Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Final Review Decks > HARD DECK ch 7, 8, 12, 15, 2, 3, 4 > Flashcards

HARD DECK ch 7, 8, 12, 15, 2, 3, 4 Flashcards

1
Q

At rest how many mL of O2 do we consume per kilogram of body weight per minute? What’s another word for this?

A

3.5mL

1 MET

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How much is one MET? What does MET stand for? What does MET mean?

A

1 MET = 3.5 mL Oxygen/kg body weight/min
MET: Metabolic equivalent
One MET is resting Vo2 (Oxygen consumption)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is Systolic blood pressure?
What is a healthy range?

What is Diastolic blood pressure?
What is a healthy range?

A

Systolic - Pressure within the arteries as/after the heart contracts. (sy from “syn” meaning together)
<120 mm Hg

Diastolic - Pressure within the arteries when the heart is resting and filling with blood.
<80 mm Hg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Where are the Atria?

What do they do?

Describe right versus left functions.

A
  • Top of the heart
  • Collects blood returning to the heart
  • Right Atrium: deoxygenated from the entire body
  • Left Atrium: oxygenated from the lungs.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the path of blood travels through in relation to the heart?

A

Oxygenated blood, red, travels from the lungs to the left atrium (top Left). It then fills the left ventricle (bottom) before being pushed out to the body.

Deoxygenated blood, blue, returns to the heart from various body segments through the right atrium (top right). From the right atrium the blood travels through the right ventricle and out to the lungs to be be saturated with oxygen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

List 3 Behavioral Strategies to Enhance Exercise Adherence and generally describe each. (you’ll describe each in more detail later)

A
  1. Self-Management-managing one’s own behavior, thoughts and emotions
  2. Self-Monitoring-daily written record of behavior
  3. Goal Setting-
    a. Assessing current level
    b. Creating s.m.a.r.t. goal for future levels
    c. Detailing the actions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Affirmations versus Compliments

A
  • Compliments are more “I like” statements and create an EXTERNAL advantage point
  • Affirmations are more “you are” statements and creates an INTERNAL client attribute
  • Affirmations show appreciation for clients and their strengths
  • Important to genuinely affirm something the client PERSONALLY VALUES (about client’s thoughts, plans or skills) rather than clothes, sneakers, HR monitor, etc
  • P.T. must LISTEN CAREFULLY to know what to affirm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is SELF-MANAGEMENT?

What are 2 benefits?

Name 5 helpful self-management skills for improving exercise adherence. (how to)

A
  • Managing one’s own:
    1. behaviors
    2. thoughts
    3. emotions
    and changing what’s not working.

Benefit:
1. Improves ability to MONITOR and CHANGE WHAT ISN’T WORKING

  1. COPING WITH and adapting LIFESTYLE CHANGES and DIFFICULTIES THAT might OTHERWISE SHORT-CIRCUIT PLANS to exercise regularly
    associated with beginning or returning to exercise

How-To:

  1. Goal Setting
  2. Self-Monitoring
  3. Positive Self-Talk
  4. Psyching UP
  5. Imagery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How can the client have passion, inspiration and focus from their goals?

What questions can help achieve this?

A

If the goal is an extension of their values

What long term accomplishments do I want? 6 mo, 1 year, next 5 years, and my dream accomplishment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Should short term or long term goals be established first?

A

Long

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

In communication with clients, the goal should not be to communicate information but what instead?

A

Goal should be to build a relationship through a genuine interest in getting to know them.

Communicate with understanding more than information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

List the 3 components of the warm-up for the: -STABILIZATION level, -STRENGTH level, -POWER level of the OPT model.

A
  1. Self Myofascial Release
  2. Stretching:
    a. Static (stabilization)
    b. Active-isolated (strength)
    c. Dynamic (power)
  3. Cardio
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is AUTOGENIC INHIBITION?

A
  • < 7 sec, or 6-15 sec, but Nasm says 30 sec
  • GTO Relaxes the agonist, and the spindle
  • Static Stretching
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What two techniques are used in CORRECTIVE Flexibility? Why is one used before the other?

