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DG1006 - HHD1&ANATOMY > Haematology > Flashcards

Haematology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 components of blood?

A

erythrothcytes (red blood cells)

thrombocytes (platelets)

leukocytes (neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, lymphocytes, monocytes)

plasma (water, proteins, clotting factors, electrocytes, CO2, O2)

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2
Q

What is meant by the term haematocrit?

A

volume percentage of red blood cells

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3
Q

What is meant by the term haematopoiesis?

A

the production of red blood cells in the bone marrow

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4
Q

Haematopoiesis regulation depends on glycoprotein growth factors, which drive the proliferation and differentiation of 5 progenitor cells such as?

A 
erythropoietin (production of red blood cells)
thrombopoietin (production of platelets)
interleukins
colony-stimulating factors
negative regulators
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5
Q

Multipotent haematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) are able to differentiate into?

A

myeloid and lymphoid cell lines

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6
Q

Lymphoid progenitor cells give rise to which 3 cell types?

A
  1. B-lymphocytes
  2. T-lymphocytes
  3. natural killer cells
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7
Q

B-lymphocytes give rise to which cell types?

A

plasma cells

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8
Q

Myeloid progenitor cells give rise to which 3 cell types?

A
  1. megakaryocyte
  2. erythroblast
  3. myeloblast
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9
Q

Megakaryocyte cells give rise to which cell types?

A

platelets

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10
Q

Erythroblasts give rise to which cell types?

A
  • reticulocyte

- red blood cells

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11
Q

Myeloblast cells give rise to which 4 cell types?

A
  • monocytes
  • neutrophils
  • basophils
  • eosinophils
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12
Q

What is the term used to describe the following process?

  • low oxygen level in the body due to; hypoxia, decreased O2 availability to the blood, increased O2 demand from the tissues
  • kidneys then secrete hormone erythropoietin
  • erythropoietin stimulates enhanced erythropoiesis in the bone marrow
  • RESULT: increased red blood cell count
A

erythropoiesis

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13
Q

What are 2 elements needed for erythropoiesis to take place?

A
  • iron

- B12/folate

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14
Q

Which cell type is being described?

  • biconcave shape
  • no nucleus
  • rich in haemoglobin (iron-containing protein)
  • primary function is gas exchange
  • lifespan of 120 days
A

erythrocytes (red blood cells)

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15
Q

Each haemoglobin is made of 4 subunits; ??

A

2 alpha globin chains

2 beta globin chains

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16
Q

What is the name of the graph that shows the following?

shows how the hemoglobin saturation with oxygen (SO2,), is related to the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood (PO2)

A

oxygen dissociation curve

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17
Q

What is the name of the condition being described?

  • decreased number of red blood cells, haemoglobin or ability to carry oxygen
  • CAUSES; blood loss, impaired red blood cell production, increased red blood cell destruction
  • haemoglobin <130g/L (male), <120g/L (female)
A

anaemia

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18
Q

What are the following symptoms of?

  • eyes: yellowing or in severe cases redness
  • skin: paleness, coldness, yellowing
  • respiratory: shortness of breath
  • muscular: weakness
  • fatigue, dizziness, fainting
  • heart: low blood pressure, chest pain, increased heart rate
  • spleen: enlargement
A

anaemia

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19
Q

What are the 3 sub categories of anaemia?

A
  • microcytic anaemia
  • normocytic anaemia
  • macrocytic anaemia
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20
Q

Which type of anaemia is being described?

  • MCV 80-100 fL
  • total haemoglobin and haematocrit reduced, red blood cell size remains normal

reticulocyte count low:
anaemia of chronic disease
aplastic anaemia

reticulocyte count normal:
acute haemorrhage
haemolytic anaemia

A

normocytic anaemia

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21
Q

Which type of normocytic anaemia is the following?

  • common syndrome in which the anaemia is due to an inflammation mediated reduction in red blood cell production and sometimes red blood cell survival
  • caused by: infection, neoplasms, autoimmune reactions and trauma
A

anaemia of chronic disease

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22
Q

Which type of normocytic anaemia is the following?

  • HSC in bone marrow are damaged - pancytopenia
  • bruising, more prone to infections, clotting issues
  • caused by: chemicals, drugs, radiation, infection, autoimmune disease
A

aplastic anaemia

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23
Q

Which type of normocytic anaemia is the following?

