Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

2A > GU > Flashcards

GU Flashcards

1
Q

Define Acute Kidney Injury?

A

An abrupt and sustained rise in serum urea and creatinine levels due to a rapid decline in eGFR. This leads to failure to maintain fluid, electrolyte and acid base balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the criteria for AKI?

A

Rise in creatinine level > 26umol/l in 48hours
Rise in creatinine level > 1.5x the baseline
Urine output <0.5ml/Kg/hr for >6 consecutive hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Give some causes of AKI?

A 
Pre-renal = NSAIDs/ACEis (= hypoperfusion), dehydration, haemorrhage, shock, cardiac failure and cirrhosis
Intra-renal = acute tubular necrosis due to toxins, thrombosis/embolism, glomerular damage
Post-renal = urinary tract obstruction e.g. malignancy, stones or compression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

S&S of AKI

A

Palpable kidneys/bladder, oliguria, oedema, hypertension, dehydration, fatigue, dysponea, weakness, nausea/vominting, confustion, seizures etc.
S&S depend greatly on cause!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe the basic treatment for the 3 types of AKI?

A 
Pre-renal = correct volume depletion with fluids and give antibiotics if septic
Intra-renal = refer to nephrology
Post-renal = catheterise and consider CT-KUB. Stent if obstruction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How do you treat hyperkalaemia?

A

Insulin and dextrose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the three types of Renal Replacement Therapy?

A

Heamofiltration - most commonly used (exchange via convection)
Haemodialysis - exchange via diffusion
Peritoneal dialysis - used commonly in CKD (uses the peritoneum as an exchange surface adn can be done from home)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Complications of Renal Replacement Therapy?

A

Increased risk of cardiovascular disease, infection, malignancy adn amyloidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Define chronic kidney disease?

A

A eGFR <60ml/min/1.73m2 for >3months with or without evidence of kidney damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Causes of CKD?

A

T2DM, hypertension, PCKD, amyloidosis, priamry glomerulonephritis, SLE and vasculitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

S&S of CKD ?

A

Weight loss, anorexia, oliguria, haematuria, nausea/vomiting, insomnia, itching, oedema, anaemia, fatigue, amenorrhoea and erectile dysfunction.
Symptoms occur late in disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Treatment of CKD?

A

Reduce BP to <130/80 - ACEis, diuretics and CCBs
Reduce PTH if raised to protect bones - give phosphate binders and calcium supplements
Renal replacement therapy and kidney transplant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How do you differentiate CKD from AKI?

A

Normochromic anaemia, small kidneys and osteodystrophy indicate CKD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Complications of CKD?

A

Anaemia (due to low EPO), bone disease/pain, autonomic dyfunction (e.g. postural hypotension and disturbed GI motility), cardiovascular disease and skin disease.
Decreased cerebral function and seizures in severe disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

ADPKD vs ARPKD

A 
ADPKD = Autosomal dominant mutation in the PKD1/PKD2 genes. It leads to cyst formation and kidney function decline throught life.
ARPKD = Autosomal recessive mutation in teh PKHD1 gene. It leads to cyst formation and kidney function decline in infancy.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

S&S of ADPKD?

A

Bilateral kidney enlargement with cysts, hypertension, uric acid renal stone formation, haematuria, nocturia, abdominal pain and reduced kidney function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Diagnostic criteria for ADPKD?

A 
Diagnose if:
15-39 = 3 or more cysts (uni/bilateral)
40-59 = 2 or more cysts on each kidney
60+ = 4 or more cysts on each kidney
Diagnosis can not be excluded in under 30s
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

S&S of ARPKD?

A

Enlarged polyscystic kindeys, renal cysts/hepatic fibrosis in infancy and reduced renal function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Treatment for PKDs?

A

No direct treatment, remove cysts/kidneys, ACEis for blood pressure control and analgesics.
SCREEN CLOSE RELATIVES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Causes of Nephritic syndrome?

A

IgA nephropathy due to streptococcal infection (often of the throat), SLE, ANCA vasculitits, Hep B/C infection, systemic sclerosis and malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

S&S of nephritic syndrome?