A
  1. Self-myofascial release 2. STATIC STRETCHING Once the knot or adhesion has calmed down, its easier to re-establish length in the muscle.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What two techniques are used in FUNCTIONAL Flexibility? Why is one done before the other?

A
  1. Self-myofascial release 2. DYNAMIC STRETCHING To get our bodies ready for the movement.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are Open-Chain Exercises?

A

Involve movements in which the distal extremities (hands and feet) are not in a fixed position and the force applied by the body is great enough to overcome the resistance (such as barbells or Dumbbells)

Bench Press Lat Pulldown The Machine Leg Extension Exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are Closed-Chain Exercises?

A

Involve movement in which the distal extremities (hands and feet) are in a constant fixed position and thus the force applied by an individual is not great enough to overcome resistance (such as the ground or an immovable object).

Push-Ups Pull-Ups Squats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is Sarcopenia?

A

Age-related loss of skeletal muscle mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is Osteopenia? How does it effect the body?

A
  • Loss of bone density - Increases likelihood for fractures and other acute and chronic skeletal disorders such as osteoporosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the LEFT exercise?

A

2 Cones 10 yards apart, running between the two in various combinations, 7 times (SAQ exercise)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the MAXIMAL HEAR RATE METHOD for prescribing exercise intensity?

A

208 - (70% of age) = Heart rate max

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following two definitions is of Active Isolated Stretching, and which is Dynamic Stretching?

The active extensions of a muscle, using force production and momentum, to move the joint through the full available range of motion.

A

Active Stretching–The process of using agonists and synergists to dynamically move the joint into a range of motion.

Dynamic Stretching–The active extensions of a muscle, using force production and momentum, to move the joint through the full available range of motion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Force-Velocity Curve

A
  • The relationship of muscle’s ability to produce tension at differing shortening velocities.
  • Velocity of concentric muscle increases, ability to produce force decreases (results thought to be bc overlapping filament may interfere with its ability to form cross bridges with myosin)
  • Velocity of eccentric muscle action increases, the ability to develop force increases (results thought to be b/c elastic component of the connective tissue surrounding and within the muscle).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Give examples of Force-Couples for:

Trunk rotation

Upward rotation of scapula

Hip and knee extension during stair climbing

Plantar flexion

Shoulder Abduction

A
  1. Muscles: Internal and External Obliques; Movement: Trunk Rotation
  2. Muscles: Upper trapezius and the lower portion of the serratus anterior; Movement: upward rotation of scapula
  3. Muscles: Gluteus Maximus, quadriceps, and calf muscles; Movement: produce hip and knee extension during walking, running, stair climbing, etc.
  4. Muscles: Gastrocnemius, peroneus longus, and tibialis posterior Movement: Performing plantarflexion at the foot and ankle complex
  5. Muscles: Deltoid and Rotator Cuff Movement: performing shoulder abduction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Give examples of first, second, and third class levers in the HMS.

What force is in the middle for each lever?

Which do most limbs operate as?

A

1st Class -Fulcrum in middle like a seesaw

(nodding head where the top of spinal column is fulcrum).

2nd Class -Resistance in the middle with fulcrum and the muscle’s effort on either side, like a load in a wheelbarrow(because when you lift a wheelbarrow the effort is on the handles and the fulcrum is on the opposite end with gravity in the middle).

(push-up or calf raise - where the ball of foot is fulcrum, body weight is resistance, effort applied by calf musculature).

3rd Class-Effort in the middle between resistance and the fulcrum -The effort always travels a shorter distance and must be greater than resistance,

(forearm- fulcrum is elbow, the effort is applied by the bicep muscle which attaches slightly outside of the elbow, the load is in the hand like dumbbell when performing bicep curl).