  • premature destruction of red blood cells, rate of destruction greater than the rate of production
  • jaundice
  • caused by: autoantibodies, medications and underlying malignancy
A

haemolytic anaemia

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24
Q

Which type of normocytic anaemia is the following?

  • as a result of trauma blood loss
  • put into 4 classes
A

acute haemorrhage

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25
Q

What are the 2 main types of microcytic anaemia (MCV <80 fL)?

A
  • iron deficiency

- thalassaemia

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26
Q

What are 4 predisposing factors of iron deficiency anaemia?

A
  • pregnancy
  • Afro Caribbean women
  • vegan diet
  • obesity
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27
Q

What are 3 causes of iron deficiency anaemia?

A
  • decreased intake (inadequate diet, impaired absorption)
  • increased requirement (pregnancy, lactation, growth)
  • blood loss (GI bleeding, heavy menstrual bleeding)
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28
Q

What are 6 symptoms of iron deficiency anaemia?

A
  • fatigue
  • koilonychia (spoon nails)
  • hair loss
  • angular stomatitis
  • glossitis
  • PICA (start to eat non food items)
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29
Q

What are 2 treatment options for iron deficiency anaemia?

A
  • oral supplementation

- red cell transfusion

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30
Q

Which type of microcytic anaemia is the following?

  • inherited erythropoiesis disorder - abnormal haemoglobin production
  • type depends on which globin chain is abnormal: alpha and beta
  • inherited in recessive fashion
  • most common in Italian, greek, Middle Eastern, south asian and African ethnicity
A

thalassemia

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31
Q

What are 10 symptoms of thalassaemia?

A
  • lethargy
  • enlargement of spleen or liver
  • jaundice
  • failure to thrive
  • low height/weight
  • pallor (pale)
  • spinal deformity
  • large head
  • chipmunk faces
  • misaligned teeth
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32
Q

What are 5 treatment options for thalassaemia?

A
  • genetic counselling
  • transfusion if symptomatic
  • iron chelation
  • splenectomy
  • stem cell transplant if only cure
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33
Q

What are 4 complications of thalassaemia?

A
  • skin pigmentation
  • thrombotic compilations
  • cardiovascular complications
  • oestopaenia
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34
Q

Which type of anaemia is the following?
- inhibition of DNA synthesis during erythropoiesis - cell therefore has prolonged growth phase of cell cycle - large cell

A

macrocytic anaemia (MCV > 100 fL)

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35
Q

What are the 3 main causes of macrocytic anaemia?

A
  • B12/folate deficiency
  • hypothyroidism
  • alcoholism
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36
Q

What are the 2 types of macrocytic anaemia?

A

megaloblast
and
non-megaloblast

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37
Q

Which type of macrocytic anaemia are the following causes of?

  • B12 deficiency (pernicious anaemia)
  • folate deficiency (eg. dietary insufficiency)
A

megaloblast

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38
Q

Which type of macrocytic anaemia are the following causes of?

  • alcohol
  • reticulocytosis
  • liver disease
  • hypothyroidism
A

non-megaloblast

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39
Q

Which type of macrocytic anaemia is the following?
- caused by autosomal recessive gene defect in the beta chain of haemoglobin which results in production of sickle cell haemoglobin

A

sickle cell anaemia

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40
Q

What are 6 symptoms of sickle cell anaemia?

A
  • fever
  • jaundice
  • bone pain
  • pneumonia like symptom
  • tachycardia
  • maxillary hypertrophy with overbite
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41
Q

What are 5 treatment options for sickle cell anaemia?

A
  • blood transfusion
  • bone marrow transplant
  • antibiotics
  • antihistamine
  • analgesia
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42
Q

What are 5 precipitating factors (trigger) of sickle cell anaemia?

A
  • acidosis
  • dehydration
  • cold temperatures
  • extreme exercise
  • stress & infection
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43
Q

What are 5 complications of sickle cell anaemia?

A
  • iron overload
  • leg ulcers
  • blindness
  • gallstones
  • cardiovascular manifestations
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44
Q

What is the definition of haemostasis?

A

the physiological process that stops bleeding at the site of an injury while maintaining normal blood flow elsewhere in the circulation

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45
Q

What are the 3 stages of haemostasis?

A
  1. vascular reaction
  2. platelet aggregation (primary haemostasis)
  3. coagulation cascade (secondary haemostasis)
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46
Q

What stage of haemostasis is the following?

  • injury to a blood vessel triggers local sympathetic nervous reaction
  • vascular smooth muscle cells constrict
  • vasospasm occurs
  • blood flow to injured area reduced
  • endothelin release causes vasoconstriction
  • serotonin, ADP and thromboxane released from recruited platelets to enhance vasoconstriction
  • reflex constriction of neighbouring arterioles
A

vascular reaction

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47
Q

Which cell type is the following?

  • does not have a nucleus
  • derived from megakaryocyte
  • circulating lifespan of 10 days
  • without injury - do not adhere to each other or endothelium
A

platelets ‘thrombocytes’

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48
Q

Which stage of haemostasis is the following?

  • platelets adhere to exposed endothelial materials eg. collagen and von Willebrand factor
  • vWF in endothelium binds to platelet glycoprotein Gplb
  • vWF binding exposes Gpllb/llla sites
  • Gpllb and Gpllla link with counterparts on other platelets via vWF
A

platelet aggregation

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49
Q

Which process of haemostasis is the following?

  • platelets degranulate releasing adenosine diphosphate (ADP), serotonin and thromboxane A2
  • ADP recruits more platelets
  • serotonin is a vasoconstrictor
  • thromboxane A2 stimulates platelet aggregation and further activation
  • platelet plug generated at site of vessel injury
A

platelet plug formation

50
Q

Which stage of haemostasis is the following?

  • 2 pathways result in common pathway
  • stepwise progression
  • most components are serine proteases
  • activated components act as enzyme for next step
  • results in generation of fibrin clot
A

coagulation cascade

51
Q

What are the two pathways that result in common pathway associated with the coagulation cascade?

A

intrinsic pathway
and
extrinsic pathway

52
Q

Which pathway associated with coagulation cascade is the following?

  • factor Xa converts prothrombin to thrombin
  • thrombin converts fibrinogen into fibrin
  • factor Xllla helps crosslinking of fibrin to stabilise clot
A

common pathway

53
Q

What are 2 clotting co-factors?

A

calcium

vitamin K

54
Q

Which clotting factor is the following?

- binds to the phospholipids to provide a surface for assembly of coagulation factors

55
Q

Which clotting factor is the following?

- required for carboxylation of factors 2, 7, 9, 10 in liver

56
Q

What is the term used for the following process?

  • dissolve blood clots during the process of wound healing and prevent blood clots in healthy blood vessels
  • tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) produces plasmin which breaks up fibrin
A

fibrinolysis

57
Q

What category is medication is the following?

  • decrease platelet aggregation (inhibit thrombus formation)
  • effective in arterial circulation
  • used in prevention and management of small vessel disease
  • indications: primary and secondary prevention of stroke/heart attack
A

antiplatelets

58
Q

What are 2 anti platelet medications?

A

aspirin
and
clopidogrel

59
Q

Which anti platelet medication is the following?

- COX-inhibitor reduces platelets production of thromboxane

60
Q

Which anti platelet medication is the following?

- inhibits ADP binding to platelet and therefore Gpllb/llla complex

A

clopidogrel

61
Q

Which category of medication is the following?

  • inhibit the coagulation cascade
  • prevent and treat thrombus
A

anti coagulants

62
Q

What are 2 anticoagulants?

A

warfarin
and
heparin

63
Q

Which anticoagulant medication is the following?

- vitamin K antagonist (reduced factors 2,7,9,10)

64
Q

Which anticoagulant medication is the following?

- binds to and activates antithrombin > inactivates thrombin and factor Xa

65
Q

What are 3 pro-coagulant medications?

A

tranexamic acid
prothrombin complex
vitamin K

66
Q

Which pro-coagulant medication is the following?

  • antifibrinolytic MOA > stabilisation of fibrin clot
  • commonly used in trauma, tooth extraction, PPH
A

tranexamic acid

67
Q

Which pro-coagulation medication is the following?

  • contains factors 2,7,9,10
  • reverse effects of warfarin
  • ++ expensive
A

prothrombin complex

68
Q

Which pro-coagulation medication is the following?

  • reverses action of warfarin
  • provides vit K for vit K dependent factors
69
Q

What are 6 coagulopathies (bleeding disorders)?

A
  • haemophilia A&B
  • von willebrand disease
  • thrombocytopenia
  • liver failure
  • disseminated intravascular coagulation
  • trauma ‘triad of death’
70
Q

Which bleeding disorder is the following?

  • X-linked recessive inheritance
  • A-reduced factor 8
  • B-reduced factor 9
  • spontaneous bleeding
  • heavy bleeding in dental treatment/surgery
A

haemophilia A&B

71
Q

Which bleeding disorder is the following?

  • autosomal dominant
  • most common hereditary clotting disorder
  • deficiency in vWF
  • easy bruising, nose bleeds and bleeding gums
  • treat with desmopressin prior to dental procedure
A

von willebrand disease

72
Q

Which bleeding disorder is the following?

  • low levels of platelets
  • inherited or acquired condition
  • purpura of arms and petechiae in feet, legs and mucous membranes
A

thrombocytopenia

73
Q

Which bleeding disorder is the following?

- impaired clotting factor synthesis

A

liver failure

74
Q

Which bleeding disorder is the following?

  • widespread clotting throughout the body
  • occlusion of small vessels
  • clotting factors and platelet ‘used up’
  • widespread bleeding & organ failure - high mortality
  • causes: cancers, massive tissue injury, sepsis
A

disseminated intravascular coagulation

75
Q

Which bleeding disorder is the following?

  • hypothermia (decreased heart performance)
  • acidosis (increased lactic acid in blood)
  • coagulopathy (decreased coagulation)
A

trauma ‘lethal triad’

76
Q

Which type of leukaemia is the following pathophysiology of?

  • differentiation ‘freeze’ occurs in myeloid progenitor cells
  • myeloblasts do not mature/differentiate
  • disruption in control of proliferation leads to uncontrolled clone of immature myeloid cells
  • immature myeloblasts secrete inhibitory substances into bone marrow
  • development of healthy blood cells in marrow disrupted > anaemia, neutropenia and thrombocytopenia
A

acute myeloid leukaemia

77
Q

What are 3 environmental risk factors of acute myeloid leukaemia?

A
  • radiation
  • benzene (rubber, dye, pesticide production)
  • therapy related AML
78
Q

What are 3 genetic risk factors for acute myeloid leukaemia?

A
  • chromosomal translocations
  • normal karyotype
  • point mutations
79
Q

What is the name of the acute myeloid leukaemia classification system?

A

French-american-british (FAB)

80
Q

What are 7 presentations of acute myeloid leukaemia?

A
  • pallor
  • bruising/petechiae
  • fatigue
  • gingival enlargement
  • dizziness
  • bone pain
  • abdo pain
81
Q

What are the following risk factors of?

  • age >65 years
  • previous chemo
  • haematological dyspoiesis
  • genetic factors
  • radiation exposure
  • downs syndrome
  • benzene exposure
A

acute myeloid leukaemia

82
Q

What 4 investigations are carried out to diagnose acute myeloid leukaemia?

A
  • full blood count
  • peripheral blood smear
  • coagulation screen
  • bone marrow biopsy
83
Q

What are 6 complications of acute myeloid leukaemia?

A
  • tumour lysis syndrome
  • pancytopaenia
  • DIC
  • CNS leukaemia
  • neutropenic sepsis
  • leukostasis
84
Q

What are 3 treatment options for acute myeloid leukaemia?

A
  • supportive care (transfusions, treat infections, hydration, hydorxycaramide)
  • chemotherapy
  • stem cell transplant
85
Q

Which type of leukaemia is the following?

  • increased and unregulated growth of myeloid cells in bone marrow and accumulation in the blood -proliferation of mature and precursor granulocytes
  • only known risk is exposure to ionising radiation
A

chronic myeloid leukaemia

86
Q

Which type of leukaemia is the following pathophysiology of?

  • pathognomic feature is reciprocal translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22, resulting in an abnormal chromosome 22 termed the Philadelphia chromosome
  • BCR gene on chromosome 22 is fused to to ABL gene on chromosome 9, resulting in a BCR-ABL fusion oncogene > p210 BCR-ABL protein
  • BCR-ABL is active tyrosine kinase that alters activity of downstream signal transduction proteins > transforming normal haematopoietic stem cells to malignant cells
A

chronic myeloid leukaemia

87
Q

What are 7 presentations of chronic myeloid leukaemia?

A
  • fatigue
  • weight loss
  • abdominal pain
  • bone pain
  • splenomegaly
  • chloroma
  • fever
88
Q

What are 2 treatment options for chronic myeloid leukaemia?

A
  • targeted therapy with a tyrosine kinase inhibitor (imatinib mesylate, nilotinib, dasatinib, bosutinib)
  • stem cell transplant and high dose chemotherapy
89
Q

What are the 3 phases of chronic myeloid leukaemia?

A
  1. chronic phase <5% blasts
  2. accelerated phase 10-30% blasts
  3. blast crisis >30% blasts
90
Q

What is the group of disorders being described called?

- group of disorders characterised by overproduction of myeloid cell lines in bone marrow

A

myeloproliferative disorders

91
Q

Which myeloproliferative disorder is the following?

  • rare
  • hepatosplenomegaly (accumulation in liver and spleen)
  • progressive neutrophilia
  • absence of Philadelphia chromosome in diagnostic criteria
  • transformation to acute myeloid leukaemia
  • survival 6m-20 years
A

chronic neutrophilic leukaemia

92
Q

Which myeloproliferative disorder is the following?

  • primarily erythrocytosis, often thrombocytosis and leukocytosis
  • JAK2 V617F somatic mutations > activates EPO receptor signalling
  • increased red blood cell mass and/or haematocrit > hyperviscosity
  • increased risk of thrombosis
  • treat with phlebotomy and aspirin
A

polycythaemia vera

93
Q

Which myeloproliferative disorder is the following?

  • abnormal HSC clone proliferation results in fibrosis/scarring/replacement of bone marrow
  • unknown aetiology - associated with JAK 2 mutation
  • abnormalities in red blood cells, white blood cells and platelet production
  • leukoerythroblastosis and splenomegaly are the clinical hallmarks
A

primary myelofibrosis

94
Q

Which myeloproliferative disorder is the following?

  • dysregulated megakaryocyte proliferation > increased platelet no./size
  • thrombosis and bleeding
  • half of patients are asymptomatic
  • diagnosis of exclusion
  • high risk patients treat with aspirin and hydroxycarbamide
A

essential thrombocythemia

95
Q

Which myeloproliferative disorder is the following?

  • very rare MPD
  • overproduction of eosinophils
  • chronic disease that may progress to AML
  • over activation of the oncogene or translocation
  • can be treated with Imatinib
A

chronic eosinophilic leukaemia

96
Q

Which type of leukaemia is the following?

  • 75% in children <6 years of age
  • malignant clonal disease that develops when lymphoid progenitor cell becomes genetically altered through somatic changes and undergoes uncontrolled proliferation
  • early lymphoid precursors replace HSC of bone marrow and infiltrating various body organs
A

acute lymphocytic leukaemia

97
Q

What are the 4 causes of acute lymphocytic leukaemia?

A
  1. genetic
  2. environmental (eg. radiation)
  3. folate metabolism
  4. viral
98
Q

Which type of leukaemia is the following pathophysiology of?
- classification: B-lymphoblastic leukaemia, T-lymphoblastic leukaemia
- genetic alteration of lymphoid progenitor through somatic changes > uncontrolled proliferation and clonal expansion
- leukaemia blasts infiltrate the bone marrow and other organs
- leukaemia blast cells duplicate most normal lymphoid progenitor cells
- genetic abnormalities:
chromosomal translocations or aneupoloidy are found in 75% of all cases
philadelphia chromosome
Philadelphia-like acute lymphocytic leukaemia (poor prognostic factor)

A

acute lymphocytic leukaemia

99
Q

What are 5 presentations of acute lymphocytic leukaemia?

A
  1. bruising/petechiae
  2. fever
  3. lymphadenopathy
  4. renal enlargement
  5. symptoms of anaemia
100
Q

What are 6 ways acute lymphocytic leukaemia can be diagnosed?

A
  • full blood count
  • blood smear: lymphoblasts
  • bone marrow biopsy
  • lumbar puncture
  • CT/MRI brain
  • CT thorax/abo/pelvis
101
Q

What are risk factors for acute lymphocytic leukaemia?

A
  • age <6 years
  • white
  • male
  • previous chemo
  • family history
102
Q

What are 5 treatment options for acute lymphocytic leukaemia?

A
  1. chemotherapy
  2. tyrosine kinase inhibitor
  3. prophylactic antimicrobials/antifungals
  4. blood transfusions
  5. stem cell transplant
103
Q

What are 8 complications of acute lymphocytic leukaemia?

A
  1. infections
  2. febrile neutropenia
  3. tumour lysis syndrome
  4. treatment related alopecia
  5. treatment related coagulopathy
  6. organ failure
  7. CNS toxicity
  8. infertility
104
Q

Which type of leukaemia is the following?

  • disease of middle aged to older people
  • more common in white people
  • lymphoproliferative disorder - monoclonal B lymphocytes are predominantly found in peripheral blood
  • if found predominantly in lymph nodes = small lymphocytic lymphoma
A

chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

105
Q

Which type of leukaemia is the following pathophysiology of?

  • exact cause unclear > accumulation of multiple genetic events affecting oncogenes and tumour suppressor genes (eg. TP53, NOTCH1, SF3B1, ATM and BIRC3), leading to increased cell survival and resistance to apoptosis
  • molecular markers eg. mutated immunoglobulin heavy chain (IgVH)
  • cells infiltrate lymphatic system and haematopoietic organs such as liver, spleen and bone marrow
  • cells also involved in initiating autoantibody production by normal B cells, leading to autoimmune reactions such as autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
A

chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

106
Q

What are 6 presentations of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia?

A
  1. symptoms of anaemia
  2. lymphadenopathy
  3. splenomegaly
  4. recurrent infections
  5. bruising
  6. fever, chills, night sweats
107
Q

What are 3 treatment options for chronic lymphocytic leukaemia?

A
  • observation in early stages
  • chemoimmunotherapy
  • stem cell transplant
108
Q

What are 5 complications of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia?

A
  • second malignancy
  • Richter transformation
  • autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
  • immune thrombocytopenia purpura
  • hypogammaglobulinaemia
109
Q

Which type of leukaemia is the following?

- malignant neoplasms of lymphatic tissue

110
Q

What is the differentiating factor between Hodgkins lymphoma and non-hodgkins lymphoma?

A

presence of reed-sternberg cells in Hodgkins lymphoma

111
Q

Which type of lymphoma is the following?
- uncommon haematological malignancy arising from mature B cells > Ig
expression absent
- owl eyed appearance, giant cells
- presence of Hodgkins cells and Reed-Sternberg cells
- can be Epstein-Barr virus related
- PET-CT, essential to determine extent of disease
- biopsy necessary to confirm diagnosis
- treatment: chemotherapy plus radiotherapy

A

Hodgkins lymphoma

112
Q

Which type of lymphoma are the following clinical presentations?

  • most commonly presents with painless cervical and/or supraclavicular lymphadenopathy in a young adult
  • fever, night sweats, weight loss
A

Hodgkins lymphoma

113
Q

Which type of lymphoma is the following?

  • incidence increases with age, more common in white men
  • malignant lymphoid cells retain qualities of normal counterparts (B cells to produce immunoglobulins; T cells to travel to extra-nodal sites such as skin and CNS)
A

non-hodgkins lymphoma

114
Q

What are 5 clinical presentations of non-hodgkins lymphoma?

A
  1. night sweats
  2. weight loss
  3. fever
  4. lymphadenopathy
  5. jaundice
115
Q

What are 5 investigations to help diagnose non-hodgkins lymphoma?

A
  1. full blood count
  2. blood smear
  3. lymph node biopsy
  4. skin biopsy
  5. bone marrow biopsy
116
Q

What are the following risk factors of which type of lymphoma?

  • age >50 years
  • male
  • HIV
  • Epstein barr virus
  • immunocompromised host
A

non Hodgkins lymphoma

117
Q

What is a treatment option for non-hodgkin lymphoma?

A

R-CHOP-21

rituximab plus cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, vincristine, prednisolone given for 21 days

118
Q

Which type of leukaemia is the following?

  • characterised by terminally differentiated plasma cells, infiltration of the bone marrow by plasma cells and the presence of a monoclonal Ig or Ig fragment in the serum/urine
  • usually associated with osteolytic bone disease, anaemia and renal failure
A

multiple myeloma

119
Q

What are 4 clinical presentations of multiple myeloma?

A
  1. susceptibility to infections - particularly respiratory infections
  2. impaired kidney function
  3. bone damage and resulting in pain
  4. low haemoglobin levels in blood resulting in anaemia
120
Q

What are 4 investigations to help diagnose multiple myeloma?

A
  1. serum/urine electrophoresis (paraprotein spike and Bence-Jones proteins in urine)
  2. skeletal survey
  3. bone marrow aspirate
  4. full blood count
121
Q

What are 3 treatment options for multiple myeloma?

A
  1. autologous HSC transplant
  2. bisphosphonates
  3. hydration
122
Q

What are 7 oral considerations of haem malignancy?

A
  1. salivary gland hypofunction
  2. bleeding
  3. gingival enlargement
  4. drug-induced osteonecrosis of the jaw
  5. TMJ disorders
  6. acute periodontal infections
  7. neuropathy

DG1006 - HHD1&ANATOMY (12 decks)

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