A

Moderate-large eGFR decrease, haematuria, <2g/24hrs proteinuria, hypertension, oliguria, nausea and anorexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Causes of Nephrotic syndrome?

A

Podocyte abnormalities.
Primary = Minimal Change Disease, Membranous Nephropathy, Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis
Secondary = DM, amyloid build-up, infections, RA and SLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

S&S of nephrotic syndrome?

A

Normal - mild decrease in eGFR (does NOT develop into AKI), hypoalbuminaemia, pitting oedema and proteinuria > 3g/24hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is minimal change disease?

A

Seen commonly in children, kidneys appear normal under light microscope but under electron microscope fusion of foot processes can be seen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is membranous nephropathy?

A

IgG deposits in teh basement membrane lead to damage - occurs due to autoimmune disease, infection and drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is focal segmental glomerulosclerosis?

A

segmental scarring of the glomeruli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the main complications of nephrotic syndrome?

A

Increased susceptibility to infection (Igs lost in urine), increased risk of thromboembolism and hyperlipidaemia (liver goes into overdrive due to low albumin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Where do renal stones classicly lodge?

A

Pelviureteric junction, pelivic brim and vesicoureteric junction

29
Q

What are the 4 types of renal stones?

A

Calcium stones, uric acid stones, infection induced stones and cystine stones

30
Q

S&S of renal colic?

A

Rapid onset severe spasamodic loin to groin pain relieved by leaning forward, pain worse on drinking, dysuria, haematuria, reccurent UTIs

31
Q

Treatment for renal colic?

A

Strong analgesics e.g. diclofenac, antiemetics, nifedipine/tamulosin to promote expulsion.
Sodium bicarbonate = uric acid stones
Cystine binders = cystine stones
Bendroflumethiazide = hypercalcuria

32
Q

What is hydronephrosis?

A

dilation of the renal pelvis (usually due to obstruction) leading to lasting kidney damage

33
Q

What is the difference between a complicated and an uncomplicated UTI?

A 
Uncomplicated = in a healthy non-pregant female with normally functioning urinary tract
Complicated = in a male, pregnant female or any patient with an abnormal urinary tract/systemic disease involving the kidney
34
Q

Common causes of UTIs?

A

KEEPS = Klebsiella spp., E.coli, Enterococci, Proteus spp. and Staphylococcus spp.

35
Q

S&S of pyelonephritis?

A

UPPER UTI
Loin pain, fever, pyuria - classic triad
Nausea, vomiting, severe headache, rigours and oliguria

36
Q

S&S of cystitis?

A

LOWER UTI

Smelly/cloudy urine, loin tenderness, dysuria, frequency, urgency and haematuria

37
Q

Causes of prostatits?

A

Strep. faecalis, E.coli and chlamydia

38
Q

S&S of prostatitis?

A

Fever, rigours, pain on ejaculation, pelvic pain, tender prostate, hesitancy/incomplete emptying/straining/dysuria etc.
Reccurent UTIs if chronic

39
Q

Causes of urthethritis?

A

Nisseri gonorrhoea, Chlamydia trachomatis, Mycoplasm genitalium, trauma, urethral stricture and urinary caliculi

40
Q

S&S of urethritis?

A

Skin lesions, dysuria, discharge (pus/blood), urethral pain, fever, nausea/vomiting, penile dyscomfort etc.
OFTEN ASYMPTOMATIC

41
Q

Treatment of gonorrhoea and chlamydia?

A 
Chlamydia = oral azithromycin stat or 1 week doxycycline
Gonorrhoea = IM ceftriaxone with oral azithromycin
42
Q

Where does the enlargement occur from in BPH?

A

The inner transitional zone of the prostate

43
Q

S&S of BPH?

A

Enlarged bladder, nocturia, frequency, urgency, poor stream/flow, hesitancy, haematuria, incomplete bladder emptying.
DOES NOT affect fertility/cause erectile problems

44
Q

DRE of PBH vs prostatitis vs cancer?

A 
BPH = enlarged but smooth prostate
Prostatits = tender, hot and hard prostate
Cancer = enlarged, hard and irregular prostate
45
Q

Treatment for BPH?

A

Alpha-1-antagonists (e.g. tamulosin), 5-alpha-reductase-inhibitors (e.g. finasteride).
Transurethral recection/incision of the prostate if urinary retention or severe haematuria

46
Q

What is an epididymal cyst?

A

A smooth extra-testicular spherical cyst which develops at the head of the epidiymis. It lies above and behind the testes and contains a clear/milky fluid

47
Q

S&S of an epididymal cyst?

A

Testicular lump which will transluminate.

Pain if large. The tetis is palpable seperatley from the cyst

48
Q

What is a hydrocele?

A

An abnormal fluid collection within the tunica vaginalis

49
Q

How can hydroceles be classified?

A 
Primary = patent processus vaginalis
Secondary = tumour, trauma, infection or oedema
Simple = overproduction of fluid in the tunica vaginalis
Communicating = processus vaginalis fails to close so peritoneal fluid can communicate with the scrotum
50
Q

S&S of a hydrocele?

A

Scrotal englargement with non-tender (unless infected), smooth and cystic swelling. It will transluminate and is found anterior to and below the testis

51
Q

What is a varicocele?

A

An abnormal dilation of the testicular veins in the panpiniform venous plexus due to venous reflux

52
Q

S&S of a varicocele?

A

Disteneded scrotal blood vessels, dull ache, scrotal heaviness meaning the affected scrotum hangs lower.
Mainly affects teh left testicle

53
Q

S&S of testicular torsion?

A

Sudden onset of pain in one of the testis which makes walking uncomfortable, hot/red/swollen/inflammed testis which lies higher and more transversley, nausea and vomiting

54
Q

Name all the UTIs

A

Upper: Pyelonephritis = infection of the renal parenchyma and soft tissues of the renal pelvis/upper ureter
Lower: Cystitis = infection of the bladder, Urethritits = urethral inflammation, Prostatitis = prostate inflammation

55
Q

Risk factors for bladder cancer?

A

Smoking, drugs e.g. cyclophosphamide, chronic urinary retention, being male, indwelling catheterisation and occupational risk e.g. rubber workers

56
Q

S&S of bladder cancer?

A

painless haematuria, reccurrent UTIs, voididing irritability

57
Q

Treatment for bladder cancer?

A

No muscle invasion = surgical resection and MDC chemotherapy
Local muscle invasion = radical cystectomy and M-VAC chemotherapy
Metastasized = palliative chemotherapy

58
Q

Where to prostate cancers arise from and where do they commonly metastasise?

A

Peripheral zone of the prostate gland

Bone lymph node, brain liver and lung metastasis (they’re slow growing)

59
Q

S&S of prostate cancer?

A

Nocturia, hesitancy, poor stream, terminal dribble, obstruction of the urethra, weight loss, bone pain and anaemia

60
Q

What are marker of prostate cancer?

A 
Blood = PSA increased
Urine = PCA3
61
Q

Treatment of prostate cancer?

A

Confined to prostate = radical prostectomy/active surveillence, radiotherapy and hormone therapy
Metastatic disease = androgen receptor blockers or endocrine therapy (e.g. orchidectomy/LHRH agonists)

62
Q

What age is the cut off for radical prostectomy (above this age use active surveillence)

A

70 years

63
Q

Give some examples of testicular tumours?

A

Germ cell origin = seminous and teratomas

Non-germ cell origin = leydig/sertoli cell tumours and sarcomas

64
Q

S&S of testicular cancer?

A

Hydrocele, abdominal mass, painless testicular lump, testicular or abdominal pain

65
Q

What are markers of testicular cancer?

A

Serum alpha-fetoprotein or Beta-hCG

66
Q

Treatment of testicular cancer?

A

Radical orchidectomy, radiotherapy, chemotherapy if metastasized.
Offer sperm storage!

67
Q

Risk factors for renal cancer?

A

Smoking, obesity, hypertension, renal failure, RRT, PKD, VHL syndrom and being male

68
Q

S&S of renal cancer?

A

Adbominal mass, varicocele, hypertension, polycythemia, anaemia, painful haematuria and loin pain

69
Q

Treatment of renal cancer?

A

Local disease = nephrectomy, cyoablation or chemotherapy

Metastatic/locally advanced disease = Interleukin-2 and Interferon-alpha treatment, biological therapies or temsirolimus

2A (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions