HARR (CSF-SER-SYN) Flashcards

1
Q
1. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is formed by
ultrafiltration of plasma through the:
A. Choroid plexus
B. Sagittal sinus
C. Anterior cerebral lymphatics
D. Arachnoid membrane
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. Which statement regarding CSF is true?
    A. Normal values for mononuclear cells are higher
    for infants than adults
    B. Absolute neutrophilia is not significant if the
    total WBC count is less than 25/μL
    C. The first aliquot of CSF should be sent to the
    microbiology laboratory
    D. Neutrophils compose the majority of WBCs in
    normal CSF
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. When collecting CSF, a difference between
    opening and closing fluid pressure greater than
    100 mm H2O indicates:
    A. Low CSF volume
    B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
    C. Meningitis
    D. Hydrocephalus
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. Which of the following findings is consistent
    with a subarachnoid hemorrhage rather than a
    traumatic tap?
    A. Clearing of the fluid as it is aspirated
    B. A clear supernatant after centrifugation
    C. Xanthochromia
    D. Presence of a clot in the sample
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
5. The term used to denote a high WBC count in the
CSF is:
A. Empyema
B. Neutrophilia
C. Pleocytosis
D. Hyperglycorrhachia
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Which of the adult CSF values in the following
    table are consistent with bacterial meningitis?

A. WBC: 50/uL; LYM: 44%; MON: 55%; EO: 0%; NEU: 0%; NED cells: 1%

B. WBC: 300/uL; LYM: 75%; MON: 21%; EO: 3%; NEU: 0%; NED cells: 1%

C. WBC: 2,000/uL; LYM: 5%; MON: 15%; EO: 0%; NEU: 80%; NED cells: 0%

D. WBC: 2,500/uL; LYM: 40%; MON: 50%; EO: 0%; NEU: 10%; NED cells: 0%

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. Given the following data, determine the corrected
    CSF WBC count.

CSF RBC: 6,000/uL
PBS RBC: 4.0x10^6/uL
CSF WBC: 150/uL
PBS WBC: 5.0x10^3/uL

A. 8 WBC/μL
B. 142 WBC/μL
C. 120 WBC/μL
D. 145 WBC/μL

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. SITUATION: What is the most likely cause of the
    following CSF results?

CSF glucose: 20mg/dL
CSF protein: 200mg/dL
CSF lactate: 50mg/dL (NV: 5-25mg/dL)

A. Viral meningitis
B. Viral encephalitis
C. Cryptococcal meningitis
D. Acute bacterial meningitis

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions is most often
    associated with normal CSF glucose and protein?
    A. Multiple sclerosis
    B. Malignancy
    C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
    D. Viral meningitis
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. The diagnosis of multiple sclerosis is often based
    upon which finding?
    A. The presence of elevated protein and low glucose
    B. A decreased IgG index
    C. The presence of oligoclonal bands by
    electrophoresis
    D. An increased level of CSF β microglobulin
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
11. Which of the following results is consistent with
fungal meningitis?
A. Normal CSF glucose
B. Pleocytosis of mixed cellularity
C. Normal CSF protein
D. High CSF lactate
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
12. In what suspected condition should a wet prep
using a warm slide be examined?
A. Cryptococcal meningitis
B. Amoebic meningoencephalitis
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection
D. Neurosyphilis
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. Which of the following CSF test results is most
    commonly increased in patients with multiple
    sclerosis?
    A. Glutamine
    B. Lactate
    C. IgG index
    D. Ammonia
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. Which of the following is an inappropriate
    procedure for performing routine CSF analysis?
    A. A differential is done only if the total WBC
    count is greater than 10/μL
    B. A differential should be done on a stained CSF
    concentrate
    C. A minimum of 30 WBCs should be differentiated
    D. A Wright’s-stained slide should be examined
    rather than a chamber differential
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. Which cell is present in the CSF in greater
    numbers in newborns than in older children
    or adults?
    A. Eosinophils
    B. Lymphocytes
    C. Monocytes
    D. Neutrophils
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
16. Neutrophilic pleocytosis is usually associated with
all of the following except:
A. Cerebral infarction
B. Malignancy
C. Myelography
D. Neurosyphilis
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. Which statement about CSF protein is true?
    A. An abnormal serum protein electrophoretic
    pattern does not affect the CSF pattern
    B. The upper reference limit for CSF total protein
    in newborns is one-half adult levels
    C. CSF IgG is increased in panencephalitis,
    malignancy, and neurosyphilis
    D. Antibodies to Treponema pallidum disappear
    after successful antibiotic therapy
A

C

18
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding
    routine microbiological examination of CSF
    is true?
    A. A Gram stain is performed on the CSF prior to
    concentration
    B. The Gram stain is positive in fewer than 40% of
    cases of acute bacterial meningitis
    C. India ink and acid fast stains are indicated if
    neutrophilic pleocytosis is present
    D. All CSF specimens should be cultured using
    sheep blood agar, chocolate agar, and
    supplemented broth
A

D

19
Q
19. Which organism is the most frequent cause of
bacterial meningitis in neonates?
A. Neisseria meningitidis
B. Group B Streptococcus
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Klebsiella pneumoniae
A

B

20
Q
  1. Following a head injury, which protein will
    identify the presence of CSF leakage through
    the nose?
    A. Transthyretin
    B. Myelin basic protein
    C. Tau protein
    D. C-reactive protein
A

C

21
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding
    serous fluids is true?
    A. The normal volume of pleural fluid is 30–50 mL
    B. Mesothelial cells, PMNs, lymphocytes, and
    macrophages may be present in normal fluids
    C. X-ray can detect a 10% increase in the volume
    of a serous fluid
    D. Normal serous fluids are colorless
A

B

22
Q
22. The term effusion refers to:
A. A chest fluid that is purulent
B. A serous fluid that is chylous
C. An increased volume of serous fluid
D. An inflammatory process affecting the
appearance of a serous fluid
A

C

23
Q
  1. Which of the following laboratory results is
    characteristic of a transudative fluid?
    A. SG = 1.018
    B. Total protein = 3.2 g/dL
    C. LD fluid/serum ratio = 0.25
    D. Total protein fluid/serum ratio = 0.65
A

C

24
Q
  1. Which observation is least useful in distinguishing
    a hemorrhagic serous fluid from a traumatic tap?
    A. Clearing of fluid as it is aspirated
    B. Presence of xanthochromia
    C. The formation of a clot
    D. Diminished RBC count in successive aliquots
A

C

25
Q
  1. Which of the following laboratory results on a
    serous fluid is most likely to be caused by a
    traumatic tap?
    A. An RBC count of 8,000/μL
    B. A WBC count of 6,000/μL
    C. A hematocrit of 35%
    D. A neutrophil count of 55%
A

A

26
Q
26. Which of the following conditions is commonly
associated with an exudative effusion?
A. Congestive heart failure
B. Malignancy
C. Nephrotic syndrome
D. Cirrhosis
A

B

27
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions is associated
    with a chylous effusion?
    A. Necrosis
    B. Pulmonary infarction or infection
    C. Systemic lupus erythematosus or rheumatoid
    arthritis
    D. Lymphatic obstruction
A

D

28
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions is most
    often associated with a pleural fluid glucose
    below 30 mg/dL?
    A. Diabetes mellitus
    B. Pancreatitis
    C. RA
    D. Bacterial pneumonia
A

C

29
Q
  1. In which condition is the pleural fluid pH likely
    to be above 7.3?
    A. Bacterial pneumonia with parapneumonic
    exudate
    B. Rheumatoid pleuritis
    C. Esophageal rupture
    D. Pneumothorax
A

D

30
Q
  1. Which of the following hematology values best
    frames the upper reference limits for peritoneal
    fluid?

A. WBC: 300/uL; PMNs: 25%; RBC: 100,000/uL
B. WBC: 10,000/uL; PMNs: 50%; RBC: 500,000/uL
C. WBC: 50,000/uL; PMNs: 50%; RBC: 500,000/uL
D. WBC: 100,000/uL; PMNs: 75%; RBC: 1,000,000/uL

A

A

31
Q
  1. Which of the following characteristics is higher for
    synovial fluid than for the serous fluids?
    A. SG
    B. Glucose
    C. Total protein
    D. Viscosity
A

D

32
Q
  1. In which type of arthritis is the synovial WBC
    count likely to be greater than 50,000/μL?
    A. Septic arthritis
    B. Osteoarthritis
    C. RA
    D. Hemorrhagic arthritis
A

A

33
Q
  1. What type of cell is a “ragocyte”?
    A. Cartilage cell seen in inflammatory arthritis
    B. A PMN with inclusions formed by immune
    complexes
    C. A plasma cell seen in RA
    D. A macrophage containing large inclusions
A

B

34
Q
34. Which of the following crystals is the cause
of gout?
A. Uric acid or monosodium urate
B. Calcium pyrophosphate or apatite
C. Calcium oxalate
D. Cholesterol
A

A

35
Q
35. Which crystal causes “pseudogout”?
A. Oxalic acid
B. Calcium pyrophosphate
C. Calcium oxalate
D. Cholesterol
A

B

36
Q
  1. A synovial fluid sample is examined using a
    polarizing microscope with a red compensating
    filter. Crystals are seen that are yellow when the
    long axis of the crystal is parallel to the slow
    vibrating light. When the long axis of the crystal
    is perpendicular to the slow vibrating light, the
    crystals appear blue. What type of crystal is
    present?
    A. Calcium oxalate
    B. Calcium pyrophosphate
    C. Uric acid
    D. Cholesterol
A

C

37
Q
37. In which condition is the synovial fluid glucose
most likely to be within normal limits?
A. Septic arthritis
B. Inflammatory arthritis
C. Hemorrhagic arthritis
D. Gout
A

C

38
Q
  1. Which statement about synovial fluid in RA
    is true?
    A. Synovial/serum IgG is usually 1:2 or higher
    B. Total hemolytic complement is elevated
    C. Ninety percent of RA cases test positive for
    rheumatoid factor in synovial fluid
    D. Demonstration of rheumatoid factor in joint
    fluid is diagnostic for RA
A

A

39
Q
  1. Which of the following organisms accounts for
    the majority of septic arthritis cases in young and
    middle-age adults?
    A. H. influenzae
    B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
    C. Staphylococcus aureus
    D. Borrelia burgdorferi
A

B

40
Q
  1. Which of the following hematology values best
    frames the upper reference limits for synovial
    fluid?

A. WBC: 200/uL; PMNs: 25%; RBC: 2,000/uL
B. WBC: 5,000/uL; PMNs: 50%; RBC: 10,000/uL
C. WBC: 10,000/uL; PMNs: 50%; RBC: 50,000/uL
D. WBC: 20,000/uL; PMNs: 5%; RBC: 500,000/uL

A

A