hartwein test 4 Flashcards
1
Q
Which part of the small intestine has a feathery appearance when filled with barium?
A
jejunum
2
Q
Which part of the small intestine has the largest diameter?
A
duodenum
3
Q
Which part of the small intestine is the shortest?
A
duodenum
4
Q
Which part of the small intestine makes up three fifths of the entirety?
A
Ileum
5
Q
Which aspect of the large intestine is located highest, or most superior, in the abdomen?
A
left colic flexure
6
Q
Which of the following structures is not considered part of the colon?
A
rectum
7
Q
Which part of the large intestine is located between the rectum and the descending colon?
A
Sigmoid colon
8
Q
Which part of the colon has the greatest amount of potential movement?
A
transverse colon
9
Q
What part of the large intestine has the widest diameter?
A
cecum
10
Q
What is the term for the three bands of muscle that pull the large intestine into pouches?
A
taenia coli
11
Q
The sigmoid colon and upper rectum are infraperitoneal structure (true/false)
A
true
12
Q
Which section of the large intestine will most likely be filled with air with the patient in the prone position during a double contrast barium enema?
A
transverse and sigmoid colon
13
Q
Which part of the GI tract synthesizes and absorbs vitamins B and K
A
Large intestine
14
Q
The circular staircase, or herringbone pattern, is a common radiographic sign for a mechanical ileus (true/false)
A
true
15
Q
Meckel diverticulum is best diagnosed with a nuclear medicine scan. (true/false)
A
true
16
Q
Which of the following conditions may lead to an adynamic ileus?
A
peritonitis
17
Q
Which of the following conditions may produce the “cobblestone” or string sign?
A
Regional enteritis (Crohn’s disease)
18
Q
which of the following procedures is considered as a functional study?
A
Small bowel series
19
Q
When are small bowel series deemed to be complete?
A
Once the contrast media passes the ileocecal valve
20
Q
The term describing a double-contrast small bowel procedure is:
A
enteroclysis
21
Q
The enteroclysis procedure is indicated for patients with regional enteritis.(true/false)
A
true
22
Q
The patient must be NPO a minimum of ____hours before the small bowel series.
A
8
23
Q
The tip of the catheter is advanced to the ___ during an enterclysis.
A
duodenojejunal junction (ligament of Treitz)
24
Q
A twisting of the intestine on its own mesentery is termed:
A
volvulus
25
A telescoping, or invagination, of one part of the intestine into another is termed:
intussusception
26
The "stovepipe" radiographic sign is often seen with
chronic ulcerative colitis
27
The tapered, "or"corksrew," radiographic sign is often seen with:
volvulus
28
Which radiographic sign is frequently seen with adenocarcinoma of the large intestine?
"Napkin ring" or "apple core" sign
29
Ultrasound, with graded compression, can be use in diagnosing acute appendicitis (true/false)
true
30
CT is being performed to diagnose acute appendicitis (true/false)
true
31
Which of the following s classified as an irritant laxative?
Castor oil
32
Which of the following conditions would contraindicate the use of a cathartic before a barium enema?
Obstruction
33
Synthetic latex enema tips are safe to use for latex-sensitive patients. (true/false)
true
34
Rectal retention enema tips should be fully inflated by the technologist before beginning a barium enema. (true/false)
false
35
At what stage of respiration should the enema tip be inserted into the rectum?
Suspended expiration
36
In what position is the patient placed for the enema tip insertion?
Sims
37
During the initial enema tip insertion, the tip is aimed:
toward the umbilicus
38
Which of the following pathologic conditions is best demonstrated with evacuative proctography?
Rectal prolapse
39
Which specific aspect of the large intestine must be demonstrated during evacuative proctography?
anorectal angle
40
The ideal kV range kV a double-contrast barium enema is
90 to 100
41
Evacuative proctography is most commonly performed on geriatric patients. (true/false)
true
42
During a colostomy barium enema, a double-contrast retention enema tip is used (true/false)
false
43
The opening leading into the intestine for the patient with a colostomy is termed the stoma (true/false)
true
44
The height of the enema bag should not exceed 36 inches (91 cm) above the radiographic table at the beginning of he study (true/false)
true
45
Which imaging modality can demonstrate abscesses in the retroperitoneum?
MRI
46
Which one of the following imaging modalities and/or procedures is very effective in detecting the Meckel diverticulum?
Nuclear medicine
47
Which of the following statements is not true in regard to a pediatric small bowel series?
The transit time for barium through the small intestine is longer than that of an adult
48
What type of enema tip is recommended for a barium enema on an infant?
