Haematology Flashcards

1
Q

what are the two broad causes of coagulopathies

A

medication
conditions

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2
Q

what are the two main congenital conditions causing coagulopathies

A

Haemophilia (A and B)
von Willebrand’s disease

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3
Q

name 5 congenital conditions that cause coagulopathies

A

Haemophilia A and B
Von Willebrands
Bernard Soulier syndrome
Wiscott Aldrich syndrome
Idiopathic thrombocypenic purpura
Ehlers Danlos syndrome

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4
Q

what is haemophilia a and b

A

A = factor VIII deficency
B = factor IX defiency

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5
Q

what is primary and secondary haemostasis

A

primary hemostasis makes a weak platelet plug at the injury site while secondary hemostasis makes it strong by generating a fibrin mesh on it

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6
Q

how does haemophilia cause coagulopathies

A

X linked rcessive mutation
deficient factor IX or VIII both affecting the extrinisc pathway of fibrin formation for secondary haemostasis
primary haemostasis can occur but secondary cannot
no strengthening of platelet clot = increased bleeding

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7
Q

what are some signs and symptoms of haemophilia

A

Nosebleeds with no cause
Easy bruising - large
Spontaneous gingival bleeding
GI bleeds - blood in urine or stool
Difficult clotting after cuts - very small
Bleeding into joints (haemarthrosis)
Cranial bleeds

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8
Q

what classifications of haemophilia are there and how do we classify(not A and B)

A

severe = clotting factor < 1% spotaenous bleed
moderate = 2 < clotting factor < 5% may bleed
mild = 6 < clotting factor < 40% bleed after trauma/surgery
carrier = factor level may vary

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9
Q

what percentage in the blood would class as ‘normal range’ for clotting factor VIII and IX

A

50-100%

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10
Q

what is the first, second and third line treatment for haemophilia

A

anti-fibrinolytics e.g. tranexamic acid
DDAVP - encourages release of factor VIII and VWBf
Direct factor replacements

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11
Q

why do we try other treatments for haemophilia before using direct factor replacement

A

they are expensive
over time body may build immunity to the factors

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12
Q

how does tranexamic acid work (2)

A

Anti-fibrinolytic agent that inhibits the breakdown of fibrin clots
Blocks the binding of plasminogen and plasmin to fibrin therefore preventing fibrinolysis

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13
Q

can a dentist prescribe tranexamic acid and why

A

no
not in dental BNF

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14
Q

what are the (post) instructions for use of tranexamic acid (5)

A

Use QDS, start 5-10 minutes post extraction
Rinse with 5mls of 5% solution and hold for 2 mins, then spit
Continue for 5 days
Can be used to soak in absorbent gauze, to provide additional pressure to extraction site
avoid drinking for 1 hour after

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15
Q

what is DDAVP and how does it work

A

desmopressin
synthetic vasopressin - hormone that reduces urine output
DDAVP stimulates the release of endogenous FVIII and VWF from stores in patients endothelium of blood vessels with mild Haemophilia A and VWD

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16
Q

how is desmopressin given

A

prescribed by haematologist
nasally, intravenously, or as an oral or sublingual tablet

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17
Q

what are the two functions of VWBf

A

Promotes platelet aggregation (primary haemostasis)
Carrier protein for factor VIII (secondary haemostasis)

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18
Q

what is type I VWBd (3)

A

commonest type 80%
autosomal dominant
quantative deficency

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19
Q

how do we treat the most common type of VWBd

A

80% of people have type I
autosomal dominant
trial of DDAVP desmopressin, if unresponsive then factor substitute

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20
Q

what is type II VWBd

A

autosomal dominant, 15% of people
qualitative deficiency of VWBf

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21
Q

how do we treat type II VWBd

A

factor VIII concentrate

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22
Q

what is type III VWBd

A

severe quantative deficency of VWBf
<1%
autosomal recessive

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23
Q

how dow e treat VWBd type III

A

factor concentrate

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24
Q

compare type I, II and III VWBd (4)

A

type I = dominant, 80%, quantitive deficiency, treat DDAVP then factor
type II = dominant, 15%, qualitative deficiency, treat concentrate
type III = recessive, severe, <1%, treat concentrate

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25
which is the most severe type of VWBd
type 3, <1%
26
why might a coagulopathy be cause of dental anxiety
some pts may not be diagnosed until a large bleed after a dental XLA which would be traumatic and scary for the patient associate with the dentist
27
what are barriers to dental care of coagulopathies
dental anxiety tired of treatments Transfusion infections e.g. hep from the past when no screening occur Access to dental care Previous refusal Lack of knowledge and management Bad previous experience (including hospital admissions) Haemarthrosis and mobility
28
what types of treatment are risk of bleeding and what must we do prior to these treratments with a pt with a bleeding disorder
BPE Local anaesthetic - particularly IANB Supragingival restorations with use of matrix bands Scaling or periodontal disease management Extractions Biopsies Any of these - liase with haematoligist
29
how do we safely manage an examination of a pt with bleeding disorder (4)
no BPE safe, careful soft tissue examination place intra-oral films carefully with x-rays or use OPT thourough pt MH with point of contact established
30
how do we take a bleeding MH (7)
history of bleeding how it is controlled - medications what happens if they get a cut wether affects primary or secondary coagulation have they had injections before haematologist point of contact if they live far away and if they live alone
31
what parts of a dental procedure can cause bleeding with haemophiliacs
LA: Dental blocks and lingual infiltrations can cause haematomas that cause airway issues Matrix bands, cotton wool rolls (can dry, sticky, tear out = bleed) and aspirators BPE, 6 point chart, USS
32
which dental injections are likely to cause bleeding and what is the implication of this with haemophiliacs
Dental blocks and lingual infiltrations can cause haematomas that cause airway issues
33
what types of isolation are dangerous for haemophiliacs (2)
matrix bands cotton wool (stick, tear off = bleed)
34
how can we prevent a bleed in surgery with a bleeding disorder pt
refer, very safe low risk examination have point of contact established and thorough MH follow local and government guidelines
35
how do we manage a bleeding emergency
call for help stay calm Patients generally know how to manage their condition Local measures – apply pressure Contact haemophilia centre or point of contact on MH and seek advice over phone
36
what are some acquired bleeding disorders
Chronic kidney disease Liver disease (alcohol dependence/misuse, HIV, hepatitis) Chemotherapy Heart failure Haematological malignancy Myeloproliferative disorder
37
what blood tests should be taken prior to a dental procedure for haemophiliacs
Full blood count (which includes platelet levels) - find from haemotologist Normal platelet levels 140-350 x 109/litre Thrombocytopenia can aggravate surgical or traumatic bleeding <20 spontaneous bleeding >80 haemostatic and safe for surgical procedures Clotting screen - for XLA but liaise with haemotologist
38
what is a safe, normal and dangerous level of platelets in the blood
Normal platelet levels 140-350 x 109/litre <20 spontaneous bleeding >80 haemostatic and safe for surgical procedures
39
what needs to be included in medication medical history of a bleeding disorder pt (3)
What medicines are you taking? Prescribed and non prescribed (over the counter) Herbal and complimentary medicines (e.g. St Johns Wort, garlic, Gingko biloba) How long will you be taking them for? (e.g. LMWH can be a few weeks after large surgery) - Short term or long term
40
what needs to be included in medication medical history of a bleeding disorder pt (3)
What medicines are you taking? Prescribed and non prescribed (over the counter) Herbal and complimentary medicines (e.g. St Johns Wort, garlic, Gingko biloba) How long will you be taking them for? (e.g. LMWH can be a few weeks after large surgery) - Short term or long term
41
which drugs affect the bleeding of a patient and how (9)
NOACS antiplatelets anticoagulants LMWH cytotoxic drugs associated with bone marrow suppression NSAID (impair platelet function) SSRI anti-depressants e.g Citalopram - platelet aggregation Immunosuppressants - reduce number of available platelets Drugs affecting nervous system
42
how do cytotoxic drugs affect bleeding
leflunamide, hydrochloroquine, infliximab, gold associate with bone marrow suppression = less platelets
43
how do NSAIDs affect bleeding (4)
NSAIS are COXI and COXII inhibitors prevent formation of thromboxane from arachidonic acid thromboxane needed for vasoconstriction and platelet aggregation affects primary coagulation
44
which anti-depressant causes changes in bleeding and how
Citalopram - platelet aggregation
45
give examples of immunosupressants and how they affect bleeding
methotrexate, azathioprine, mycophenolate reduce number of available platelets
46
give two exmaples of nervous system drugs that affect bleeding
gabapentin may impair platelet function carbamazepine may cause thrombocytopenia
47
which drug can cause thrombocytopenia
carbamazepine may cause thrombocytopenia
48
pt is on Dalteparin (Fragmin) Enoxaparin (Clexane) Tinzaparin (Innohep) what are they taking and why
types of LMW herparin anticoagulant thin blood to prevent blood clots
49
how do patients administer LMWH
Usually administered subcutaneously by injection
50
what are some advantages of heparin
short onset of action short half life
51
when would herparin be prescribed
Short term prescription for Prevention of VTE in pregnancy after valve replacement VTE and cancer spinal injury
52
what is a VTE
venous thromboembolism
53
how do antiplatelet drugs work and give 4 examples
Impair primary haemostasis by interfering with platelet aggregation, reversibly or irreversibly Clopidogrel (Plavix) Aspirin Dipyradimole (Persantin) Ticagrelor (Brilique)
54
compare aspirin and clopidogrel
both antiplatelet drugs aspirin is irreversible inhibiton of COX enzymes, clopidogrel is reversible clopidogrel is a stronger antiplatelet
55
what is the bleeding time of dual therapy antiplatelets e.g. aspirin + clopidogrel
45-60mins
56
do antiplatelets/anticoagulants affect primary or secondary haemostasis
antiplatelets = primary anticoagulants = secondary
57
what is warfarin and how does it work (4)
Vitamin K antagonist - anticoagulant prevents formation of vitamin K dependant coagulation factors 2,7,9,10 affecting intrinsic and extrinsic pathways of the coagulation pathway DVT, AF, Strokes, Valve replacements
58
what are the disadvantages of warfarin (3)
Multiple drug and dietary interactions - BNF Variation in patient response to the drug Needs careful monitoring with regular blood tests for INR (International Normalised ratio) is the time taken for a clot to form in a blood sample relative to a standard of 1
59
why do we ask how much pt has INR checked (3)
indication of how stbale their management of haemostasis is Stable INR history, can be assessed up to 72 hours before the dental procedure - if checked every few months = stable Unstable INR must be assessed within 24 hours of the dental procedure - if checked every week = unstable
60
how do we use INR with our management of pt
Dental procedures unlikely to cause bleeding continue without adjusting dose. Apply principles of safe treatment, use local measures routinely Dental procedures likely to cause bleeding (low or high risk) with stable INR check INR at least 72 hours beforehand. Apply principles of safe treatment, use local measures routinely Dental procedures likely to cause bleeding (low or high risk) with unstable INR check INR 24 hours beforehand. Apply principles of safe treatment, use local measures routinely
61
what are the principles of safe treatment of a pt with INR checks
Principles of safe treatment. Limit to single extraction, sub-gingival scaling 3 teeth then assess before continuing, staged treatment over separate visits, local measures pack and suture
62
how do we manage a pt with INR > 4
Refer back to medical practitioner for advice before proceeding Do not stop medication yourself- Patient takes this for a clear medical reason and is likely to be at risk of a blood clot. If providing urgent care, remember warfarin interacts with many antibiotics and antifungals (erythromycin, fluconazole, metronidazole) which can increase the bleeding risk to the patient, refer to the BNF!
63
what are some drugs that we cannot prescribe with warfarin (3)
'azole' antifungals = miconazole, itraconazole, fluconazole (nystatin is okay) metronidazole amoxicillin macrolides (erythromycin ,azithromycin, clarithromycin) basiclaly things that end in azole, mycin and amoxicillin
64
what are the four major DOACs
Dabigatran (Pradaxa) Rivaroxaban (Xarelto) Apixaban (Eliquis) edoxaban
65
how do the four major DOACs work (2)
Dabigatran is a direct thrombin (factor II) inhibitor acting at the final step of the coagulation process preventing fibrinogen to fibrin Rivaroxaban and Apixaban and Edoxaban inhibit a different clotting Factor - Xa (Xa in name)
66
give some advantages and disadvantages of DOACs
As effective as warfarin Fast onset Fixed doses No blood tests Less drug interactions Lower risk of major bleeds Increased risk of GI bleeding BUT no antidote but with warfarin, vitamin K is an antidote
67
how are the 4 major DOACs administered
Dabigatran and Edoxaban once daily, AM or PM Rivaroxaban and Apixaban twice daily AM and PM
68
what 2 senarios can we not omit DOAC medication for surgery
If the patient has started the medication or had a PE/DVT within 3 months they must be discussed with their haemotologist prior to omitting the DOAC
69
if pt is taking DOACs in the PM, when must they take their PM dose before, the night before surgery
6PM
70
what are the post op instructions/procedures after XLA of a pt who has been taken off DOACs for surgery (5)
Pack the socket with haemostatic material and suture to achieve haemostasis Advise the patient to avoid NSAIDs such as Ibuprofen, Naproxen, Diclofenac and high dose Aspirin Use Tranexamic acid mouthwash if required If in doubt, ask a senior member of staff for help take PM dose as long as no bleeding and 6 hours post op
71
what are the local measures for omitting DOAC before high risk bleed procedures (4)
once daily DOACS dabigatran and edoxaban: day before = have morning but omit if PM, day of = omit AM and have PM if 6 hours post op twice daily DOACs apixaban and Rivaroxiban: day before = take AM and PM (aslong as before 6PM) and day of = omit AM
72
what planning can be done before surgical treatment of pt with high risk bleed (herparin, warfarin, DOACs) (4)
laise with GP or haematologist Plan appointment times= Morning slots, so time to sort out if problems, treat early in the week. Only proceed if there is adequate access to emergency care, does the patient live in a rural area, do they live alone, are they mobile? refer treatment = if on short term herparin after operation, maybe refer care until off medication
73
how might we alter technique of treatment if pt with high risk of bleeding
Careful technique Use aspirating syringes, administer LA slowly and atraumatically, avoid use of ID blocks where possible, consider use of articaine for mandibular infiltrations in adults (Never use articaine for ID blocks, care with mental blocks), treat tissues as atraumatically as possible Assess bleeding as you go along and stop if unexpected bleeding occurs Clear written post-operative instructions of who to contact (24 hours) and what to do if there is a problem
74
how do we alter anaesthetic application with pts high risk of bleeding
use articaine infiltrations on mandible avoid ID blocks administer slowly and atraumatically to prevent pressure bleeds aspirating needles
75
give some packing materials for XLA post op (2)
oxidised cellulose collagen sponge
76
what are some local measures that we can apply post XLA (3)
Horizontal mattress sutures Use haemostatic packing material e.g. oxidised cellulose, collagen sponge Warm, wet absorbent gauze to put pressure directly on the site of extraction
77
if a pt is on injectable anticoagulants, what number of units OD counts as high or low dose
likely to be LMWH >5000 units O.D is likely high, treatment dose = liase with haematologist <5000 units OD is likely low, prophylactic dose = treat as normal with local measures
78
What is the main molecule that causes fibrinolysis
Plasmin and plasmologen Tranexamic acid inhibits this therefore decreasing fibrin breakdown
79
how do we dentally manage patients on antiplateletes (3)
do not need to be stopped but bleeding risk is increased and this needs to be taken into account may need work in stages and consider suturing/packing, consider travel after procedure
80
why might a patient be on anticoagulants
following venous thromboembolic events atrial fibrillation metallic heart valves (aspirin)
81
what is the only intravenous anticoagulant
Unfractionated heparin
82
what is deltaparin
subcut Low molecular weight heparins = anticoagulant
83
where can we get herparin
only in hospital very unlikely to meet patients outside of hospital that are on herparin
84
how do we monitor herparins affects
Monitor with the APTT test Aim for ratio 1.8-2.8
85
how is heparin excreted
renally
86
what is a usual dose and timing of LMWH
once or twice a day 5000 units
87
how do we dentally manage a patient on LMWH (3)
if on >5000 units = last dose needs to be 24 hours before , with good renal function next dose 4 hours after dental surgery No interruption needed if receiving a prophylactic dose
88
which 5 factors does warfarin act on
II, VII, IX, X and VIII vitamin K dependnat factors made in liver AND inhibits protein C and S involved in production of factor VIII
89
if putting a patient on warfarin, what must we do
provide another anti-coagulant whilst coming onto warfarin due to its 3–4-day onset time
90
what is the INR target for patients: Treatment of DVT/PE (3-6 months) Atrial fibrillation (life-long)
2-3
91
what is the INR target for patients: Recurrent DVT/PE on warfarin (life-long) Mechanical Heart Valves (life-long)
3-4 .5
92
what are the reaosns a patient might have an INR target of 2-3 or 3-4.5
2-3 = DVT/PE for 3-6 months or AF 3-4.5 = recurrent DVT/PE on wafarin or mechanical valves
93
what are side effects of warfarin
bleeding and easy bruising skin necrosis (only at start of treatment) - related to protein S and C Embryopathy (if used in first trimester of pregnancy)
94
how does warfarin interact with pregnancy and what do we do about this
warfarin is teratogenic during the first trimester of pregnancy we must move the patient onto dolaparin (LMWH)
95
what are three reversal techniques of warfarin
Stop Warfarin= takes 2-3 days more like 4-6 Vitamin K (iv,(sc),o) with iv preparation 80% correction in 6hrs Clotting Factor Concentrate such as beriplex Containing factors II, VII, IX, X complete correction in 10minutes Short acting, needs vitamin K also
96
what INR range allows us to safely XLA a patient who is on warfarin
<4
97
how do we take warfarin into account during dental management
high risk procedure e.g. XLA = INR < 4 in past 24 hours interactions with e,g, metronidazole due to CYP450 metabolism
98
compare heparin and DOACs (2)
herparin = only in hospitals, nweight dependant DOACs = can get as a prescription, set oral doses
99
what is the half life of DOACs
6-15hours
100
give some advantages and disadvantages of DOACs
+ low half-life, little interactions, set doses (no weight management), do not need to monitor e.g. INR - no antidote (apart from dabigatran)
101
which DOAC has an antidote
dabigatran
102
when do patients have DOACs
after AF - lifetime acute thrombosis - high dose initially after orthopaedic surgery - only 3-month prophylactic
103
how do we manage patients taking DOACs and how does this management change
if on a high initial dose then wait till a stable dose if on prophylactic dose, wait until off if on stable medication + low risk bleed = no change if on stable medication = high risk bleed = miss morning dose and wait to have evening dose atleast 4 hours after tx
104
summarise DOAC management of a pt with a high-risk bleed procedure
on 1 dose/day = delay morning dose, if evening take as normal on 2 dose/day = miss morning dose, evening as normal
105
how do we treat type I VWBD
quantative defect DDAVP. Some need vWF concentrate always tranexemic acid
106
how do we treat type II VWBD
qualatative defect DDAVP or FVIII/vWF concentrate (depends on the subtype) always tranexemic acid
107
how do we treat type III VWBD
no VWBf or factor VIII always need FVIII + vWF concentrate always tranexemic acid
108
what is beriplex
factor concentrate e.g. factor VIII for type A haemophilia or VWBD-3
109
what are the signs and symptoms of Glanzmanns syndrome
heavy menstrual bleeding heavy gingival bleeding nose bleeds
110
if going to give tranexamic acid, how do we give this to patients
as a mouthwash to swallow 3-4 days before the treatment give for XLA or PMPR
111
how do we contact before going ahead with any tx with a patient with a bleeding disorder
Contact the haemophilia centre at RHH in advance
112
what would we see on a normal blood film
red blood cells trinucleated neutrophils, similar in size leukocytes, similar in size plateletes
113
what is leukaemia and what two main types are there
cancer of blood cells myeloid = neutrophils lymphoid = lymphocytes
114
what is neutropenia
reduced neutrophils = infection
115
what is anaemia
reduced RBCs = pallor, lethargy
116
what is thrombocytopenia
reduced platelets = bleeding
117
what is pancytopenia
all three blood deficiencies= neutropenia, thrombocytopenia and anaemia
118
what is acute leukemia
Proliferation of primitive precursor cells usually only found in bone marrow, but now found in blood Proliferation without differentiation
119
what are the four types of leukemia
Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML)
120
what would we see on a blood slide of ALL
acute lymphoblastic leukaemia blast cells = very large nucleated cells with very little cytoplasm large undifferentiated lymphocytes
121
what is Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
Malignant proliferation of lymphoblasts in bone marrow causes large blast cells in blood
122
who is likely to get ALL
Affects mainly children where it has a good prognosis – approx. 90% cure rate Poor prognosis in adults
123
how do we treat ALL (4)
>40 won’t be treated without stem cells = low prognosis Minimum of 2-year course of intensive chemo high prognosis in youth Allogenic bone marrow transplant for high risk or relapsed disease CAR-T cell therapy as salvage therapy for those eligible Self T cells are modified to attack leukaemia cells
124
what is CAR-T cell therapy and when is it used
modifieds T cells to attack and destroy cancerous lymphoblast cells to treat acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
125
what is AML
acute myeloid leukaemia malignant proliferation of myeloblasts in bone marrow
126
what causes AML
Occurs after chemotherapy = therapy related AML Genetics p53 mutations Radiation exposure - chernobyl
127
what type of leukaemia causes gignival hyperplasia
AML Gum infiltration in acute monocytic subtype (M5) - gingival hyperplasia that reduces after chemo
128
what is allogenic bone marrow
bone marrow taken from a healthy patient
129
what is prognosis of AML
Affects mostly adults Poor prognosis 15-50% 5year survival (depends on subtype) Most patients relapse
130
how do we treat AML
Intensive chemotherapy Allogenic bone marrow transplant Palliative chemotherapy Supportive care with blood transfusions
131
compare chronic and acute lymphoid cancer
acute = undifferentiated cells chronnic = differentiated cells
132
what is lymphocytosis
high lymphocyte count on blood film
133
how might we diagnose CLL
chronic lymphocytic leukaemia anaemia, infections, lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, night sweats
134
what is the prognosis of CLL
very good living >10 years is in the norm
135
what is the normal blood film lymphocyet count
2
136
at what point would CLL be treated and why
not very symptomatic only treated when symptomatic or when lymphocyte count on blood film is >10
137
what are some signs and symptoms of CML
High white cell count & splenomegaly
138
what is the Philadelphia chromosome linked with
this is a mutation of a chromosome that causes leukaemia linked with CML chronic myeloid leukaemia and BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase
139
what is the main cause of CML
90% causes by genetics chromosomal mutation = Philadelphia chromosome leads to increased BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase
140
how do we treat CML
90% caused by genetics and BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase formation most treatment is BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase inhibitors allogenic marrow transplant is uncommon
141
what are the three phases of CML
Chronic, Accelerated and Blast crisis (AML)
142
what is Myelodysplasia
Abnormal production of cells within the bone marrow Often a disease of the elderly Can be asymptomatic May present with anaemia, thrombocytopenia, pancytopenia (when they have red blood cell, platelet and neutrophils reduced)
143
what can myelodysplasia turn into
acute myeloid leukaemia
144
what is tx for myelodysplasia
Supportive care Low dose outpatient chemotherapy in some cases Intensive chemotherapy and bone marrow transplantation in the young
145
what are the two types of lymphoma
hodgkin and non-hodgkin
146
what are sings of hodgkins lymphoma
Painless lymphadenopathy B symptoms: Sweats, Weight loss, Fever
147
what are B symptoms
B symptoms: Sweats, Weight loss, Fever symptoms associated with Hodgkin lymphoma and general cancer
148
what are the general age groups and survival rate of Hodgkins Lymphoma
Two peaks 15-35yrs and >55 10year survival 90%
149
how do we treat Hodkins Lymphoma
Chemotherapy Radiotherapy Autologous or allogenic stem cell transplantation
150
name the 4 Myeloproliferative Disorders
Essential Thrombocythemia (ET) = platelet proliferation Polycythaemia Rubra Vera (PRV) = Red cell proliferation Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia (CML) = White cell proliferation Myelofibrosis = Marrow stroma proliferation
151
what are the main secondary causes of polycythaemia
Hypoxic: High altitude, lung or cyanotic heart disease Inappropriate erythropoietin secretion: Renal tumour
152
what are the main causes of primary polycythaemia`
Thrombosis Splenomegaly, hepatomegaly
153
why is polycythemia a problem and what are the sings of this
Too many RBC = stroke risk symptoms = redness, pinkness, rosy cheeks,
154
what can polycythaemia cause
Myelofibrosis (15-20%), AML (2-10%)
155
what are secondary causes of thrombocythaemia
Bleeding, Infection, Inflammation, malignancy
156
what are primary causes of thrombocythaemia
Uncontrolled malignant proliferation of megakaryocytes Platelets persistently elevated Arterial and venous thrombosis Bleeding with very high counts eg >1500 Treatment with aspirin, hydroxycarbamide, anagrelide, interferon
157
what is multiple myeloma
Malignant proliferation of plasma cells in the bone marrow Plasma cells are terminally differentiated B lymphocytes that produce immunoglobulin Myeloma has monoclonal immunoglobulin in blood and urine
158
how do we test for multiple myeloma
Myeloma has monoclonal immunoglobulin in blood and urine
159
what are symptoms of myeloma
Lytic lesions in bones = pain and pathological fractures Hypercalcaemia due to bone resorption = thirst, polyurea, confusion, constipation Hyperviscocity due to immunoglobulin Renal failure Anaemia Infections
160
what are some signs of myeloma
Lytic lesions cause resorption of skull bone on radiographs moth eaten skull Plasma cells should the found in the blood monoclonal immunoglobulin in blood and urine
161
how do we diagnose myeloma
Blood and urine tests X-rays and CT/MRI Bone marrow
162
how do we treat myeloma
Chemotherapy Bisphosphonates Do XLA before Radiation Stem cell transplantation
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what dental respresnetations of bone cancers show dentally
Lymphoma eg tonsillar, enlarged any lymphatic tissue Gum hypertrophy eg Acute monocytic leukaemia Macroglossia due to amyloid deposition
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when would we give a packed red cell transfusion and what is this
Packed red cells are separated from whole blood by centrifugation which also removes the majority of plasma Indicated in severe/symptomatic anaemia, major haemorrhage
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when do we provide a platelet tranfusion
Thrombocytopenic patients who are bleeding or need surgery/procedures Prophylactic to patients with reversible BM failure Patients with platelet function disorders requiring surgery or who are bleeding
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how do we alter the way we give platelet transfusions with children and adults
children = we try limit number of donors and give 1 donor transfusions
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why is plasma flash frozen in FFP
Plasma is separated from whole blood and rapidly frozen to <-25°C to maintain the coagulation factors
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what are indications for FFP transfusions
Prophylactically pre surgery/procedures As treatment in patients who are bleeding including major haemorrhage alongside RBC and plateletes Plasma exchange Not to be used for warfarin reversal
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explain what Cryoprecipitate is
Is produced by slowly thawing FFP which precipitates out FVIII, vWF, fibronectin and fibrinogen. Frozen once completed.
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what are implications for cryoprecipitate transfusions
Low fibrinogen e.g. DIC (bleeding or high risk), following large volume transfusions
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what are some risks of transfusion
volume of fluid infused – risk of circulatory overload Allergic reactions Alloimmunisation Infections – acute or delayed Electrolyte abnormalities (K+/Ca2+), hypothermia Psychological – unable to donate blood in the future, Jehovah’s witnesses Iron overload with repeated transfusions