-Most limbs in human body operate as third class levers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Isotonic Muscle Action/Contraction

A

-Constant muscle tension -Force is produced, muscle tension develops, and movement occurs through a given range of motion. -Two types: Eccentric and Concentric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the use of O2 to form Pyruvic Acid (versus lactic acid) in the production of ATP

A

Aerobic Glycolosis! =D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the ATP-PC System?

What makes it significant?

Is it aerobic or anaerobic?

How long does it provide energy for?

When is it activated?

What are two activities that would use this system?

A
  • The process of creating a new ATP molecule from a phosphocreatine molecule.
  • The simplest and fastest of energy systems
  • Occurs without the presence of oxygen (anaerobic)
  • Provides energy for Approx. 10-15 seconds
  • Activated at the onset of exercise, regardless of intensity, b/c of its ability to produce energy very rapidly in comparison with the other systems.
  • Strength training, or sprinting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is glycolysis?

Is it aerobic or anaerobic?

What is its duration?

Why is glycolysis signifiant (2 reasons)?

What is the end result?

A
  • A means of producing ATP through chemical breakdown of glucose.
  • Anaerobic
  • Approx. 30-50 seconds duration
  • Lasts about 8-12 repetitions so most workouts will put greater stress on this system.
  • CREATES SIGNIFICANT AMOUNT OF ENERGY (2 ATP per glucose, 3 ATP per glycogen)
  • End Result: *Glucose or Glycogen broken down into Lactic Acid (anaerobic glycolysis) or Pyruvic Acid (aerobic glycolysis)

EXTRA:

-*Glucose/Glycogen must be converted to glucose-6-phosphate before glycolysis can occur. *converting glucose to glucose-6-phosphate uses 1 ATP molecule *convert glycogen to glucose-6-phosphate does not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the Oxidative System (oxidative phosphorylation)?

What are its defining characteristics in terms of simplicity/complexity, speed, and longevity?

When is it used for energy?

What is its main fuel source?

A
  • The process of creating energy or ATP with oxygen and substrates (mainly fat)
  • The most complex of the the energy systems for generating ATP
  • Speed is not its strong point (gradually increases over at least the first 5 minutes),
  • But can produce for an indefinite amount of time (b/c everyone has ample fat storage)
  • Used at rest for indefinite periods of time and during sustained exercise
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the 3 Oxidative/Aerobic Systems?

A
  1. Aerobic Glycolosis - use of O2 to form Pyruvic Acid (versus lactic acid in regular anaerobic glycolosis)
  2. The Krebs Cycle - Pyruvic Acid converted into Acetyl Coenzyme A (Acetyl CoA) and oxidized to produce 2 units of ATP and by-products CO2 and hydrogen, hydrogen then is combined with other enzymes
  3. The electron transport chain (ETC) - first two processes then provide energy for the oxidative phosphorylation of ADP to form ATP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the anaerobic threshold?

A

The point where the body can no longer produce enough energy with normal oxygen intake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the difference between Type I and Type II muscle fibers in size and speed to fatigue? What is another name for each of them?

A

Type I - Slow Twitch- smaller, and slower to fatigue

Type II - Fast Twitch - longer and quick to fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The KINETIC CHAIN can be defied as what?

A
  1. The human movement system 2. How different segments of the body work together
35
Q

The human movement system can also be referred to as what? which is comprised of what 3 parts?

A

The kinetic chain 1. Nervous System 2. Muscular System 3. Skeletal System

36
Q

When a tight muscle causes decreased neural drive of its antagonist. (the opposing muscle will be lengthened and in an underactive state)

A

What is ALTERED RECIPRICAL INHIBITION?

37
Q

What is the neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when inappropriate muscles take over the function of a weak or inhibited prime mover.

A

Synnergistic Dominance

38
Q

Explain how hip flexors during a squat can demonstrate RECIPROCAL INHIBITION and SYNERGISTIC DOMINANCE.

