Haematology Flashcards

1
Q

What is contained within plasma?

A

RBCs
WBCs
Clotting factors

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2
Q

What is serum?

A

Blood after clotting factors removed
Contains:
Glucose
Electrolytes
Proteins

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3
Q

Where do blood cells develop?

A

Bone marrow
Bone marrow mostly found in pelvis/vertebrae/ribs/sternum

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4
Q

What are pluripotent haematopoietic stem cells?

A

Undifferentiated cells that can transform into various blood cells

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5
Q

What do pluripotent haematopoietic stem cells differentiate into?

A

Myeloid stem cells- Megakaryocyte (platelet), Erythrocyte (RBC), Myeloblast (basophil, neutrophil, eosinophil, macrophage)
Lymphoid stem cells- B cell, T cell, natural killer cell
Dendritic cells

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6
Q

What is the role of platelets?

A

Lifespan 10d
Clump together (platelet aggregation) and plug gaps where blood clots form

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7
Q

Outline the development of RBCs

A

Develop from reticulocytes- Immature RBCs
RBCs survive 120d

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8
Q

What do B lymphocytes differentiate into?

A

Mature in bone marrow
Plasma cells
Memory B cells

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9
Q

What do T lymphocytes differentiate into?

A

Mature in thymus gland
CD4 cells (T helper cells)
CD8 (cytotoxic T cells)
Natural killer cells

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10
Q

What is anisocytosis?

A

Variation in size of RBCs
Seen in myelodysplastic syndrome and anaemia (iron deficiency, pernicious, AI haemolytic anaemia)

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11
Q

What are spherocytes?

A

Sphere-shaped RBCs w/o bi-concave disk shape
Indicate AI haemolytic anaemia or hereditary spherocytosis

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12
Q

What are smudge cells?

A

Ruptured WBCs that occur when cells aged or fragile
Associated with chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

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13
Q

What are sideroblasts?

A

Immature RBCs with nucleus surrounded by iron blobs
Sideroblastic anaemia- Bone marrow cannot incorporate iron into Hb molecules- Either due to genetic defect or myelodysplastic syndrome

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14
Q

What are schistocytes?

A

Fragments of RBCs
Indicate RBCs physically damaged during journey through circulation
Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia (MAHA)- When small thrombi obstruct small vessels- Churns RBCs causing haemolysis
Metallic heart valve replacement (metallic valves damage RBCs)

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15
Q

List key causes of MAHA

A

HUS
DIC
Thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)

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16
Q

What are target cells?

A

RBCs with central pigmented area surrounded by pale area surrounded by ring of thicker cytoplasm on outside
Seen in iron deficiency anaemia and post-splenectomy

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17
Q

What are Heinz bodies?

A

Individual blobs (inclusions) seen inside RBCs
Blobs are denatured (damaged) Hb
Seen in G6PD deficiency and alpha-thalassaemia

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18
Q

What are Howell-Jolly bodies?

A

Individual blobs of DNA material inside RBCs
Spleen normally removes RBCs with this DNA
Seen after a splenectomy or with a non-functioning spleen (SCA), or severe anaemia where body regenerating RBCs very fast

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19
Q

What is anaemia?

A

Low conc. Hb in blood
Consequence of underlying disease

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20
Q

What is the role of Hb?

A

Protein found in RBCs
Responsible for picking up oxygen in lungs and transporting it to cells
Iron essential in creating Hb

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21
Q

What is mean cell volume (MCV)?

A

Size of RBCs
Women- Hb 120-165g/l- MCV 80-100 femtolitres
Men- 130-180g/l- MCV 80-100 femtolitres

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22
Q

List the causes of microcytic anaemia

A

T- Thalassaemia
A- Anaemia of chronic disease
I- Iron deficiency anaemia
L- Lead poisoning
S- Sideroblastic anaemia

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23
Q

What is the association between anaemia of chronic disease and CKD?

A

Often occur together due to reduced production of erythropoietin by kidneys- Hormone responsible for stimulating RBC production

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24
Q

How is anaemia of chronic disease associated with CKD treated?

A

Give erythropoietin

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25
Q

List causes of normocytic anaemia

A

A- Acute blood loss
A- Anaemia of chronic disease
A- Aplastic anaemia
H- Haemolytic anaemia
H- Hypothyroidism

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26
Q

What are the 2 types of macrocytic anaemia?

A

Normoblastic or megaloblastic

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27
Q

What are the causes of megaloblastic anaemia?

A

Results from impaired DNA synthesis, prevents cells dividing normally- Grow into large abnormal cells

B12 deficiency
Folate deficiency

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28
Q

List causes of normoblastic macrocytic anaemia

A

Alcohol
Reticulocytosis (usually from haemolytic anaemia or blood loss)
Hypothyroidism
Liver disease
Drugs- Azathioprine

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29
Q

What is reticulocytosis?

A

Increased conc. of reticulocytes- Happens when rapid turnover of RBCs- Haemolytic anaemia or blood loss

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30
Q

List generic symptoms of anaemia

A

Tiredness
SOB
Headaches
Dizziness
Palpitations
Worsening of other conditions

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31
Q

What are the symptoms specific to iron deficiency anaemia?

A

Pica (dietary cravings for dirt/soil)
Hair loss

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32
Q

What are the generic signs of anaemia?

A

Pale skin
Conjunctival pallor
Tachycardia
Raised RR

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33
Q

List the signs specific of iron deficiency anaemia

A

Koilonychia (spoon shaped nails)
Angular cheilitis
Atrophic glossitis (smooth tongue due to atrophy of papillae)
Brittle hair and nails

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34
Q

What is the sign specific to haemolytic anaemia?

A

Jaundice

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35
Q

What is the sign specific to thalassaemia?

A

Bone deformities

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36
Q

List the signs specific to anaemia associated with CKD

A

Oedema
HTN
Excoriations on skin

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37
Q

What investigations are done to determine cause of anaemia?

