Embryology Flashcards

1
Q

At week 4 a membrane covering the primitive mouth separates the outer ectoderm layer of the developing face with the inner endoderm of the pharynx. Which best identifies this membrane?

A

oropharyngeal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Around day 15-17 during gastrulation these cells differentiate into the 3 germ layers. What are the names of these cells?

A

epiblast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

During the development of the mandible, this cartilage forms a template for the bone which is made by intramembranous ossification. What is the name of the cartilage?

A

Meckel’s cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

After coronal dentine formed and tooth eruption commences, when the cervical loop, outer enamel epithelium and inner enamel epithelium fuse to determine root shape. What does this then become known as?

A

Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is this tooth known as?

A

mesiodens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are these teeth known as?

What teeth does it most commonly affect?

A

supernumerary teeth

premolar region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What stage of development are supernumerary teeth formed?

A

initiation stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What stage of development does macrodontia/microdontia occur?

A

bud stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

At what stage does dens in dente develop?

A

cap stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

At what stage does germination/fusion occur?

A

cap stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

At what stage does tubercle occur?

A

cap stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

At what stage does concrescence occur?

A

apposition/maturation stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the two main eruption models called?

A

continuous and limited eruption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the 3 phases of eruption?

A
  • pre-eruptive
  • pre-functional
  • functional
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What phase of eruption is being described?

- localised movements of the socket and movements due to growth

A

pre-eruptive phase of eruption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What phase of eruption is described?

“major period of axial movement of tooth from developmental to functional position”

A

pre-functional phase of eruption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What phase of eruption is being described?

“axial movements to accommodate for occlusal wear”

A

functional phase of eruption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Crown completes … eruption (at approx. 3 years in adult)

A

before

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Root completes … eruption (at approx 3 years in adult)

A

after

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Teeth normally erupt when … of root length formed

A

2/3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How prevalent is prenatal eruption?

A

1 in 2000 births

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Term used for when patients teeth are at rest and should not be meeting

A

vertical dimension at rest (RVD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Term used for when patients teeth are meeting

A

vertical dimension at occlusion (OVD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Term used for the space when patient is at RVD

A

free way space (FWS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What happens when there is an increase in free way space?

A

functional eruption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is being described?

  • shedding of the deciduous teeth - root resorption
  • bone remodelling
  • PDL, cementum and dentine resorbed
  • movement of the tooth germ
  • root growth
  • development of the cementum and PDL
A

some of the physical changes that happen during eruption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is being described?

  • bone resorption
  • sub epithelial connective tissue thins
  • reduced enamel epithelium fuses with oral epithelium (compressed enamel organ)
  • tooth erupts through epithelial cuff
  • Nasmyths membrane, thin membrane of the reduced enamel epithelium that covers the tooth ones it has erupted (reminence of the compressed enamel organ)
A

some of the tissue changes during eruption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Name 3 factors that eruption depends upon?

A
  1. space in the eruption course created by the crown follicle
  2. eruption pressure triggered by innervation in the apical root membrane
  3. the ability of the PDL to adapt to eruptive movements
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What role does the periodontal ligament play in tooth eruption?

A
  • myofibroblasts in PDL have contractile potential

- turnover of collagen in PDL recorded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is shown on the image? And how do they occur?

A

eruption cyst

where the tooth bud tries to push through the epithelial cuff and has not succeeded so therefore creates a cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What can cause a disturbance in tooth formation?

A
  • follicle - trauma
  • virus
  • failure to initiate resorption
  • genetic conditions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What systemic causes can then cause eruption deviations? (failure and delayed eruption)

A
  • endocrine and various syndromes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What factors can cause local eruption deviations such as failure, ectopic, impaction or transposition space? (5 points)

A
  • tumours
  • supernumerary teeth
  • cysts
  • primary tooth not shed
  • ankylosis - a condition where a tooth fuses to the bone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is shown on the image? And how is it managed?

A
  • dentigerous cyst - fluid filled cyst - an example of a local eruption deviation that can affect tooth erupting
  • can be surgically removed or cut into and deflated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What condition is shown on the image? And how is it caused?

A
  • cherubism

- caused by multiple cysts inside the jaw

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is shown on the image? And what symptoms could a patient have?

A
  • complex odontoma (benign tumour) - can contain teeth in some cases
  • can apply pressure to the inferior alveolar nerve and cause pt to have numbness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is shown on the image? And how can it be treated?

A
  • mesiodens

- remove the supernumerary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the name of the tooth on the image? And how is it caused?

A
  • divergent root
  • disturbance in the formation of Hertwigs root epithelial sheet
  • trauma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is meant by the term Anodontia?

A
  • missing teeth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is meant by the term Hypodontia?

A
  • complete or partial missing teeth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is meant by the term Oligodontia?

A
  • more than 6 teeth missing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the 4 main factors that cause disturbances in tooth formation?

A
  • hereditary
  • endocrine dysfunction, systemic disease
  • excess radiation
  • disturbance during the initiation stage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the most common groups of teeth that are more prone to being missing?

A
  • upper incisors and laterals
  • lower premolars
  • wisdom teeth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are some conditions that cause missing teeth?

A
  • cleft lip/palate
  • ectodermal dysplasia
  • down syndrome
  • amelogenesis imperfecta
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are some conditions that can cause multiple supernumerary teeth?

A
  • Ehlers-danlos syndrome (also pulp stones and roots that are deformed)
  • gardner syndrome (multiple polyps, autosomal dominant)
  • cleidocranial dysostosis (poorly developed or no collarbones)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are some systemic conditions that can cause eruption disturbances?

A
  • malnutrition
  • hypothyroidism
  • hypopituitarism
  • hypoparathyroidism
  • anaemia
  • renal failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is this a description of?

  • in these bands, enamel prisms are arranged in layers of varying thickness at about right angles to each other
  • strengthen the enamel and prevent cracks from propagating through the tooth
A

Hunter-Schreger bands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the 3 periods of prenatal development and when do they occur?

A
  • preimplantation period, first week
  • embryonic period, second to eighth week
  • fetal period, third to ninth month
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What happens during the preimplantation period of development?

A

Zygote - fertilised egg divides early on, then develops into blastocyst

  • Zygote undergoes mitotic cleavage (cell division) in the first few days after it has been fertilised
  • It then compacts and then will move down through the Fallopian tubes to the side of the uterus and become implanted
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What happens during the embryonic period of development?

A

Implantation of the blastocyst into uterus during 2nd week
Disc of the embryo starts to develop
Embryo starts to develop features of a human baby

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What happens during fetal period of development?

A

Embryo develops into foetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the name of this process?

Description - One cell group act on another, leads responding tissue to develop

A

Induction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the name of this process?

Description - Controlled cellular growth and accumulation of by-products

A

Proliferation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the name of this process? Description - Change in identical embryonic cells to become distinct structurally and functionally

A

Differentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the name of this process? Description - Development of specific tissue structure or differing from due to embryonic cell migration or proliferation and inductive interactions

A

Morphogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the name of this process? Description - Attainment of adult function and size due to proliferation, differentiation and morphogenesis

A

Maturation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are the names of the three germ layers?

A
  • Ectoderm (outer layer)
  • Mesoderm (middle layer)
  • Endoderm (inner layer)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What germ layer do the following derive from? - Epithelial linings of the aero and digestive tracts, gut, liver, stomach and pancreas

A

Endoderm cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What germ layer do the following derive from? - Muscle and connective tissue, cartilage, blood, bone, serous membranes

A

Mesoderm cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What germ layer do the following derive from? - Skin and nerves, epidermis, nervous system, tooth enamel, neural crest cells

A

Ectoderm cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What germ layer do neural crest cells derive from?

A

Both ectoderm and mesoderm, migration happens from ectoderm cells to mesoderm cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What does the blastocyst contain that then becomes the foetus?

A

Inner cell mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What happens to the inner cell mass once the blastocyst has implanted into the uterus wall?

A
  • Moves to one side and becomes classified as epiblast cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What are the names of the two types of cells that are formed within the blastocyst and migrate to opposite sides?

A

epiblast and hypoblast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the term used for a disc with two sides?

A

bilaminar disc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What does the yolk sack of the embryo become?

A

the supporting structure of the uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

A (embryo)

What structure is labelled A?

A

yolk sack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

B (embryo)

What type of cells are shown on the image labelled B?

A

hypoblast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

C (embryo)

What structure is shown on the image labelled C?

A

bilaminar disc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

D (embryo)

What type of cells are shown on the image labelled D?

A

epiblast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the term used to describe this process ‘‘the purpose of … is to position the 3 germ layers endoderm, mesoderm and ectoderm which later develop into certain bodily systems’’ ?

A

gastrulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What part of the foetus develops at the primitive streak and the primitive node?

A

spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

When does gastrulation occur?

A

Day 15-17

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

During gastrulation, we now have the distinction of the 3 germ layers and there is an invagination of the tissues at the … ?

A

primitive streak (midline)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

During gastrulation, epiblast cells turn into the … ?

A

ectoderm layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

During gastrulation, there is an ingrowth of the germ layer in the middle which will become the future … ?

A

mesoderm layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

During gastrulation, on the other side of the disc where the hypoblast cells will disappear, the … will emerge?

A

endoderm layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is meant by the term ‘trilaminar embryo’ ?

A

there are 3 layers, endoderm, ectoderm and mesoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is the name of the process when the central nervous system is developed?

A

neurulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

When does neurulation occur?

A

Day 18-28

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is an example of a neural tube defect? (where it does not close all the way during neurulation)

A

spina bifida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What supplement do pregnant women take to encourage closure of the neural tube during neurulation?

A

folic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

During neurulation, there is the disc of 3 layers, in the midline there is a joining of the cells that become known as the … ?

A

neural plate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

During neurulation, the process of the 3 layers folding in on themselves is called … ?

A

invagination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

During neurulation, neural plate cells become the … ?

A

neural groove (a groove down the midline of the disc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

During neurulation, the neural groove comes together at the top and becomes the …

A

neural tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

The neural tube is the future …

A

spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

After neurulation, when there has been closure of the groove and the neural tube is developed, some of the cells from the ectoderm layer start to migrate, these are called the … ?

A

neural crest cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

After neurulation, the neural crest cells move into the tissues and become a tissue called … ?

A

ectomesenchyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

In the head and neck, … contribute to the traditionally mesodermal tissues

A

neural crest cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

The cranial end of the embryo indicates the region of the future … ?

A

brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

The caudal end of the embryo indicates the region of the future … ?

A

spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is the name of the membrane that separates the 3 germ layers once the body has reached full growth as an adult?

A

basal membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What are two examples of when the basal membrane is broken down and you have ectodermal tissues cross over?

A
  • squamous cell carcinoma

- formation of enamel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

How far into development does the formation of the pharyngeal arches begin?

A

4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

During formation of the pharyngeal arches, sensory organs are described in the foetal stage as … ?

A

placodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

The mandible is formed from the … pharyngeal arch?

A

first

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Just above the first pharyngeal arch, there is something called the maxillary prominence, which becomes the … ?

A

maxilla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

During formation of the pharyngeal arches, … come from the ectodermal area and migrate into the pharyngeal arches

A

neural crest cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What condition can a baby have if the maxilla does not fuse at the midline?

A

cleft palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

During the contribution of the germ layers to the pharyngeal arches, there is an inside and an outside of the arches, the inside lining is … ?

A

endoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

During the contribution of the germ layers to the pharyngeal arches, there is an inside and an outside of the arches, the outside lining is … ?

A

ectoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

During the contribution of the germ layers to the pharyngeal arches, there is an inside and an outside of the arches, the middle lining is … ?

A

neural crest cells and mesoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What are the 4 components of the pharyngeal arches?

A

1 - central cartilage rod (forms skeleton)
2 - muscular component
3 - vascular component (aortic arch artery)
4 - nervous component (cranial nerves)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

On the inside of the pharyngeal arches is the endoderm and on the outside is the ectoderm, normally these are separated by the tissues in the arch, but where they meet in between each arch, they come together, so the endodermal tissue will touch the ectodermal tissues. From the outside, we call this area a … ?