A

TIGHT HIP FLEXORS during SQUATS (which use glutes and quads but some hams because of hip extension) –Causes reduced signals from the brain TO the GLUT MAX (which performs the majority of heavy lifting) (ALTERED RECIPROCAL INHIBITION) –Causes SYNERGISTS like PIRAFORMIS to TAKE OVER (SYNERGISTIC DOMINANCE)

39
Q

What are 5 kinetic chain checkpoints?

A
  1. Foot/ankle 2. Knee 3. Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex (LPHC) 4. Shoulders 5. Head and cervical spine
40
Q

Shoulder flexion is which way?

A

It uses the muscles on the front side of the body to bring the arm into the air for flexion.

41
Q

According to the 2008 Physical Activity Guidelines, what is the minimum amount of time per week an individual should engage in physical activity if performed at a moderate-intensity level?

A

150 min

42
Q

Autogenic inhibition

A

neural impulses that sense tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscles
to contract; provides inhibitory effect to muscle spindles.

43
Q

What are two different types of nervous systems? What are two different types of one of those? What are two different types of one of those? What are two different types of one of those? 1 2 A B 1 2 a b

A

Central Peripheral -Sensory Nerves -Motor Nerves -Somatic nervous system -Autonomic nervous System -Sympathetic nervous system -Parathsympathetic

44
Q

What is Growth Hormone/What it is responsible for? Where is it secreted from? What can it be stimulated by?

A
  • Responsible for stimulating GROWTH up to puberty when primary sex hormones take over growth instead.
  • Secreted from PITUITARY GLAND - Stimulated by estrogen, testosterone, deep sleep, and vigorous exercise.
45
Q

Describe Thyroid gland’s primary role and what it is regulated by.

A
  • Responsible for human metabolism (carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism), basal metabolic rate, protein sythesis, sensitivity to epiniephrine, heart rate, breathing rate, and body temperature. - Regulated by pituitary gland - **low thyroid: low metabolism, fatigue, depression, sensitivity to cold, an weight gain.
46
Q

Where is the Trochanter process located? The greater trochanter is commonly simply called the _______.

A
  • Located at the top of the femur and are the attachment sites for the hip musculature. - The greater trochanter is commonly called the hipbone.
47
Q

Where is Insulin produced? What does it do? How does it affect blood glucose levels?

A
  • Protein hormone release by the PANCREAS
  • Helps move glucose out of the blood and into the cells, to be used as energy.
  • Lowers blood glucose levels
48
Q

What is the purpose of Cortisol and where is it secreted?

A

Under times of stress, such as exercise, cortisol is secreted by the ADRENAL GLANDS To maintain ENERGY SUPPLY through the breakdown of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins.

49
Q

What is the primary use of testosterone in both men and women in regards to exercise.

A

-Fundamental role in TISSUE REPAIR. -Raised levels of testosterone are indicative of an anabolic (TISSUE BUILDING) training status.

50
Q

What is the primary use of testosterone in both men and women in regards to exercise.

A

-Fundamental role in TISSUE REPAIR. -Raised levels of testosterone are indicative of an anabolic (TISSUE BUILDING) training status.

51
Q

Where is Glucagon produced? How does it affect blood glucose levels? What does it do?

A

-Pancreas -Increases blood glucose levels -Triggers release of glycogen stores from liver (in the form of glucose)

52
Q

What are 3 examples of catecholamines and corticosteroids? Where are they produced?

A

Hormones produced in the adrenal glands 1. Epinephrine (adrenaline) 2. Norepinephrine 3. Cortisol

53
Q

What does cortisol do and where is it produced?

A

CORTISOL-MAINTAIN ENERGY SUPPLY THROUGH THE BREAKDOWN OF CARBS, FAT AND PROTEIN, high amounts can break down protein and have numerous negative side effects.

54
Q

List 3 hormones secreted from the pituitary gland related to fitness, and what they do. .

A
  1. ***GROWTH hormone,
  2. ***THYROID-stimulating hormone (TSH) to stimulate thyroid gland
  3. Adrenocorticorophic hormone (ACTH) to stimulate adrenal glands
  4. Prolactic to stimulate milk production after giving birth
  5. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) to stimulate ovaries and testes
  6. Luteinizing hormone (LH) to stimulate the ovaries or testes.
  7. melanocyte-stimulating hormone to control skin pigmentation
55
Q

Describe Type I Muscle Fibers:

  1. Slow/Fast
  2. Amount of capillaries, mitochondria and myoblobin
  3. Size
  4. How quick to fatique
  5. Long or short term contractions
  6. What color fibers referred to as?
  7. Example
A
  1. Slow twitch
  2. Large number of capillaries, mitochondria (which transforms energy from food into ATP, or cellular energy), and myoglobin, which allows for improved delivery of oxygen.
  3. Smaller in size
  4. Slow to fatigue
  5. Long-term contractions (stabilization)
  6. Referred to as “Red Fibers” as it is similar to hemoglobin (red pigment found in red blood cells)
  7. Sitting upright while maintaining ideal posture against gravity, for an extended period of time.
56
Q 
Describe Type II Muscle Fibers: 
1. Slow/Fast 
2. Amount of capillaries, mitochondria and myoglobin 
3. What color fibers referred to as? 
4. Example 
5A. Two types and if they have an alternative name? 
5B. Level of oxidative capacity 
5C. Rate of fatigue
A
  1. Fast-twitch
  2. Fewer capillaries, mitochondria, and myoglobin
  3. “White fibers”
  4. Example: movements requiring force and power like a sprint.
    5A. Type IIa (Intermediate Fast-twitch) because can use both aerobic and anaerobic metabolism almost equally to create energy making them a combo of Type I and Type II.
    5B. Higher oxidative capacity
    5C. Fatigued more slowly than Type IIx 5A. Type IIx 5B. Low oxidative capacity (ability to use oxygen)
    5C. Fatigue quickly.
57
Q

What is another way to say Action potential?

A

-.Electrical impulse

58
Q

Explain the “All or Nothing” law of Motor Units. How does the number of the motor units relate to the function of the muscle?

A

-Bottom Line: Motor units cannot vary the amount of force they generate; they either contract maximally or not at all. -Examples: 1. If the stimulus is strong enough to trigger an action potential, then it will spread through the whole length of the muscle fiber. It will spread through all muscle fibers supplied by a single nerve. 2. If the stimulus is not strong enough, then there will be no action potential and no muscle contraction. -Muscles that have to control precise movements are made up of many small motor units. (eyes have 10-20 fibers to a unit) (gastrocnemius has 2000-3000).

59
Q

What is the specific neurotransmitter used by the neuromuscular system is called?

A

ACh acetylcholine

60
Q

What are chemical messengers that cross the neuromuscular joint junction (synapse) to transmit electrical impulses from the nerve to the muscle?

A

Neurotransmitters

61
Q

Define a Motor Unit.

A
  • A motor neuron (nerve) and all of the muscle fibers it innervates.
62
Q

What is a Sacromere?

A
  • The functional unit of the muscle (much like the neuron is for the nervous system) that produces muscular contraction and consists of repeating sections of actin and myosin.
63
Q

What is Endomysium?

A
  • The deepest layer of connective tissue that surrounds individual muscle fibers.
64
Q

What are myofibrils and where are they located?

A

A portion of the muscle that contains myofilaments located in the cell components of the Sarcolemma.

65
Q

What is the order of layers of a muscle?

A

Epimysium- Under fascia and surround the muscle Perimysium- Surround fascicles. Endomysium- Deepest, Surround muscle fibers

66
Q

Why do ligaments not repair or heal very well and may be slower to adapt to stress placed on the body?

A

-Poor Vascularity (or blood supply)

67
Q

What is the functional integration of the nervous, muscular, and skeletal systems to work together and produce human movement?

A

Kinetic Chain

68
Q

What sort of thing are Joint Receptors? Where are they located? What are they sensitive to? How do they prevent too much stress on a joint? What are examples?