A

FBC- For Hb and MCV
Reticulocyte count- Indicates RBC production
Blood film- For abnormal cells and inclusions
Renal profile- For CKD
LFTs- For liver disease and bilirubin (raised in haemolysis)
Ferritin- Iron
B12 and folate
Intrinsic factor antibodies- Pernicious anaemia
TFTs- Hypothyroidism
Coeliac disease serology- Anti-tissue transglutaminase antibodies
Myeloma screening- Serum protein electrophoresis
Direct Coombs test- AI haemolytic anaemia
Colonoscopy and oesophagogastroduodenoscopy (OGD)- Indicated for unexplained iron deficiency anaemia to exclude GI cancer as source of bleeding
Bone marrow biopsy- Indicated for unexplained anaemia/possible malignancy (eg: Leukaemia or myeloma)

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38
Q

List causes of iron deficiency anaemia

A

Insufficient dietary iron (eg: Restrictive diets)
Reduced iron absorption (eg: Coeliac disease)
Increased iron requirements (eg: Pregnancy)
Loss of iron through bleeding (eg: From peptic ulcer or bowel cancer)

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39
Q

What is the most common cause of iron deficiency anaemia in adults?

A

Blood loss:
Menstruation
GI tract- Cancer (eg: Stomach or bowel), oesophagitis and gastritis, peptic ulcer, IBD, angiodysplasia (abnormal vessels in wall)

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40
Q

What is the most common cause of iron deficiency anaemia in children?

A

Dietary insufficiency
Pica a common presentation in children

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41
Q

Outline absorption of iron

A

Absorbed in duodenum and jejunum
Requires acid from stomach to keep iron in soluble ferrous (Fe2+) form
When stomach contents less acidic- Changes to insoluble ferric (Fe3+) form
PPIs reduce stomach acid- Interfere with iron absorption
Inflammation of duodenum or jejunum (eg: Coeliac pr Crohn’s) can reduce iron absorption

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42
Q

Outline testing of iron deficiency anaemia

A
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43
Q

What is total iron-binding capacity (TIBC)?

A

Space for iron to attach to on transferrin molecules combined
Directly related to amount of transferrin in blood

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44
Q

What is transferrin?

A

Iron travels around in blood bound to carrier protein transferrin

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45
Q

What is transferrin saturation?

A

Refers to proportion of transferrin molecules bound to iron- Expressed as a percentage

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46
Q

What is the formula for transferrin saturation?

A

Transferrin saturation = Serum ion/TIBC

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47
Q

What is ferritin?

A

A protein that stores iron inside cells
Acute-phase protein released with inflammation (eg: Infection or cancer)

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48
Q

What are the causes of changes in ferritin levels?

A

Low ferritin- Iron deficiency
Normal ferritin doesn’t exclude iron deficiency
Raised ferritin- Difficult to interpret- Inflammation (infection/cancer), liver disease, iron supplements, haemochromatosis

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49
Q

How does TIBC change with iron levels?

A

Marker for how much transferrin is in the blood
Iron deficiency- TIBC and transferrin increase
Iron overload- TIBC and transferrin decrease

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50
Q

How does transferrin saturation change with iron levels?

A

Transferrin saturation- Indicates total iron in body
Less iron= Transferrin less saturated
Increased iron in body= Transferrin more saturated
Can increase after eating a meal or taking iron supplements- Fasting gives more accurate results

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51
Q

List causes of iron overload

A

Haemochromatosis
Iron supplements
Acute liver damage (liver contains lots of iron)

Iron overload causes raised serum ferritin, serum iron, and iron saturation (doesn’t increase TIBC)

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52
Q

Outline investigations of new iron deficiency in an adult w/o a clear cause

A

Colonoscopy and oesophagogastroduodenoscopy (OGD) for malignancy

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53
Q

What are the 3 options for treating iron deficiency anaemia?

A

Oral iron (eg: Ferrous sulphate or ferrous fumarate)- Works slowly
Iron infusion (eg: IV CosmoFer)
Blood transfusion (in severe anaemia)

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54
Q

What are the common SEs of oral iron?

A

Constipation
Black stools

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55
Q

What are the risks of iron infusions?

A

Small risk allergic reactions and anaphylaxis
Avoid during infections- Can feed the bacteria

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56
Q

What is pernicious anaemia?

A

Caused by Vit D 12 deficiency
A macrocytic anaemia
Autoimmune involving antibodies against parietal cells or intrinsic factor= Lack of absorption of Vit B12

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57
Q

What are the causes of low Vit B12?

A

Pernicious anaemia
Insufficient dietary B12 (vegan diet)
Meds- Reduce B12 absorption (PPIs and metformin)

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58
Q

What are parietal cells?

A

In stomach
Produce intrinsic factor

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59
Q

What are intrinsic factors?

A

Essential for absorption of Vit B12 in distal ileum

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60
Q

List the neurological symptoms of B12 deficiency

A

Peripheral neuropathy- Numbness or paraesthesia
Loss of vibration sense
Loss of proprioception
Visual changes
Mood and cognitive changes

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61
Q

Which antibodies are used to diagnose pernicious anaemia?

A

Intrinsic factor antibodies (1st line)
Gastric parietal cell antibodies (less helpful)

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62
Q

Outline initial management of pernicious anaemia

A

Intramuscular hydroxycobalamin:
No neuro symptoms- 3x/wk for 2wks
Neuro symptoms- Alternate days until no further improvement in symptoms

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63
Q

Outline maintenance of management of Vit B12 deficiency

A

Pernicious anaemia- 2-3mthly injections for life
Diet-related- Oral cyanocobalamin or twice-yrly injections

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64
Q

How are patients managed with B12 and folate deficiency together?

A

Treat B12 deficiency first, then correct folate
If give folic acid to Vit b12 deficiency- Leads to subacute combined degeneration of cord- Demyelination in spinal cord and severe neuro problems

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65
Q

List the inherited conditions that can cause chronic haemolytic anaemia

A

Hereditary spherocytosis
Hereditary elliptocytosis
Thalassaemia
SCA
G6PD deficiency

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66
Q

List acquired conditions that can lead to haemolytic anaemia

A

AI haemolytic anaemia
Alloimmune haemolytic anaemia (eg: Transfusion reactions and haemolytic disease of newborn)
Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria
Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia
Prosthetic valve-related haemolysis

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67
Q

What are the features of haemolytic anaemia?

A

Anaemia
Splenomegaly (spleen becomes filled with destroyed RBCs)
Jaundice (bilirubin released during destruction of RBCs)

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68
Q

Outline investigations of haemolytic anaemia

A

FBC- Normocytic anaemia
Blood film- Schistocytes (fragments of RBCs)
Direct Coombs test- Positive in autoimmune haemolytic anaemia

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69
Q

What is hereditary spherocytosis?

A

Autosomal dominant
Causes fragile, sphere-shaped RBCs that easily breakdown when passing through spleen

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70
Q

How does hereditary spherocytosis present?

A

Anaemia
Jaundice
Gallstones
Splenomegaly
Aplastic crisis in presence of parvovirus
Likely to be a positive FHx

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71
Q

What are the key findings of hereditary spherocytosis on bloods?

A

Raised mean corpuscular Hb conc. on FBC
Raised reticulocyte count due to rapid turnover of RBCs
Spherocytes on blood film

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72
Q

How is hereditary spherocytosis managed?

A

Folate supplementation
Blood transfusions when required
Splenectomy
Gallbladder removal (cholecystectomy) required if gallstones a problem

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73
Q

What is hereditary elliptocytosis?

A

RBCs are ellipse-shaped
Autosomal dominant
Presentation and management same as hereditary spherocytosis

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74
Q

What is G6PD deficiency?

A

Defect in gene coding for glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase- An enzyme responsible for protecting cells from oxidative damage
X-linked recessive (males more often affected and females are carriers)
Common in Mediterranean, Asian and African patients
Results in acute episodes of haemolytic anaemia triggered by infections/drugs/fava beans

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75
Q

What are the key medication triggers of G6PD deficiency?

A

Ciprofloxacin
Sulfonylureas (eg: Gliclazide)
Sulfasalazine

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76
Q

How does G6PD deficiency present?

A

Jaundice (often in neonatal period)
Gallstones
Anaemia
Splenomegaly
Heinz bodies on blood film

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77
Q

How is G6PD deficiency diagnosed?

A

G6PD enzyme assay

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78
Q

List the triggers of G6PD deficiency acute episodes of haemolytic anaemia

A

Infection
Drugs (ciprofloxacin, sulfonylureas, sulfasalazine)
Fava beans

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79
Q

Outline autoimmune haemolytic anaemia

A

Antibodies created against patient’s RBCs- Lead to RBC destruction
2 types- Warm and cold- Based on temperature at which auto-antibodies destroy RBCs

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80
Q

Outline warm AI haemolytic anaemia

A

More common than cold
Haemolysis occurs at normal/above normal temperatures
Usually idiopathic

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81
Q

Outline cold-reactive AI haemolytic anaemia

A

Cold agglutinin disease
At lower temperatures, antibodies attach to RBCs and cause agglutination
Immune system activated, RBCs destroyed
Can be secondary to lymphoma/leukaemia/SLE/infections (eg: Mycoplasma, EBV, CMV, HIV)

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82
Q

Outline management of AI haemolytic anaemia

A

Blood transfusions
Prednisolone
Rituximab (monoclonal antibody against B cells)
Splenectomy

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83
Q

Outline alloimmune haemolytic anaemia

A

Occurs due to foreign RBCs or foreign antibodies
Transfusion reactions or haemolytic disease of the newborn

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84
Q

What is a haemolytic transfusion reaction?

A

RBCs transfused into patient- Immune system produces antibodies against antigens on foreign RBCs- New RBCs destroyed

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85
Q

What is haemolytic disease of the newborn?

A

Maternal antibodies cross placenta from mother to fetus
Maternal antibodies target antigens on RBCs of fetus and are destroyed
Occurs when fetus is rhesus D positive, and mother rhesus D negative
During sensitisation event, mother exposed to fetal RBCs and produces anti-D antibodies
Antibodies can cross to baby and cause haemolysis
Sensitisation prevented in rhesus -ve women using anti-D prophylaxis

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86
Q

What is paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria?

A

Caused by genetic mutation in haematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow
Not inherited- Mutation occurs during lifetime
Results in loss of proteins on surface of RBCs that inhibit complement cascade on RBCs and their destruction

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87
Q

What is the characteristic presenting symptom of paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria?

A

Red urine in the morning- Contains haemoglobin and haemosiderin
Anaemia
Thrombosis
Smooth muscle dystonia (oesophageal spasm and ED)

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88
Q

How is paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria managed?

A

Eculzumab
Bone marrow transplantation (can be curative)

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89
Q

What is microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia (MAHA)?

A

Destruction of RBCs as they travel through circulation
Most often caused by abnormal activation of clotting system- Blood clots partially obstruct small blood vessels- Thrombotic microangiopathy
Obstructions churn RBCs causing haemolysis

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90
Q

What are the causes of microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia (MAHA)?

A

HUS
DIC
TTP
SLE
Cancer

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91
Q

What are the key findings on blood film of MAHA?

A

Schistocytes

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92
Q

What is prosthetic valve haemolysis?

A

Haemolytic anaemia= Key complication of prosthetic valves
Caused by turbulent flow around valve and shearing of RBCs

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93
Q

Outline management of prosthetic valve haemolysis

A

Monitoring
Oral iron and folic acid supplementation
Blood transfusions if severe
Revision surgery if severe

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94
Q

What is thalassaemia?

A

Genetic defect in protein chains that make up Hb

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95
Q

What chains does normal Hb consist of?

A

2 alpha-globin chains
2 beta-globin chains

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96
Q

What is the inheritance of thalassaemia?

A

Autosomal recessive

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97
Q

Outline the features of thalassaemia

A

Microcytic anaemia (low MCV)
Fatigue
Pallor
Jaundice
Gallstones
Splenomegaly
Poor growth and development

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98
Q

Which type of anaemia is caused by thalassaemia?

A

Haemolytic anaemia- RBCs more fragile and breakdown easily
Spleen acts as a sieve and collects destroyed RBCs= Splenomegaly

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99
Q

Outline investigations of thalassaemia

A

Microcytic anaemia (low MCV)
Raised ferritin suggests iron overload
Hb electrophoresis used to diagnose globin abnormalities
DNA testing can look for genetic abnormality
All pregnant women offered screening test

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100
Q

What is the link between iron overload and thalassaemia?

A

Iron overload may occur due to:
Increased iron absorption in GI tract
Blood transfusions

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101
Q

List symptoms and complications of iron overload in thalassaemia

A

Liver cirrhosis
Hypogonadism
Hypothyroidism
HF
Diabetes
Osteoporosis

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102
Q

Outline management of iron overload in thalassaemia

A

Serum ferritin levels monitored
Limit transfusions and iron chelation

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103
Q

Outline alpha-thalassaemia

A

Gene for alpha-globin on Chr 16
Asymptomatic as carrier
Hb H disease- Moderate anaemia
Alpha-thalassaemia major- Intrauterine death due to severe fatal anaemia

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104
Q

Outline management of alpha-thalassaemia

A

Monitoring
Blood transfusions
Splenectomy
Bone marrow transplant

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105
Q

Outline beta-thalassaemia

A

Defects in gene coding for Chr 11
Split into 3 different types

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106
Q

Outline thalassaemia minor

A

Carriers of abnormally functioning beta-globin gene
1 abnormal and 1 normal gene
Causes mild microcytic anaemia
Requires monitoring only

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107
Q

Outline thalassaemia intermedia

A

2 abnormal copies of beta-globin gene
Can be either:
2 defective genes
1 defective gene and 1 deletion gene
Causes more significant microcytic anaemia

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108
Q

Outline management of thalassaemia intermedia

A

Require monitoring and may need occasional blood transfusions
May require iron chelation to prevent iron overload

109
Q

Outline beta thalassaemia major

A

Homozygous for deletion genes
No functioning beta-globin genes
Most severe form- Presents with severe anaemia and failure to thrive

110
Q

List presentation of beta thalassaemia major

A

Bone marrow under increased strain= Expands= Increases risk of fractures and changes appearance
Frontal bossing
Enlarged maxilla
Depressed nasal bridge
Protruding upper teeth

111
Q

Outline management of beta thalassaemia major

A

Regular transfusions
Iron chelation
Splenectomy
Bone marrow transplant- Curative

112
Q

How can a DVT cause a stroke?

A

Atrial septal defect- Passes through to L side of heart and into systemic circulation to brain

113
Q

List the RFs for VTE

A

Immobility
Recent surgery
Long haul travel
Pregnancy
Hormone therapy with oestrogen
Malignancy
Polycythaemia
SLE
Thrombophilia

114
Q

What is a common presentation of antiphospholipid syndrome?

A

Recurrent miscarriage and recurrent DVT

115
Q

List examples of thrombophilias

A

Antiphospholipid syndrome
Factor V Leiden
Antithrombin deficiency
Protein C or S deficiency
Hyperhomocysteinaemia
Prothrombin gene variant
Activated protein C resistance

116
Q

Outline VTE prophylaxis

A

LMWH- Enoxaparin
Anti-embolic compression stockings

117
Q

What are the CIs of compression stockings?

A

Peripheral artery disease

118
Q

What are the CIs to enoxaparin?

A

Active bleeding
Existing anticoagulation- With warfarin or DOAC

119
Q

Outline presentation of DVT

A

Unilateral
Calf or leg swelling
Dilated superficial veins
Tenderness to calf
Oedema
Colour change to leg

120
Q

What could be diagnosis of a patient presenting with symptoms of DVT in both legs?

A

Bilateral DVT (rare)
Chronic venous insufficiency
Heart failure

121
Q

When is calf circumference measured?

A

To check for unilateral calf swelling in a DVT
Measure 10cm below ischial tuberosity
>3cm difference is significant

122
Q

Outline how Wells score can influence management of VTE

A

VTE likely- Perform leg vein US
Unlikely- Perform d-dimer, if +ve, perform leg vein US

123
Q

Outline D-dimer

A

Sensitive but not specific for VTE- Helps for exclusion

124
Q

What are the causes of a raised d-dimer?

A

VTE
Pneumonia
Malignancy
HF
Surgery
Pregnancy

125
Q

What is the 1st line investigation of PE?

A

CT pulmonary angiogram (CTPA)

126
Q

Outline initial management of VTE

A

Initial anticoagulant- Apixaban or rivaroxaban
Alternative- LMWH
Start anticoagulation immediately if VTE suspected and delay in scan
Consider catheter-directed thrombolysis if symptomatic iliofemoral DVT and symptoms <14d

127
Q

Outline options for long term anticoagulation in VTE

A

Options- DOAC, warfarin or LMWH

DOACs- Don’t require monitoring

Warfarin- 1st line in antiphospholipid syndrome- Target INR between 2 and 3

LMWH- 1st line in pregnancy

128
Q

How long should patients be on anticoagulation after a VTE?

A

3mths- Reversible cause (then review)
3-6mths- Active cancer (then review)
Long term- Unprovoked VTE/recurrent VTE/irreversible underlying cause (eg: Thrombophilia)

129
Q

What are the exceptions to using DOAC as long term anticoagulation?

A

Severe renal impairment (creatinine clearance <15ml/min)
Antiphospholipid syndrome
Pregnancy

130
Q

What is an inferior vena cava filter?

A

Devices inserted into IVC to filter blood and catch blood clots travelling from venous system towards heart and lungs

Used as anticoagulation for those unsuitable for meds/PE occurred whilst on anticoagulation

131
Q

How is an unprovoked DVT investigated?

A

Review history, baseline bloods and physical exam for evidence of cancer
If patients not going to continue anticoagulation beyond 3-6mths- Consider testing for antiphospholipid syndrome and hereditary thrombophilias (if FHx +ve for VTE)

132
Q

What is Budd-Chiari syndrome?

A

Obstruction to outflow of blood from liver caused by thrombosis is hepatic vein/IVC
Associated with hypercoagulable states

133
Q

What is the classic triad of Budd-Chiari syndrome?

A

Abdo pain
Hepatomegaly
Ascites

134
Q

How is Budd-Chiari syndrome diagnosed?

A

Doppler ultrasonograohy

135
Q

How is Budd-Chiari Syndrome managed?

A

Anticoagulation
Endovascular procedures (eg: Thrombolysis or angioplasty)
Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS)
Liver transplant

136
Q

What deficiency is haemophilia A?

A

Factor VIII

137
Q

What deficiency is haemophilia B?

138
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of haemophilia?

A

X-linked recessive
More common in males

139
Q

What are the features of haemophilia?

A

Excessive bleeding in response to minor trauma
Risk of spontaneous bleeding w/o trauma
Neonates- Intracranial haemorrhage, haematomas, cord bleeding
Haemarthrosis- Can lead to joint damage and deformity
Bleeding into muscles- Compartment syndrome

Areas of bleeding:
Oral mucosa
Epistaxis
GI tract
Urinary tract- Haematuria
ICH
Surgical wounds

140
Q

How is haemophilia diagnosed?

A

Bleeding score
Coagulation factor assays
Genetic testing

141
Q

How is haemophilia managed?

A

Affected clotting factors (VIII, or IX) IV infusion

142
Q

What is a complication of haemophilia treatment?

A

Giving clotting factors can form antibodies against treatment- Become ineffective

143
Q

What is Von Willebrand Disease?

A

Most common inherited cause of abnormal and prolonged bleeding

144
Q

What is the inheritance of Von Willebrand Disease?

A

Most common autosomal dominant:
Deficiency/absence of glycoprotein VWF

145
Q

What is the role of VWF?

A

Platelet adhesion and aggregation in damaged vessels

146
Q

Outline the types of VWD

A

Type 1: Partial deficiency VWF- Most common- Mildest
Type 2: Reduced function VWF
Type 3: Complete deficiency VWF- Most rare and severe

147
Q

Outline presentation of VWD

A

History of unusually easy, prolonged, heavy bleeding
Bleeding gums with brushing
Epistaxis
Easy bruising
Menorrhagia
Heavy bleeding during/after surgery
Family history heavy bleeding or VWD

148
Q

Outline diagnosis of VWD

A

History
FHx
Bleeding assessment
Various underlying causes and types means no single VWD test

149
Q

Outline management of VWD

A

Management only at times of severe bleeding/trauma or in [reparation for surgery

Desmopressin (stimulates VWF release from endothelial cells)
TXA
VWF infusion
Factor VIII plus VWF infusion

150
Q

What causes reduced platelets?

A

EBV, CMV, HIV
B12 deficiency
Folic acid deficiency
Liver failure- Reduced thrombopoietin production by liver
Leukaemia
Myelodysplastic syndrome
Chemotherapy

151
Q

What can platelet destruction occur with?

A

Meds- Sodium valproate, methotrexate
Alcohol
Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)
Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)
Haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS)

152
Q

What is thrombocytopenia?

A

Low platelet count

153
Q

Outline presentation of thrombocytopenia

A

<50 x 10^9/L = Easy bruising and prolonged bleeding times

Epistaxis
Bleeding gums
Heavy periods
Easy bruising
Haematuria
Rectal bleeding

154
Q

What can occur if platelet count <10 x 10^9/L?

A

Intracranial haemorrhage
GI bleeding

155
Q

List the differential diagnoses of abnormal bleeding

A

Thrombocytopenia
VWD
Haemophilia A or B
Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)- Usually secondary to sepsis

156
Q

What is ITP?

A

Antibodies created against platelets- Thrombocytopenia

157
Q

How does ITP present?

A

Purpura- Non-blanching lesions caused by bleeding under skin

158
Q

Outline management of ITP

A

Monitor platelet count, control BP and suppress periods

Prednisolone
IV immunoglobulins
Thrombopoietin receptor agonists (eg: Avatrombopag)
Rituximab (targets B cells)
Splenectomy

159
Q

Outline rituximab

A

Monoclonal AB
Targets CD20 proteins on surface of B cells
Reduces production of ABs responsible for AI disease

160
Q

What is Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura?

A

Tiny thrombi develop throughout small vessels, using up platelets
Deficiency in ADAMTS13

Causes thrombocytopenia, purpura, tissue ischaemia and end-organ damage

161
Q

What is the role of ADAMTS13?

A

Inactivates VWF
Reduces platelet adhesion to vessel walls
Reduces clot formation

162
Q

What can cause an ADAMTS13 deficiency?

A

Hereditary
AI diseases

163
Q

How is TTP managed?

A

Plasma exchange
Steroids
Rituximab

164
Q

What is Heparin-Induced Thrombocytopenia?

A

Antibodies against platelets in response to heparin (usually unfractionated)
Target protein on platelets- PF4
Usually starts 5-10d after starting treatment with heparin
Causes hypercoagulable state and thrombosis

165
Q

Outline diagnosis of HIT

A

Test for HIT antibodies in blood

166
Q

Outline management of HIT

A

Stop heparin
Use alternative anticoagulant- Fondaparinux or argatroban

167
Q

What is myelodysplastic syndrome?

A

Cancer caused by mutation in myeloid cells of bone marrow
Results in inadequate production of blood cells (ineffective haematopoiesis)

168
Q

What does myelodysplastic syndrome have the potential to turn into?

A

Acute myeloid leukaemia

169
Q

What are the features on blood count of myelodysplastic syndrome?

A

Anaemia
Neutropenia
Thrombocytopenia
Pancytopenia- Low RBCs, WBCs and platelets

170
Q

What are the risk factors for myelodysplastic syndrome?

A

Old age
Previous chemo/radiotherapy

171
Q

Outline diagnosis of myelodysplastic syndrome

A

Abnormal FBC
May have blasts on blood film
Bone marrow biopsy- Confirms diagnosis

172
Q

Outline management of Myelodysplastic syndrome

A

Watchful waiting
Supportive treatment- Blood or platelet transfusions
Erythropoietin- Stimulates RBC production
Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor- Stimulates neutrophil production
Chemo and targeted therapies (eg: Lenalidomide)
Allogenic stem cell transplantation (risky but potentially curative)

173
Q

What are myeloproliferative disorders?

A

Uncontrolled proliferation of a single type of stem cell
Form of cancer occurring in bone marrow
Develop and progress slowly

174
Q

What do myeloproliferative disorders have the potential to develop into?

A

Acute myeloid leukaemia

175
Q

What is the proliferating cell line of primary myelofibrosis?

A

Haematopoietic stem cells

176
Q

What are the blood findings in primary myelofibrosis?

A

Low Hb
High or low white cell count
High or low platelet count

177
Q

What is the proliferating cell line in polycythaemia vera?

A

Erythroid cells

178
Q

What are the blood findings in polycythaemia vera?

A

Megakaryocyte

179
Q

What are the blood findings in essential thrombocythaemia?

A

High platelet count

180
Q

Which gene mutations are associated with myeloproliferative disorders?

181
Q

What is Myelofibrosis?

A

Can result from primary myelofibrosis/polycythaemia vera/essential thrombocythaemia
Proliferation of single cell line leads to bone marrow fibrosis
Is a response to cytokines released from proliferating cells (fibroblast growth factor)

182
Q

What is the effect of bone marrow fibrosis in myelofibrosis?

A

Anaemia
Low WBCs
Low Platelets
As progresses- Production of blood cells happens in other areas (extramedullary haematopoiesis)- Liver and spleen- Hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, portal HTN- If occurs around spine can compress SC

183
Q

What can a blood film in myelofibrosis show?

A

Teardrop-shaped RBCs
Anisocytosis (varying sizes of RBCs)
Blasts (immature red and white cells)

184
Q

Outline presentation of myeloproliferative disorders

A

Fatigue
Weight loss
Night sweats
Fever

Underlying complications:
Anaemia- Tired, SOB, dizziness
Splenomegaly- Abdo pain
Portal HTN- Ascites, varices abd abdo pain
Low platelets- Bleeding and petechiae
Raised Hb- Itching, headaches, red face
Low WBCs- Infections
Gout- Complication of polycythaemia

185
Q

What is a common complication of polycythaemia and thrombocythaemia?

A

Thrombosis- Leads to MI/stroke/VTE

186
Q

What are the clinical signs of polycythaemia?

A

Red face
Conjunctival plethora (opposite of conjunctival pallor)
Splenomegaly
HTN

187
Q

Outline diagnosis of myeloproliferative disorders

A

Bone marrow biopsy
Myelofibrosis- Bone marrow aspiration dry- Turned to scar tissue
Test genes- JAK2, MPL, CALR

188
Q

Outline management of primary myelofibrosis

A

No active treatment for mild disease with minimal symptoms
Supportive management complications
Chemotherapy (eg: Hydroxycarbamide)
Targeted therapy- JAK2 inhibitors (ruxolitinib)
Allogenic stem cell transplantation (risky but potentially curative)

189
Q

Outline management of polycythaemia vera

A

Venesection
Aspirin- Reduce risk thrombus formation
Chemotherapy- Hydroxycarbamide

190
Q

Outline management of essential thrombocythaemia

A

Aspirin- Reduce risk thrombus formation
Chemo- Hydroxycarbamide
Anagrelide- Platelet lowering agent

191
Q

What is sickle cell anaemia?

A

Genetic condition causing sickle shaped RBCs
Makes RBCs more fragile and easily destroyed- Haemolytic anaemia
Patients prone to sickle cell crises

192
Q

Outline pathophysiology of Sickle Cell Disease (SCD)

A

HbS
Autosomal recessive
Affects gene for beta-globin on Chr11

193
Q

Outline SCD and malaria

A

SCD more common in patients from areas traditionally affected by malaria
Having sickle cell trait reduces severity of malaria
Selective advantage

194
Q

Outline screening of SCD

A

Newborn blood spot at 5d
Pregnant at high risk of being carriers offered testing

195
Q

List complications of SCD

A

Anaemia
Increased risk of infection
CKD
Sickle cell crises
Acute chest syndrome
Stroke
Avascular necrosis in large joints (hip)
Pulmonary HTN
Gallstones
Priapism

196
Q

Outline sickle cell crisis

A

Spectrum of acute exacerbations caused by SCD
Can occur spontaneously or specific triggers

197
Q

What are the potential triggers of sickle cell crisis?

A

Dehydration
Infection
Stress
Cold weather

198
Q

Outline management of sickle cell crisis

A

Low threshold admission to hospital
Treat infections
Keep warm
Good hydration
Analgesia (avoid NSAIDs if renal impairment)

199
Q

Outline vaso-occlusive crisis

A

Painful crisis
Most common type of sickle cell crisis
Sickle-shaped RBCs clog capillaries and cause distal ischaemia

200
Q

How does a vaso-occlusive crisis present?

A

Pain and swelling in hands or feet- Can affect chest and back
Fever
Priapism

201
Q

How is priapism managed in a vaso-occlusive crisis?

A

Aspirate blood from penis

202
Q

What is a splenic sequestration crisis?

A

RBCs block flow within spleen
Causes acutely enlarged, painful spleen
Blood pooling in spleen- Severe anaemia and hypovolaemic shock
EMERGENCY

203
Q

How is a splenic sequestration crisis managed?

A

Blood transfusions
Fluid resuscitation
Splenectomy in recurrent cases

204
Q

What are the complications of splenic sequestration crisis?

A

Splenic infarction- Hyposplenism, susceptibility to infections (Strep and Haemophilus influenzae)

205
Q

Outline aplastic crisis

A

A type of sickle cell crisis
Temporary absence of creation of new RBCs
Triggered by Parvovirus B19
Leads to significant aplastic anaemia

206
Q

Outline management of aplastic crisis

A

Usually resolves spontaneously within a week
May require blood transfusions

207
Q

Outline acute chest syndrome

A

Type of Sickle cell crisis
Vessels supplying lungs become clogged with RBCs
Vaso-occlusive crisis, fat embolism or infection can trigger this

208
Q

How does acute chest syndrome present?

A

Fever
SOB
Chest pain
Cough
Hypoxia

CXR- Pulmonary infiltrates

209
Q

How is acute chest syndrome managed?

A

Analgesia
Good hydration
Antibiotics or antivirals if infection
Blood transfusions if anaemia
Incentive spirometry- Machine that encourages effective and deep breathing
Respiratory support- Oxygen

210
Q

Outline general management of SCD

A

Avoid triggers
Up to date vaccines
Antibiotic prophylaxis- Pen V
Hydroxycarbamide- Stimulates HbF
Crizanlizumab
Blood transfusions- Severe anaemia
Bone marrow transplant- Can be curative

211
Q

How does Hydroxycarbamide help in SCD?

A

Stimulates production of HbF- Doesn’t sickle
Reduces frequency of vaso-occlusive crises, improves anaemia, may extend lifespan

212
Q

How does Crizanlizumab help in SCD?

A

Monoclonal AB- Targets P-selectin (adhesion molecule on endothelial cells inside walls of blood vessels and platelets)
Prevents RBCs sticking to blood vessel wall, reduces frequency of vaso-occlusive crises

213
Q

What is leukaemia?

A

Cancer of a particular line of stem cells in bone marrow
Causes unregulated production of specific type of blood cell

214
Q

What is AML?

A

Acute myeloid leukaemia
Rapidly progressing cancer of myeloid cell line
Transformation from myeloproliferative disorder

Auer rods

215
Q

What is ALL?

A

Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
Rapidly progressing cancer of lymphoid cell line- Usually B-lymphocytes
Most common leukaemia in children
Associated with Down syndrome

216
Q

What is CML?

A

Chronic myeloid leukaemia
Slowly progressing cancer of myeloid cell line
3 phases- Including long chronic
Philadelphia chromosome

217
Q

What is CLL?

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
Slowly progressing cancer of lymphoid cell line- Usually B-lymphocytes
Warm haemolytic anaemia
Richter’s transformation and smudge cells
>60y

218
Q

Outline pathophysiology of leukaemia

A

Genetic mutation in one of precursor cells in bone marrow leads to excessive production of single type abnormal WBC
Suppresses other cell lines- Pancytopenia

219
Q

What is pancytopenia?

A

Combination of low RBCs (anaemia), WBCs (leukopenia) and platelets (thrombocytopenia)

220
Q

Outline presentation of leukaemia

A

Non-specific:
Fatigue
Fever
Pallor due to anaemia
Petechiae or bruising due to thrombocytopenia
Abnormal bleeding
Lymphadenopathy
Hepatosplenomegaly
Failure to thrive

221
Q

What are the differentials of non-blanching rash?

A

Leukaemia
Meningococcal septicaemia
Vasculitis
Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP)
ITP
TTP
Traumatic or mechanical (eg: Severe vomiting)
Non-accidental Injury (NAI)

222
Q

Outline investigations of leukaemia

A

FBC within 48h if suspected
Blood film
LDH- Raised in leukaemia (non-specific)
Bone marrow biopsy
CT and PET scans (staging)
Lymph node biopsy (assess abnormal lymph nodes)
Genetic tests and immunophenotyping

223
Q

What is Richter’s transformation?

A

Rare transformation of CLL into high-grade B-cell lymphoma

224
Q

What are smear/smudge cells?

A

Ruptured WBCs that occur whilst preparing blood film- Cells aged/fragile
Associated with CLL

225
Q

Outline general management of leukaemia

A

Targeted therapy:
Tyrosine kinase inhibitors (ibrutinib)
MA (rituximab- Targets B-cells)

Chemotherapy
Radiotherapy
Bone marrow transplant
Surgery

226
Q

List complications of chemotherapy

A

Failure to treat cancer
Stunted growth and development in children
Infections due to immunosuppression
Neurotoxicity
Infertility
Secondary malignancy
Cardiotoxicity
Tumour lysis syndrome

227
Q

What is tumour lysis syndrome?

A

Result of chemotherapy

High uric acid
High potassium
High phosphate
Low calcium

Uric acid can cause AKI
Hyperkalaemia- Cardiac arrhythmias
Release of cytokines- Systemic inflammation

228
Q

How is the risk of tumour lysis syndrome managed?

A

Good hydration and urine output before chemotherapy
Allopurinol or rasburicase- Suppress uric acid levels

229
Q

What is lymphoma?

A

Cancer affecting lymphocytes inside lymphatic system
Cancer cells proliferate inside lymph nodes- Lymphadenopathy

230
Q

Outline Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A

Most common specific type of lymphoma
Bimodal age distribution 20-25y and 80y

231
Q

What are the RFs for Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

HIV
EBV
AI conditions- RA and sarcoidosis
FHx

232
Q

List types of Non-Hodgkin lymphoma

A

Diffuse large B cell lymphoma
Burkitt lymphoma
MALT lymphoma

233
Q

What is Diffuse large B cell lymphoma?

A

NHL
Rapidly growing painless mass in older patients

234
Q

What is Burkitt lymphoma?

A

NHL
Associated with EBV and HIV

235
Q

What is MALT lymphoma?

A

NHL
Affects mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue- Usually around stomach

236
Q

List RFs for NHL

A

HIV
EBV
H. pylori- MALT lymphoma
Hep B or C infection
Exposure to pesticides
Exposure to trichloroethylene
FHx

237
Q

Outline presentation of lymphoma

A

Lymphadenopathy- Non-tender, feel firm and rubbery

Hodgkin’s- Lymph node pain after drinking alcohol

B symptoms:
Fever
Weight loss
Night sweats

Fatigue
Itching
Cough
SOB
Abdo pain
Recurrent infections

238
Q

Outline investigations of lymphoma

A

Lymph node biopsy
Hodgkin’s- Reed-Sternberg cells- Large B lymphocytes with 2 nuclei and prominent nucleoli
CT, MRI, PET scans- Staging

239
Q

Which condition are Reed-Sternberg cells found in?