10Fr, flexibe silicone catheter
49
Central ray and image receptor centering for a 1-hur small bowel radiograph should be:
at the level of the iliac crest
50
Which projection and/or position is most commonly performed during an evacuative proctogram
Lateral
51
Why is the PA rather than the AP recommended for a small bowel series?
better separation of loops of small intestine
52
Which of the following position best demonstrates the left colic flexure?
LAO
53
Which of the following barium enema projections and/or positions provides the greatest amount of gonadal dosage to both male and female patients?
Left lateral decubitus
54
What is another term for the AP axial projection taken during a barium enema procedure?
Butterfly position
55
How much CR angulation is required for the AP axial projection?
30-40 degrees
56
Why is it important for the technologist to review the patient's chart and inform the radiologist before beginning the BE exam if a biopsy was performed as part of a prior sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy procedure?
the biopsy of the colon may weaken that portion o the colon, which could lead to a perforation during the BE exam
57
Overhead, radiographic projections are often not taken when using digital fluoroscopy (true/false)
true
58
A single-stage, double contrast barium enema involves instilling both the negative and positive contrast media at the same time (true/false)
true
59
Computed tomography colonography (CTC) is Considered as an effective alternative to endoscopic colonoscopy (true/false)
true
60
Why is contrast media sometimes given during computed tomography colonography?
to mark or "tag" possible fecal matter
61
The average time to scan the large intestine during a computed tomography colonography is
10 minutes
62
Inflammation of the intestine
enterities
63
chronic inflammatory disease of the GI tract
Regional enteritis (Crohn's disease)
64
Patient with lactose or sucrose sensitivities
Malabsorption syndrome (sprue)
65
New growth observed in intestine as filling defects
Neoplasm
66
Obstruction of the small intestine
Ileus
67
Are often found 50 to100 cm proximal to he ileocecal valve
Meckel diverticulum
68
Common parasitic infection of the small intestine
Giardiasis
69
Obstruction of the small intestine due to the cessation of peristalsis
Adynamic or paralyticileus
70
The suprarenal glands are part of the urinary system (true/false)
false
71
The left kidney is generally slightly lower, or more inferior, than the right (true/false)
false
72
Which abdominal muscles run on each side of, and medial land posterior to, the kidneys?
right and left psoas major
73
The average adult kidney measures ___ in length.
4 to 5 inches (10 to 13 cm)
74
What structure enables the kidneys to be visualized on plain abdominal radiographs?
Adipose capsule
75
Which of the following functions is not performed by the urinary system?
producing and releasing adrenaline
76
The term describing the total functioning portions of the kidney is the
renal parenchyma
77
Urine will travel from the major calyces to the
renal pelvis
78
The glomeruli, glomerular capsule, and proximal and distal convoluted tubules are located in the ___ of the kidney.
cortex
79
The structural and functional unit of the kidney is
the nephron
80
One of the three constricted points along each ureter is the pelvic brim. The location of this constricted point is
where the iliac blood vessels cross over the ureters
81
What is the total capacity of the average adult bladder?
350 to 500 ml
82
Which term describes the act of voiding under voluntary control?
urination
83
The numerous mucosal folds located within the urinary bladder are termed:
rugae
84
Ionic contrast agents use a parent compound of a carboxyl; group (benzsoic acid) (true/false)
true
85
Nonionic contrast agents create a hypertonic condition in the blood plasmas compared with ionic contrast agents (true/false)
false
86
Nonionic contrast agents may increase the severity of side effects as compared with ionic contrast agents (true/false)
false
87
ionic contrast agents are more expensive than nonionic agents (true/false)
false
88
Which of the following compounds is common cation (+) found in ionic contrast media?
meglumine
89
Which component of an ionic contrast media adds to its solubility?
cation
90
Which of the following is true with nonionic type contrast media?
low osmolality
the inability to dissociate into two separate ions
less chance of reaction
91
Which of the following occurs in many patients and is defined as an expected outcome to the introduction of iodinated contrast media?
metallic taste in mouth and temporary hot flash
92
the American college of radiology recommends that metformin (a drug used for diabetes mellitus be withheld for ___following a contrast media procedure
48 hours
93
The normal creatinine level (diagnostic indication of kidney function) for an adult is:
0.6 to 1.5 mg/dl
94
Normal BUN (blood urea nitrogen) levels in adults should not exceed ___mg per 100 ml.
25
95
What is the primary purpose of the premedication procedure before an iodinated contrast media study?
reduces the severity of a possible contrast media reaction
96
Which on of the following dugs is often given before an IVU to reduce the risk of a contrast media reaction?
Benadryl and prednisone
97
Which of the following symptoms is classified as a mild reaction?
itching
98
If a patient experiences tachycardia (>100 heartbeats/min) following a contrast media injection, he or she is experiencing a (n) ___ reaction.
moderate
99
If a patient experiences laryngeal swelling following a contrast media injection, he or she is experiencing a ___ reaction.
severe
100
A vasovagal contrast media reaction can be life threatening (true/false)
true
101
A medical emergency must be declared if the patient experiences a moderate contrast media reaction (true/false)
true
102
Extravasation is classified as an organ-specific contrast media reaction. (true/false)
true
103
Temporary renal failure is classified as a (n) ___ contrast media reaction.
organ-specific
104
The drug, Lasix, is classified as a:
diuretic
105
A loss of consciousness due to reduced cerebral blood flow is termed:
syncope
106
Region or areas of subcutaneous swelling due to allergic reaction to foods or drugs is termed
angioedema
107
Which of the following symptoms is considered a severe reaction to contrast media and is a life threatening condition w=requiring life-saving measures?
none of the above
108
Which of the following condition is considered to be high risk for a contrast media study of the urinary system?
congestive heart failure
109
What is the correct course of action for the technologist when, during an injection of contrast media, a patient experiences a side effect of mild hot flashes land some metallic taste in his mouth?
Reassure the patient and continue the injection and imaging sequence, while carefully observing the patient for a possible more severe reaction to follow
110
Which term describes the leakage of contrast media from a vein into the surrounding tissues of the arm?
extravasation
111
Which level of severity is the reaction of giant hives?
moderate reaction
112
Which of the following is considered as high-risk condition for an IVU exam?
anuria
113
Which of the following conditions is considered a moderate level reaction requiring treatment?
tachycardia
114
What is the recommended treatment protocol for extravasation?
elevate the limb and apply cold compress
115
The rapid introduction of contrast agents into the vascular system is termed:
bolus injection
116
Venipuncture procedures may be performed by technologist only if a physician is present in the room or is in an adjoining room. (true/false)
false
117
Patients (or legal guardian) must sign an informed consent form before a venipuncture procedure (true/false)
true
118
In preparation for a venipuncture, a toumiquet should be applied ___ above or proximal to the site of injection.
3 to 4 inches (8 to 10 cm)
119
The most common size of needle used for bolus injection of contrast agents for adult patients is:
18 to 22 gauge
120
The bevel of the needle must be facing downward during the actual puncture into a vein (true/false)
false
121
If available, the technologist should use a central line catheter to introduce contrast agents into the patient.(true/false)
false
122
Over-the-needle catheters are often used for drip infusion studies (true/false)
true
123
Which of the following veins is not normally used during venipuncture?
axillary
124
The technologist should leave a butterfly needle in the vein for the first part of the IVU following injection. (true/false)
true
125
Patchy, blunting of the calyces is a radiographic sign of:
chronic pyelonephritis
126
CT of the kidney for renal calculi does not require the use of intravenous contrast media (true/false)
true
127
Ultrasound is an effective imaging modality in demonstrating cystitis. (true/false)
false
128
If an IVU is performed on a female, a menstrual history must be obtained> (true/false)
true
129
Ureteric compression is contraindicated for patients with a history of:
abdominal mass
130
How is contrast media normally introduced during a retrograde cystogram?
gravity flow through a catheter
131
What is the recommended position for a male retrograde urethrogram?
30 degrees RPO
132
With AEC, which ionization chamber (s) should be activated for a AP projection taken during an IVU?
Left land fright upper chambers
133
What is the average gonadal dosage range for a female patient during a AP or oblique IVU projection?
30 to 75 mrad
134
Generally, female patient cannot be shielded during an IVU (except for nephrotomography) (true/;false)
true
135
A tomographic procedure, frequently performed as part of an IVU examination an using an exposure angle of 10 degrees or less, is termed:
zonography
136
Where is the CR centered for a nephrotomogram of the kidneys?
midway between the iliac crest and the xphoid process
137
If both procedures are order on the same day, a barium enema must be performed before an IVU. (true/false)
false
138
The majority of reactions to contrast media are mild reactions.(true/false)
true
139
Acute, local inflammatory response to the skin can peak 24 to 48 hours following extravasation of contrast media (true/false)
true
140
Absence of a functioning kidney
renal agenesis
141
Excretion of diminished amounts of urine
oliguria or hypouresis
142
Act of voiding
micturition
143
Complete cessation of urinary secretion
polyuria
144
Blood in the urine
micturition
145
artifical opening between the urinary bladder and aspects of the large intestine.
vesicocolonic fistula
146
normal kidney that fails to ascend into the abdomen, but rather, remains in the pelvis
ectopic kidney
147
age-associated enlargement of the prostate gland
BPH (benign prostatic hyperplasia)
148
large stone that grows and completely fills the renal pelvis
staghorn kidney stone
149
fusion of the kidneys during development of the fetus
horseshoe kidney
150
constant or frequent involuntary passage o urine
urinary incontinence
