Hall Flashcards

1
Q

Mixed venous O2 saturation equation

A

SvO2 = SaO2 - (VO2 / (1.39 * CO * Hgb)), VO2 = O2 consumption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Vital capacity is how many mL/kg

A

60-70 mL/kg, normal adult = 4500 mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Carbon monoxide poisoning increases patient’s minute ventilation by what mechanism?

A

Causing lactic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Acute increase in PaCO2 of 10 mmHg will decrease pH by?

A

0.08 pH units

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Total body deficit of bicarb

A

TBW * 24 - HCO3 * 0.3, TBW=Total Body Weight, 0.3 is extracellular fluid volume as a fraction of body mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Compensatory decrease in bicarb for every 10 mmHg decrease of PaCO2

A

5 mEq/L for every 10 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Abnormal hemoglobins shift oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve in which direction

A

right shift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Transpulmonary shunt estimation with A-a gradient

A

1% shunt for each 20 mmHg of A-a gradient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Transpulmonary shunt equation

A

(CcO2 - CaO2) / (CcO2 - CvO2), oxygen content for end pulmonary capillary, artery, venous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What percentage of total body O2 consumption is used for work of breathing in normal resting adult

A

1-3%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Relationship between change of pH and [K+]

A

For every 0.08 unit change in pH is 0.5 mEq/L change in [K+]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A change in bicarb of 10 mEq/L will change pH by how much?

A

0.15 units of pH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Half life of carboxyhemoglobin in a pt breathing 100% O2

A

1 hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

signs of excessive cholinergic activity

A

DUMBELS - diarrhea, urination, miosis, bronchoconstriction, emesis, lacrimation, salivation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Best drug for treating hypotension in setting of severe acidemia

A

vasopressin, septic patients have relative deficiency of ADH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

normal A-a gradient in normal awake pt breathing room air

A

5-10 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

White count rises or decreases in TRALI?

A

neutropenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

newborn ACLS compression-ventilation ratio

A

90 to 30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

elimination half time of amiodarone

A

29 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

recombinant human activated protein C (Xigris) is indicated for treatment of

A

septic shock, it inhibits factor Va and VIIIa which reduces inflammation and microthrombi, it also blocks TNF production, major side effect is hemorrhage

21
Q

properties of chlorpromazine

A

antipsychotic, antiemetic, sedation, enhance CNS depressants, prolong QT, block effects of guanethidine

22
Q

mechanism of TCAs

A

inhibiting reuptake of released norepinephrine and serotonin, thus increasing MAC and causing exaggerated response to ephedrine, anti-cholinergic side effects

23
Q

alpha-antagonist that produces irreversible blockade

A

phenoxybenzamine

24
Q

IV anesthetic that causes adrenal suppression

A

etomidate

25
Q

IV anesthetic with specific antagonist

A

benzodiazepine

26
Q

IV anesthetic that increases ICP

A

ketamine

27
Q

antihypertensive agent that reduces MAC

A

clonidine

28
Q

antihypertensive agent associated with pericardial effusion and cardiac tamponade

A

minoxidil

29
Q

antihypertensive agent that may cause SLE-like syndrome

A

hydralazine

30
Q

catecholamine that lowers SVR at low dose and increases SVR at high dose, and has significant effect on metabolism

A

epinephrine

31
Q

catecholamine that lowers SVR and MAP with marked tachycardia

A

isoproterenol, non-selective beta-agonist

32
Q

catecholamine that has little change in SVR with mild increases in HR and MAP

A

dobutamine, primarily beta-1 agonist

33
Q

opioid receptors that causes supraspinal analgesia and prolactin release

A

mu1 receptors

34
Q

opioid receptors that causes marked constipation

A

mu2 and delta receptors

35
Q

opioid receptors that cause respiratory depression

A

mu2 and delta receptors

36
Q

opioid receptors that cause dysphoria and diuresis

A

kappa receptors

37
Q

sustained response to tetanic stimulus is seen in what type of neuromuscular blockade

A

phase I depolarizing blockade

38
Q

how does thyroid function affect MAC?

A

no change

39
Q

how does lithium therapy affect MAC?

A

decreases MAC

40
Q

how does pregnancy affect MAC?

A

decreases MAC

41
Q

anticholinergic that produces best sedation

A

scopolamine

42
Q

Tx of pruritis

A

opioid antagonists, mixed opioid agonist-antagonist, antihistamine, propofol

43
Q

Signs of digitalis toxicity

A

loss of appetite, nausea, trigeminal nerve pain, foot pain, visual disturbances

44
Q

Initial symptoms of local anesthetic toxicity

A

lightheadedness and dizziness

45
Q

Part of brain that regulates ventilation

A

Medulla oblongata and pons

46
Q

What finding indicates complete resolution of spinal anesthesia?

A

Ability to urinate

47
Q

Maternal hyperglycemia may cause what neonatal issues

A

Metabolic acidosis, hypoglycemia

48
Q

Fentanyl induced bradycardia is caused by

A

Vagal stimulation