A

Hodgkin’s lymphocytes

240
Q

Which condition are Auer rods found in?

241
Q

Outline Lugano classification

A

Staging Hodgkin’s and NHL

Stage 1: Confined to one node/group of nodes
Stage 2: >1 group of nodes but on same side of diaphragm
Stage 3: Affects lymph nodes above and below diaphragm
Stage 4: Widespread involvement, including non-lymphatic organs (eg: Lungs/liver)

242
Q

Outline management of Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A

Chemo/radiotherapy
Usually curable, though risk of relapse and SEs

243
Q

What are the risks of chemotherapy in Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

Infections
Cognitive impairment
Secondary cancers (eg: Leukaemia)
Infertility

244
Q

What are the risks of radiotherapy in Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

Tissue fibrosis
Secondary cancers
Infertility

245
Q

How is NHL managed?

A

Watchful waiting
Chemo/radiotherapy
MA- Eg: Rituximab
Stem cell transplantation

246
Q

What is myeloma?

A

Type of cancer affecting plasma cells in bone marrow
Cancer in a specific type of plasma cell results in production of large quantities paraprotein (or M protein)- Abnormal antibody/part of antibody

247
Q

What are plasma cells?

A

B lymphocytes that produce antibodies

248
Q

What is multiple myeloma?

A

Myeloma affects multiple bone marrow areas in body

249
Q

What is MGUS?

A

Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance

Production of specific paraprotein w/o other features of myeloma or cancer
Incidental finding in otherwise healthy person
Small risk progression to myeloma (1%/y)

250
Q

What is smouldering myeloma?

A

Abnormal plasma cells and paraproteins but no organ damage or symptoms
10% risk/y developing into myeloma

251
Q

List complications of myeloma

A

Infection
Bone pain
Fractures
Renal failure
Anaemia
Hypercalcaemia
Peripheral neuropathy
SC compression
Hyperviscosity syndrome
Venous thromboembolism

252
Q

Outline management of myeloma bone disease

A

Bisphosphonates- Suppress osteoclast activity
Radiotherapy for bone lesions- Improve bone pain
Orthopaedic surgery- Stabilise bones/treat fractures
Cement augmentation- Improve spine stability and pain

253
Q

Outline management of myeloma

A

Chemo:
Bortezomib
Thalidomide
Dexamethasone

High-dose chemo followed by stem cell transplant- Option for fitter patients:
Autologous (uses patient’s stem cells)
Allogenic (stem cells from healthy donor)

254
Q

Outline prognosis of myeloma

A

Relapsing-remitting
Never fully cured

255
Q

Outline xray findings in myeloma

A

Well-defined lytic lesions (look ‘punched out’
Diffuse osteopenia
Abnormal fractures
Raindrop skull- Multiple lytic lesions seen in skull

256
Q

What are Bence Jones proteins?

A

Free light chains (antibodies) in urine
Found in urine in myeloma

257
Q

What are the 4 key features of myeloma?

A

C- Calcium elevated
R- Renal failure
A- Anaemia
B- Bone lesions and bone pain

258
Q

Outline anaemia in myeloma

A

Most common complication
Cancerous plasma cells invade bone marrow- Suppresses other blood cell lines- Anaemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia

Normocytic and normochromic

259
Q

Outline myeloma bone disease

A

Increased osteoclast activity and suppressed osteoblast activity
Osteoclasts- Absorb bone
Osteoblasts- Deposit bone
Metabolism of bone imbalanced- More bone reabsorbed than constructed
Abnormal bone areas patchy- Some very thin, others normal= OSTEOLYTIC LESIONS- Weak points lead to pathological fractures

260
Q

What are the common sites of myeloma bone disease?

A

Skull
Long bones
Ribs
Spine

261
Q

Outline presentation of myeloma bone disease

A

Abnormal bone areas patchy- Some very thin, others normal= OSTEOLYTIC LESIONS- Weak points lead to pathological fractures
Increased osteoclast activity- Calcium reabsorption from bone into blood- Hypercalcaemia
Plasmacytomas- Individual tumours formed by cancerous plasma cells- Occur in bones, replacing normal bone tissue or in soft tissues

262
Q

Outline renal disease and myeloma

A

Causes are:
Paraproteins- Deposit in kidneys
Hypercalcaemia- Affect kidney function
Dehydration
Glomerulonephritis
Meds used to treat condition

263
Q

Outline hyperviscosity syndrome and myeloma

A

Plasma viscosity increases when more proteins in blood- Paraproteins
EMERGENCY

264
Q

What are the complications of hyperviscosity syndrome in myeloma?

A

Bleeding- Nosebleeds and bleeding gums
Visual symptoms and eye changes (eg: Retinal haemorrhages)
Stroke
HF

265
Q

What are the risk factors for myeloma?

A

Older age
Male
Black ethnic origin
FHx
Obesity

266
Q

Outline presentation of myeloma

A

Persistent bone pain
Pathological fractures
Unexplained fatigue
Unexplained weight loss
Fever of unknown origin
Hypercalcaemia
Anaemia
Renal impairment

267
Q

Outline investigations of myeloma

A

FBC- Anaemia or leukopenia
Calcium- Raised
ESR- Increased
Plasma viscosity- Increased
U&Es- Renal impairment
Serum protein electrophoresis- Detect paraproteinaemia
Serum-free light-chain assay- Detect abnormally abundant light chains
Urine protein electrophoresis- Detect Bence-Jones protein

Bone marrow biopsy- Confirms diagnosis

Imaging:
1. Whole body MRI
2. Whole body low-dose CT
3. Skeletal survey (Xray)