A

-MECHANORECEPTORS -Surround a joint -Respond to extreme joint positions, pressure, acceleration, and deceleration of the joint -Can initiate a reflexive inhibitory response in the surrounding muscles if there is too much stress placed on that joint. *Examples: Ruffini endings and Pacinian corpuscles

69
Q

What sort of thing are Golgi Tendon Organs (GTOs) and muscle spindles? What are GTOs sensitive to? Where are GTO located? What is the reaction when they are activated?

A

-MECHANORECEPTORS -Sensitive to change in TENSION of the muscle and the rate of that change. -Located where skeletal muscle fibers insert into the tendons. -Cause the muscle to RELAX, which prevents the muscle from excessive stress or possibility of injury.

70
Q

What sort of thing are Muscle Spindles and GTOs? What direction do muscle spindles run? What are muscle spindles sensitive to? What do they cause the muscle to do?

A

-Mechanoreceptors -Run parallel to muscle fibers -Sensitive to change in LENGTH of the muscle and the rate of that change. -CONTRACTS the muscle to prevent over stretching and potential damage.

71
Q

What are responsible for sensing distortion in body tissues / respond to mechanical pressure and outside forces (touch, pressure, stretching, sound waves, and motion) within tissues and then transmit signals through sensory nerves.

A

Mechanoreceptors like muscle spindles, Golgi tendon organs, and joint receptors like pacinias and ruffinis

72
Q

What are Sensory Receptors and what are the 4 subcategories it is divided into?

A

Sensory Receptors are specialized structures located throughout the body that convert environmental stimuli (heat, light, sound, taste, and motion) into sensory information that the brain and spinal cord use to produce a response.

  1. mechanoreceptors (touch and pressure)
  2. nociceptors (pain receptors)
  3. chemoreceptors (chemical interaction / smell and taste)
  4. photo receptors (light / vision)
73
Q

What are the subdivisions of the AUTONOMIC system and what are their functions?

A
  1. Sympathetic - increase levels of activation in preparation for activity
  2. Parasympathetic - decrease levels of activation during rest and recovery.
74
Q

What are the subdivisions of the PERIPHERAL NERVOUS SYSTEM (PNS), What ares of the body do they affect? What are their main functions?

A
  1. SOMATIC Nervous System: nerves that serve the OUTER areas of the body and skeletal muscle, and are largely responsible for the VOLUNTARY movement.
  2. AUTONOMIC Nervous System: supplies neural input to the INVOLUNTARY SYSTEMS of the body (heart, digestive systems, and endocrine glands).
75
Q

What transmit nerve impulses from the brain and spinal cord to effector sites such as muscles or glands.

A

Motor (Efferent) Neurons

76
Q

What Transmit nerve impulses from one neutron to another.

A

Interneurons

77
Q

What transmits nerve impulses from effector sites (such as muscles and organs) via receptors to the brain and spinal cord. Responds to touch, sound, light, and other stimuli and transmit nerve impulses from effector sites.

A

Sensory (Afferent) Neurons

78
Q

What is the CUMULATIVE SENSORY IMPUT TO the central nervous system (CNS) from all MECHANORECEPTORS that sense body POSITION and limb MOVEMENT? The neuroMUSCULAR response to sensory information is part of what function or system?

A

-Proprioception -Motor System

79
Q

The neuromuscular response to the sensory information is part of what function or system?

A

Motor function of the Nervous System

80
Q

Define the ability of the nervous system to analyze and interpret sensory information to allow for proper decision making, which produces the appropriate response?

A

Integrative function of the Nervous System

81
Q

What is the ability of the nervous system to sense changes in either the internal or external environment.

A

Sensory function of the Nervous System

82
Q

What is the combination and interrelation of the nervous, muscular, and skeletal systems. Functional anatomy, functional biomechanics, and motor behavior.

A

Human Movement System

83
Q

What is the Integrated Flexibility Continuum?

A
  1. Corrective Flexibility
  2. Active Flexibility
  3. Functional Flexibility

Final Review Decks (23 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions