Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

2A > Haematology > Flashcards

Haematology Flashcards

(71 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What are the three types of anameia? (and explain)

A

Microcytic = small RBCs, Noromocytic = normal RBCs, Macrocytic = large RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What causes anaemia with small RBCs?

A

THIS IS MICROCYTIC ANAEMIA - iron deficiency, chronic disease (e.g. renal failure) or thalassaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What causes anaemia with normal RBCs?

A

THIS IS NORMOCYTIC ANAEMIA - Acute blood loss, chronic disease (e.g. renal failure) or combined haematinic deficiency (e.g. iron and B12)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What causes anaemia with large RBCs?

A

THIS IS MACROCYTIC ANAEMIA - B12 deficiency, alcohol excess/liver damage, hypothyroidism, bone marrow failure/infiltration or haemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Define anaemia

A

A reduced red cell mass with or without reduced haemoglobin concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is a sickle cell crisis?

A

The RBCs stick together and block the capillaries. In bones = sharp severe stabbing pains, in brain = stroke, in lungs = pneumonia like disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

S&S of sickle cell disease?

A

Sickle cell crisis, infections, anaemia, renal impairment, pulmonary hypertension and joint damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Treatment of sickle cell disease?

A

Transfusions, gene editing, stem cell transplant and hydroxycarabamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the difference between alpha and beta thalassaemia?

A

Alpha = globin chain altered due to a deletion, beta = globin chain altered due to a mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the three types of Beta Thalassaemia? (and give symptoms)

A 
Minor = carrier - asymptomatic
Intermedia = moderate anaemia, splenomegaly, bone deformities and increased infections
Major = failure to feed, severe anaemia, hepatosplenomegaly, bone abnormalities and increased infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What treatment is required in the most severe cases of Beta Thalassaemia?

A

THIS IS MAJOR THALASSAEMIA - usually diagnosed in the first year, requires frequent transfusions with iron chelation to prevent iron over load. May require bone marrow transplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the four types of Alpha Thalassaemia? (and give symptoms)

A

4 gene deletion = still born
3 gene deletion = moderate anaemia and splenomegaly
2 gene deletion = microcytosis with/without anaemia
1 gene deletion = asymptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is lymphoma?

A

A cancerous growth of the lymphocytes - may be caused by immunodeficiency, reccurent infection, autoimmune disorders etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are B symptoms?

A

Systemic symptoms of lymphoma: fever, night sweats, rapid weight loss, appetite loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How can you tell between Hodgkin’s and Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

Reed-Sternberg cells present = Hodgkin’s and absent = Non Hodgkin’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the risk factors and symptoms for Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

Epstein-Barr Virus, SLE, obesity, affected sibling.
Painless lymphadenopathy, B symptoms
Mainly seen in young people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the treatment for Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

ABVD combination chemotherapy (A - ADRIAMYCIN, B - BLEOMYCIN, V - VINBLASTINE, D - DACARBAZINE) // just learn the acronym for now

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the symptoms of Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

Painless lymphadenopathy, Gastric MALT, pancytopenia and B symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the two types of Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

Indolent/low grade - slow growing, usually advanced at presentation and incurable
Aggressive/high grade - usually nodal presentation, patient is unwell with a short history

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the treatment for Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

R-CHOP regimen (R - RITUXIMAB, C - CYCLOPHOSPHAMIDE, H - HYDROXY-DAUNORUBICIN, O - VINCRISTINE (Oncovin brand name), P - PREDNISOLONE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the side effects of chemotherapy?

A

Nausea & vomiting, reduced fertility, fatigue, hair loss, loss of appetite, loss of gut squamous lining = diarrhoea and loss of taste

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is leukaemia?

A

Malignant proliferation of immature blast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Name the types of leukaemia

A

Chronic myeloid leukaemia
Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
Acute myeloid leukaemia
Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the epidemiology of ALL?

A

LYMPHOBLASTIC
Most common in cildren aged 2-4 it is the immature proliferation of lymphoid cells. This affects the B/T cells, if all B cells = children, if all T cells = adult.
Ionising radiation during pregnancy and Downs Syndrome are risk factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
S&S of ALL?
Anaemia, reccurent infections, easy bruising, hepatosplenomegaly, lympadenopathies, bone pain, cranial nerve palsies
26
What is the epidemiology of AML?
Mostly affects adults. The neopalstic proliferation of blast cells from marrow myeloid (will affect the basophils, neutrophils and eosinophils). Radiation and Down's increase risk
27
S&S of AML?
Anaemia, increased infections, easing bruising, hepatosplenomegaly, gum hypertrophy.
28
Treatment drug for AML/ALL?
Allopurinol
29
What is the epidemiology of CML?
Almost exclusivley affects adults. It is the uncontrolled clonal proliferation of myeloid cells - the Philadelphia chromosome is nearly always present.
30
S&S of CML?
Anaemia, splenomegaly, fever/night sweats, gout, bleeding, weight loss
31
Treatment of CML?
Oral inatinib
32
What is the epidemiology of CLL?
This is the most common leukaemia. It is the accumulation of mature B cells which have escaped cell death and undergone cell cycle arrest. Pneumonia may be a triggering event
33
S&S of CLL?
Often asymptomatic but in severe cases there may be lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, weight loss, sweats and anaemia
34
What is MRD?
Minimal Residual Disease monitoring - carried out to monitor patietns in remission and detect the disease if it reoccurs
35
What is the epidemiology of myeloma?
Cancer of immature malignant proliferation of the bone marrow plasma cells
36
S&S of myeloma?
CRAB - Calcium raised, Renal failure, Anaemia, Bone lytic lesions leading to back pain
37
What is the treatment of myeloma
Bisphosphonates plus CTD chemotherapy (Cyclophosphamide, Thalidomide and Dexamethosone) or MPT (Melphalan, Prednisolone and Thalidomide)
38
What is polycythaemia?
Abnormally increased concentration of haemoglobin in the blood, either through reduction of plasma volume or increase in red cell numbers
39
What causes polycythaemia?
``` Primary = Polycythaemia Ruba Vera Secondary = High EPO (e.g. in renal carcinoma), hypoxia (e.g. smoking, altitude) ```
40
What is Neutrophillia?
Too many neutrophils
41
What causes Neutrophillia?
``` Proliferative = CML Reactive = infection, inflammation, malignancy ```
42
What is neutropenia?
Too few neutrophils
43
What causes neutropenia?
Underproduction (due to bone marrow failure/infiltration) or over removal due to autoimmune disease
44
What is lymphocytosis?
Too many lympocytes
45
What causes lymphocytosis?
``` Proliferative = CLL Reactive = infection, inflammation and malignancy ```
46
What is thrombocytosis?
Too many platelets
47
What causes thrombocytosis?
``` Proliferative = essential thrombocytopoenia (abnormal function) Reactive = infection, inflammation and malignancy ```
48
What is thrombocytopenia?
Too few platelets
49
What causes thrombocytopenia?
Underproduction (congenital or due to drugs/BM infiltration/low TPO), overremoval (splenomegaly/autoimmune diseases), decreased function (myelodysplasia) or over consumption (DIC)
50
What are the types of immune thrombocytopenia?
``` Primary = after viral infection Secondary = in some malignancies (CLL) and infection (HIV) ```
51
What is the difference between an arterial and a venous clot?
``` Arterial = platelet rich - white Venous = fibrin rich - red ```
52
What are the causes and S&S of an arterial clot?
Caused by atheroma formation. | Critical limb ischaemia = painful, perishingly cold, pallour, paraesthesia and paralysis of limb.
53
What may an arterial clot cause in the coronary and cerebral criculation?
``` Coronary = MI (STEMI) Cerebral = CVA ```
54
What may cause a venous clot?
Immobility, surgery, genetics (factor V Leiden/PT20210A), lupus or anti-phospholipid syndrome
55
S&S of venous clot?
Painful calf, hot, swelling/redness, odemea
56
S&S of PE?
Cyanosis, chest pain, dysponea, hypotension, tachycardia, tachyponea, pleural rub
57
What drug can be given for sickle cell disease?
Oral Hydroxycarbamide
58
What three drugs can be used to prevent arterial thrombosis?
Aspirin, Clopidogrel, Dipyramidole
59
What drugs can be used to treat DVT?
LMW Heparin (e.g. SC Enoxaparin)m oral warfarin and Direct-acting Oral Anti-Coagulants (DOACs) - do NOT use in pregnancy
60
What drug can be used to treat CML?
Oral Imatinib
61
What drug can be used to treat CLL?
Human IV immunoglobulins
62
Name a bisphosphonate?
Zolendronate or alendronate
63
What are the risk factors for chronic/acute polycythaemia?
``` Chronic = obesity/smoking/alcohol/hypertension Acute = dehydration ```
64
Name some chronic diseases/infections
TB, Chron's, Rheumatoid arthritis, SLE, Malignant disease
65
Describe how folate deficiency can cause anaemia
Megaloblastic anameia. Folate is essential for DNA synthesis so impairment will affect the bone marrow and lead to large RBCs and decreased production.
66
Who is affected by folate deficiency?
People who don't eat enough green vegetables, pregnant women, Chron's/Coeliac sufferers and methotrexate users (it is antifolate)
67
What is haemolytic anaemia?
The premature breakdown of RBCs (before 120 days)
68
What is hereditary spherocytosis?
An autosomal dominant cause of haemolytic anaemia where RBCs become sphere shaed and rigid
69
S&S of hereditary spherocytosis?
Jaundice at birth, splenomegaly, ulcers on the leg, gall stones
70
What is G6PD deficiency?
An X-linked cause of haemolytic anaemia where G6PD isn't produced so RBCs are not protected from oxidation
71
S&S of G6PD deficiency?
Asymptomatic. | Oxidative crisis = rapid anaemia, jaundice and haemolysis. THIS IS ACUTE

2A (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions