Haematology Flashcards

1
Q

What chromosome is associated with CML?

A

Philadelphia chromosome

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2
Q

How does CML present?

A

Presents between 60-70 with:
Anaemia
Weight loss and sweating
Splenomegaly
An increase in granulocytes at different stages of maturation +/- thrombocytosis
May undergo blast transformation

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3
Q

In a non-urgent scenario, how long should a unit of RBCs be transfused over?

A

90-120 mins

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4
Q

what is the typical history of hereditary spherocytosis?

A

neonatal jaundice
chronic symptoms although haemolytic crises may be precipitated by infection
Gallstones
Splenomegaly is common

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5
Q

What is the diagnostic test for hereditary spheorcytosis?

A

EMA binding test

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6
Q

what is von willebrand disease?

A

most common inherited bleeding disorder
majority of cases are inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion

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7
Q

what is seen on investigation in people with von willebrand disease?

A

prolonged bleeding time
APTT may be prolonged
factor VIII levels may be moderately reduced
defective platelet aggregation with ristocetin

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8
Q

what is the median age of presentation of multiple myeloma?

A

70

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9
Q

What are the features of multiple myeloma?

A

CRABBI
C = calcium = hypercalcaemia = constipation, confusion, anorexia, nausea
R = renal = renal damage presents as dehydration and increased thirst
A = anaemia = bone marrow crowding suppresses erythropoiesis leading to anaemia = this causes fatigue and pallor
B = bleeding = bone marrow crowding also results in thrombocytopenia which puts patients at increased risk of bleeding and bruising
B = bones = bone marrow infiltration by plasma cells and cytokine-mediated osteoclast overactivity creates lytic bone lesions - may present as pain and increases the risk of pathological fractures
I = infection = reduction in production of normal immunoglobulins results in increased susceptibility to infection

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10
Q

What does cryoprecipitate contain?

A

factor VIII, fibrinogen, von Willebrand factor, factor XIII

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11
Q

What is haemochromatosis?

A

autosomal recessive disorder of iron absorption and metabolism resulting in iron accumulation

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12
Q

how does Paget’s disease present?

A

stereotypical presentation is an older male with bone pain and an isolated raised ALP
bone pain e.g. pelvis, lumbar spine, femur
classical, untreated features: bowing of tibia, bossing of skull

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13
Q

What happens in DIC?

A

the process of coagulation and fibrinolysis are dysregulated, leading to widespread clotting with resultant bleeding

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14
Q

What is the typical blood picture in DIC?

A

low platelets
low fibrinogen
increased PT and APTT
Increased fibrinogen degradation products
schistocytes due to microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia

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15
Q

What is haemolytic uraemic syndrome?

A

Generally seen in young children and produces a triad of:
- acute kidney injury
- microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia
- thrombocytopenia

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16
Q

what are the causes of haemolytic uraemic syndrome?

A

most cases are secondary:
- classically shigella toxin producing E coli 0157:H7 -> Most common case in children, accounting for over 90% of cases
- pneumococcal infection
- HIV
- rare: SLE, drugs, cancer

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17
Q

what is the treatment of HUS?

A
  • supportive e.g. fluids, blood transfusion and dialysis is required
  • no role for abx
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18
Q

What can CLL transform into and what is this transformation called?

A

Richter’s transformation:
- CLL transformation into high grade lymphoma -> non-hodgkins lymphoma

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19
Q

What are the symptoms of Richter’s transformation?

A

occurs when leukaemia cells enter the lymph node and change into a high-grade, fast-growing, non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
Patients often become unwell very suddenly
It is indicated by one of the following symptoms:
- Lymph node swelling
- fever without infection
- weight loss
- night sweats
- nausea
- abdominal pain

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20
Q

What is superficial thrombophlebitis?

A

Inflammation associated with thrombosis of one of the superficial veins, usually the long saphenous vein of the leg
Usually non-infective in nature but secondary bacterial infection may rarely occur resulting in septic thrombophlebitis
around 20% with superficial thrombophlebitis will have underlying DVT at presentation and 3-4% will progress to DVT if untreated

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21
Q

How is superficial thrombophlebitis managed?

A

traditionally NSAIDs have been used
Topical heparinoids have also been used
Compression stocking are also used but ABPI should be measured before

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22
Q

What may be seen on blood film in people with coeliac disease?

A

hyposplenism is a complication of coeliac disease therefore blood film may show:
target cells
Howell-Jolly bodies
pappenheimer bodies
siderotic granules
acanthocytes

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23
Q

what is hereditary spherocytosis?

A

most common haemolytic anaemia in people of northern European descent
autosomal dominant defect of red blood cell cytoskeleton
normal biconcave disc shape is replaced by a sphere-shaped RBC
red blood cell survival is reduced as they are destroyed by the spleen as a result

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24
Q

What is heparin-induced thrombocytopenia and how does it present?

A
  • immune-mediated: antibodies form against complexes of platelet factor 4 and heparin
  • usually does not develop until after 5-10 days of treatment
  • features include a greater than 50% reduction in platelets, thrombosis and skin allergy
  • you need to address the need for ongoing anticoagulation as heparin would need to be withheld and replaced with: direct thrombin inhibitor e.g. argatroban, danaparoid
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25
Q

what is the pattern of clotting tests in people with Von Willebrand disease?

A

normal platelets
prolonged bleeding time
prolonged APTT
normal PT and TT

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26
Q

what is the management of giant cell arteritis?

A

should be immediately treated with high dose steroids - 60mg OD prednisolone to prevent blindness and stroke

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27
Q

What is seen on blood film in G6PD?

A

heinz bodies and bite cells, diagnostic test is a G6PD enzyme assay

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28
Q

What marker is measured in suspected haemochromatosis?

A

transferrin saturation

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29
Q

how is sick cell acute chest crisis managed?

A

core triad of:
- high flow oxygen
- antibiotics with atypical cover
- exchange transfusion
- long term the patient should be started on hydroxyurea - good evidence of benefit in preventing subsequent episodes

30
Q

What is hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia?

A

autosomal dominant condition characterised by multiple telangiectasia over the skin and mucous membranes

31
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia?

A

there are 4 main diagnostic criteria - if the patient has 2 then they are said to have a possible diagnosis of HHT,.
If they meet 3 or more criteria they are said to have a definitive diagnosis of HHT:
- epistaxis: spontaneous, recurrent nosebleeds
- telangiectasias: multiple at characteristic sites e.g. lips, oral cavity, fingers, nose
- visceral lesions: e.g. GI telangiectasia, pulmonary AVM, hepatic AVM, cerebral AVM, spinal AVM
- fhx: a first degree relative with HHT

32
Q

What is the first-line treatment of CML?

A

imatinib

33
Q

What is the Ann Arbor staging of Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

I: single lymph node
II: 2 or more lymph nodes/regions on the same side of the diaphragm
III: nodes on both sides of the diaphragm
IV: spread beyond lymph nodes

A = no systemic symptoms other than pruritus
B = weight loss > 10% in last 6 months, fever > 38, night sweats

34
Q

what can cause osteomyelitis in pts with sickle cell disease?

A

salmonella

35
Q

What are the features of Buerger’s disease?

A

thrombangiitis obliterans
small and medium vessel vasculitis that is strongly associated with smoking
extremity ischaemia: intermittent claudication, ischaemic ulcers
superficial thrombophlebitis
raynaud’s phenomenon

36
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Factor V Leiden?

A

activated protein C resistance

37
Q

what are the features of G6PD deficiency?

A

affects males - x linked recessive
affects African and Mediterranean descent
history of neonatal jaundice, infection/drug precipitate haemolysis, gallstones
heinz bodies seen on blood film
measure enzyme of G6PD is the diagnostic test

38
Q

What are the features of b12 deficiency?

A

anaemia features: lethargy, pallor, dyspnoea
neuro features: pins and needles which affects legs more than arms
subacute combined degen of spinal cord
memory loss, poor conc, confusion depression, irritability
can cause mild jaundice, glossitis - sore tongue

38
Q

What are the features of b12 deficiency/pernicious anaemia ?

A

anaemia features: lethargy, pallor, dyspnoea
neuro features: pins and needles which affects legs more than arms
subacute combined degen of spinal cord
memory loss, poor conc, confusion depression, irritability
can cause mild jaundice, glossitis - sore tongue

39
Q

how is pernicious anaemia treated?

A

vit 12 given IM
3 injections per week for 2 weeks followed by 3 monthly treatment of vit B12 injections
more frequent doses are given for patients with neurological features

40
Q

What is myelofibrosis?

A

proliferation of a specific cell line leading to fibrosis of the bone marrow - bone marrow becomes replaced by scar tissue - fibrosis affects production of blood cells and can lead to anaemia and low white blood cells

41
Q

what is extramedullary haematopoiesis?

A

when bone marrow is replaced with scar tissue the production of red blood cells starts to happen in other areas such as the liver and spleen, which can lead to hepatomegaly and splenomegaly
If it occurs around the spine it can lead to spinal cord compression

42
Q

How can myeloproliferative disorders present?

A

can be asymptomatic
can present systemically with: fatigue, weight loss, night sweats, fever
signs and symptoms of underlying complications: anaemia, splenomegaly, portal hypertension, low platelets, thrombosis, raised RBCs, low WBCs

43
Q

What are key signs on examination in someone with polycythaemia vera?

A

conjunctival plethora - excessive redness to conjunctiva of eyes
ruddy complexion
splenomegaly

44
Q

what may be seen on Full blood count in ppl with myelofibrosis?

A

polycythaemia vera: haemoglobin > 185 in men or 165 in women
primary thrombocythaemia: platelets > 600

45
Q

what is seen on blood film in myelofibrosis?

A

tear shaped RBCs, varying sizes of RBCs (poikilocytosis) and immature red and white cells (blasts)

46
Q

which blood products carry highest risk of bacterial contamination?

A

platelets

47
Q

What cell line causes multiple myeloma?

A

plasma cells - a genetic mutation occurs as b-lymphocytes differentiate into plasma cells

48
Q

What immunoglobulin type is mostly affected in myeloma?

A

type IgG

49
Q

where does myeloma bone disease commonly occur?

A

skull, spine, long bones, ribs

50
Q

what are the risk factors for myeloma?

A

older age
male
black african ethnicity
family history
obesity

51
Q

what investigations would be done if you suspect multiple myeloma?

A

Bloods: fbc - anaemia, blood film - rouleaux formation, U&Es -renal failure, bone profile - hypercalcaemia
Protein electrophoresis - raised conc. of IgA/IgG proteins in serum, in urine this is known as Bence Jones proteins
Bone marrow aspiration - confirms diagnosis if no. of plasma cells is significantly raised
imaging - skeletal survey, whole body CT, whole body MRI, x-rays - “rain drop skull”, lytic lesions, punched out lesions

52
Q

when should you suspect myeloma?

A

anyone over 60 with persistent bone pain, particularly back pain or an unexplained fracture - in this case perform initial investigations:

53
Q

what investigations do NICE guidelines recommend for testing for myeloma?

A

remember the mnemonic BLIP:
B - bence jones protein
L - serum-free light chain assay
I - serum immunoglobulins
P - serum Protein electrophoresis
bone marrow biopsy is necessary to confirm the diagnosis of myeloma
imaging is required to assess for bone lesions - whole body MRI, whole body CT, Skeletal survey

54
Q

what is the management of myeloma?

A

first line: combo chemotherapy with bortezomid, thalidomide, dexamethasone
stem cell transplantation can be used as part of a clinical trial
patients require vte prophylaxis with aspirin or lmwh

55
Q

what is the management of myeloma bone disease?

A

bisphosphonates - suppress osteoclast activity
radiotherapy to bone lesions can improve bone pain
orthopaedic surgery can stabilise bones
cement augmentation involves injecting cement into vertebral fractures or lesions and can improve spine stability and pain

56
Q

what are complications of multiple myeloma and treatment?

A

infection
renal failure
pain
anaemia
hypercalcaemia
peripheral neuropathy
spinal cord compression hyperviscosity

57
Q

What is MGUS?

A

monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance - where an excess of a single type of antibody or antibody component WITHOUT any features of myeloma or cancer - often an incidental finding - may progress to myeloma and patients are often followed up routinely to monitor for progression

58
Q

what is smouldering myeloma?

A

progression of MGUS with higher levels of antibodies or antibody components - premalignant and more likely to progress to myeloma than MGUS

59
Q

what should patients with antiphospholipid syndrome be on?

A

warfarin

60
Q

what are patients with haemochromatosis at increased risk of?

A

hepatocellular carcinoma

61
Q

what electrolyte abnormality can occur as a result of blood transfusion?

A

hyperkalaemia

62
Q

what is polyarteritis nodosa?

A

vasculitis affecting medium-sized arteries with necrotizing inflammation leading to aneurysm formation
it is more common in middle-aged men and is associated with Hep B infection

63
Q

what are the features of polyarteritis nodosa?

A

fever, malaise, arthralgia
weight loss
hypertension
mononeuritis multiplex
testicular pain
livedo reticularis
haematuria, renal failure
hep B serology positive in 30% of patients

64
Q

What is the primary management of leaukaemia?

A

primarily treated with chemotherapy and steroids, other treatments include:
- radiotherapy
- bone marrow transplant
- surgery

65
Q

what are complications of chemotherapy?

A

failure
stunted growth and development in children
infections due to immunodeficiency
neurotoxicity
infertility
secondary malignancy
cardiotoxicity
tumour lysis syndrome

66
Q

what happens in tumour lysis syndrome?

A

release of uric acid from cells that are being destroyed by chemotherapy - uric acid can form crystals in the interstitial tissue and tubules of the kidneys and can cause acute kidney injury
Allopurinol or rasburicase are used to reduce the high uric acid levels - other chemicals such as potassium and phosphate are also released so need to be monitored and treated appropriately

67
Q

which tumours most commonly cause bony metastasis?

A

prostate
breast
lung

68
Q

when will a low platelet count become asymptomatic?

A

counts below 50 x10^9 will result in easy or spontaneous bruising or prolonged bleeding times - may present with nosebleeds, bleeding gums, heavy periods, easy bruising or blood in the urine or stools
platelet counts below 10x10^9 are high risk for spontaneous bleeding - spontaneous intracranial haemorrhage or GI bleeds are particularly concerning

69
Q

what is immune thrombocytopenic purpura?

A

where antibodies are created against platelets - causes an immune response against platelets, resulting in destruction of platelets and low platelet count
typically more acute in children than in adults and may follow an infection or vaccination

70
Q

how is immune thrombocytopenic purpura managed?

A

prednisolone
IV immunoglobulins
rituximab
splenectomy
platelet count needs to be monitored and pt needs education about concerning signs of bleeding such as persistent headache and melaena and when to seek help
additional measures such as carefully controlling blood pressure and suppressing menstrual periods are also important

71
Q

what is thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura?

A

condition where tiny blood clots develop throughout the small vessels of the body using up platelets and causing thrombocytopenia, bleeding under the skin and other systemic issues - affects the small vessels
due to a deficiency with a specific protein called ADAMTS13 - this can be due to an inherited genetic mutation or due to autoimmune disease where antibodies are created against the protein
treatment is guided by a haematologist and may involve plasma exchange, steroids and rituximab