea nitrogen) levels in adults should not exceed ___mg per 100 ml.

A

25

95
Q

What is the primary purpose of the premedication procedure before an iodinated contrast media study?

A

reduces the severity of a possible contrast media reaction

96
Q

Which on of the following dugs is often given before an IVU to reduce the risk of a contrast media reaction?

A

Benadryl and prednisone

97
Q

Which of the following symptoms is classified as a mild reaction?

A

itching

98
Q

If a patient experiences tachycardia (>100 heartbeats/min) following a contrast media injection, he or she is experiencing a (n) ___ reaction.

A

moderate

99
Q

If a patient experiences laryngeal swelling following a contrast media injection, he or she is experiencing a ___ reaction.

A

severe

100
Q

A vasovagal contrast media reaction can be life threatening (true/false)

A

true

101
Q

A medical emergency must be declared if the patient experiences a moderate contrast media reaction (true/false)

A

true

102
Q

Extravasation is classified as an organ-specific contrast media reaction. (true/false)

A

true

103
Q

Temporary renal failure is classified as a (n) ___ contrast media reaction.

A

organ-specific

104
Q

The drug, Lasix, is classified as a:

A

diuretic

105
Q

A loss of consciousness due to reduced cerebral blood flow is termed:

A

syncope

106
Q

Region or areas of subcutaneous swelling due to allergic reaction to foods or drugs is termed

A

angioedema

107
Q

Which of the following symptoms is considered a severe reaction to contrast media and is a life threatening condition w=requiring life-saving measures?

A

none of the above

108
Q

Which of the following condition is considered to be high risk for a contrast media study of the urinary system?

A

congestive heart failure

109
Q

What is the correct course of action for the technologist when, during an injection of contrast media, a patient experiences a side effect of mild hot flashes land some metallic taste in his mouth?

A

Reassure the patient and continue the injection and imaging sequence, while carefully observing the patient for a possible more severe reaction to follow

110
Q

Which term describes the leakage of contrast media from a vein into the surrounding tissues of the arm?

A

extravasation

111
Q

Which level of severity is the reaction of giant hives?

A

moderate reaction

112
Q

Which of the following is considered as high-risk condition for an IVU exam?

A

anuria

113
Q

Which of the following conditions is considered a moderate level reaction requiring treatment?

A

tachycardia

114
Q

What is the recommended treatment protocol for extravasation?

A

elevate the limb and apply cold compress

115
Q

The rapid introduction of contrast agents into the vascular system is termed:

A

bolus injection

116
Q

Venipuncture procedures may be performed by technologist only if a physician is present in the room or is in an adjoining room. (true/false)

A

false

117
Q

Patients (or legal guardian) must sign an informed consent form before a venipuncture procedure (true/false)

A

true

118
Q

In preparation for a venipuncture, a toumiquet should be applied ___ above or proximal to the site of injection.

A

3 to 4 inches (8 to 10 cm)

119
Q

The most common size of needle used for bolus injection of contrast agents for adult patients is:

A

18 to 22 gauge

120
Q

The bevel of the needle must be facing downward during the actual puncture into a vein (true/false)

A

false

121
Q

If available, the technologist should use a central line catheter to introduce contrast agents into the patient.(true/false)

A

false

122
Q

Over-the-needle catheters are often used for drip infusion studies (true/false)

A

true

123
Q

Which of the following veins is not normally used during venipuncture?

A

axillary

124
Q

The technologist should leave a butterfly needle in the vein for the first part of the IVU following injection. (true/false)

A

true

125
Q

Patchy, blunting of the calyces is a radiographic sign of:

A

chronic pyelonephritis

126
Q

CT of the kidney for renal calculi does not require the use of intravenous contrast media (true/false)

A

true

127
Q

Ultrasound is an effective imaging modality in demonstrating cystitis. (true/false)

A

false

128
Q

If an IVU is performed on a female, a menstrual history must be obtained> (true/false)

A

true

129
Q

Ureteric compression is contraindicated for patients with a history of:

A

abdominal mass

130
Q

How is contrast media normally introduced during a retrograde cystogram?

A

gravity flow through a catheter

131
Q

What is the recommended position for a male retrograde urethrogram?

A

30 degrees RPO

132
Q

With AEC, which ionization chamber (s) should be activated for a AP projection taken during an IVU?

A

Left land fright upper chambers

133
Q

What is the average gonadal dosage range for a female patient during a AP or oblique IVU projection?

A

30 to 75 mrad

134
Q

Generally, female patient cannot be shielded during an IVU (except for nephrotomography) (true/;false)

A

true

135
Q

A tomographic procedure, frequently performed as part of an IVU examination an using an exposure angle of 10 degrees or less, is termed:

A

zonography

136
Q

Where is the CR centered for a nephrotomogram of the kidneys?

A

midway between the iliac crest and the xphoid process

137
Q

If both procedures are order on the same day, a barium enema must be performed before an IVU. (true/false)

A

false

138
Q

The majority of reactions to contrast media are mild reactions.(true/false)

A

true

139
Q

Acute, local inflammatory response to the skin can peak 24 to 48 hours following extravasation of contrast media (true/false)

A

true

140
Q

Absence of a functioning kidney

A

renal agenesis

141
Q

Excretion of diminished amounts of urine

A

oliguria or hypouresis

142
Q

Act of voiding

A

micturition

143
Q

Complete cessation of urinary secretion

A

polyuria

144
Q

Blood in the urine

A

micturition

145
Q

artifical opening between the urinary bladder and aspects of the large intestine.

A

vesicocolonic fistula

146
Q

normal kidney that fails to ascend into the abdomen, but rather, remains in the pelvis

A

ectopic kidney

147
Q

age-associated enlargement of the prostate gland

A

BPH (benign prostatic hyperplasia)

148
Q

large stone that grows and completely fills the renal pelvis

A

staghorn kidney stone

149
Q

fusion of the kidneys during development of the fetus

A

horseshoe kidney

150
Q

constant or frequent involuntary passage o urine

A

urinary incontinence

Radiology Technician (6 decks)

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