A

cleft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

On the inside of the pharyngeal arches is the endoderm and on the outside is the ectoderm, normally these are separated by the tissues in the arch, but where they meet in between each arch, they come together, so the endodermal tissue will touch the ectodermal tissues. From the inside, we call this area a … ?

A

pouch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Where the pharyngeal arches meet, they form a membrane and those membranes end up being tissues that that make up the foetus. What pharyngeal arches do they derive from?

A

first and second

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What is the name of the early oral cavity?

A

the stomodeum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

At the early stage of development, the early oral cavity is separated from the amniotic fluid by a membrane and this is called the … which breaks down

A

oropharyngeal membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What does the otic placode become in early development?

A

the ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What cranial nerve is associated with the 2nd pharyngeal arch?

A

facial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What cranial nerve is associated with the 1st pharyngeal arch?

A

trigeminal

113
Q

What cranial nerve is associated with the 3rd pharyngeal arch?

A

glossopharyngeal

114
Q

What cranial nerve is associated with the 4th pharyngeal arch?

A

vagus

115
Q

What cells do the cranial nerves derive from?

A

neural crest cells and ectoderm cells

116
Q

What component of the oral cavity comes from more than one of the pharyngeal arches?

A

the tongue

117
Q

What are the stages of final position of the tongue?

A
  • Tongue takes up the whole of the oral cavity
  • Due to there being no nasal septum, there is an open space where the tongue will develop into
  • Then the maxilla will develop, tongue will retract and sit into its final position
118
Q

What develops in the 1st membrane that separates the endoderm and ectoderm of the pharyngeal arches?

A

ear/eardrum

119
Q

What develops in the 2nd membrane that separates the endoderm and ectoderm of the pharyngeal arches?

A

palatine tonsil

120
Q

What develops in the 3rd membrane that separates the endoderm and ectoderm of the pharyngeal arches?

A

thymus and inferior parathyroids - before migrating to the area they will eventually end up

121
Q

What develops in the 4th membrane that separates the endoderm and ectoderm of the pharyngeal arches?

A

superior parathyroids

122
Q

What pharyngeal arch does the maxillary prominence derive from?

A

first

123
Q

The … in the pharyngeal arches are there for support and will disappear later on, only there as a scaffold

A

cartilage rods

124
Q

What is the name of the cartilage in the second pharyngeal arch?

A

Reicherts cartilage

125
Q

What is the name of the second pharyngeal arch?

A

hyoid

126
Q

What structures does the 1st pharyngeal arch form?

A

jaws

middle ear bones

127
Q

What structures does the second pharyngeal arch form?

A

facial muscles
middle ear bones
hyoid bone
tongue

128
Q

What structures does the 3rd pharyngeal arch form?

A

hyoid bone

tongue

129
Q

What structures does the 4th pharyngeal arch form?

A

laryngeal cartilages

tongue

130
Q

What are the name of the two parts that the neurocranium can be divided into?

A

calvaria

chondrocranium

131
Q

What is connective tissue?

A
  • A group of tissues in the body that maintains the form of the body and its organs
132
Q

All dental tissues (except enamel) come from which germ layer?

A

mesoderm

133
Q

What germ layer does enamel come from?

A

ectoderm

134
Q

What are the 3 components of connective tissue?

A
  1. Cells
  2. Extracellular matrix
  3. Ground substance - gel-like substance
135
Q

A lot of the cells that came up connective tissue will produce a protein that will come out of the cell membrane called … that will form a structure

A

extracellular matrix

136
Q

What happens to the cells in connective tissue once they have formed a tissue?

A

some will sit in the connective tissue and some will retract and disappear

137
Q

What is the role of connective tissue?

A
  • scaffolding and support
  • mobility and stretching
  • homeostasis
138
Q

What is the term used for maintenance or keeping balance in the tissues?

A

homeostasis

139
Q

What is homeostasis?

A
  • harbours stem cells for wound healing
  • reservoirs of nutrients
  • holds water
140
Q

When thinking about cells in connective tissue.

What are the cells called that secrete collagen for wound healing and maintain structure?

A

fibroblasts

141
Q

When thinking about cells in connective tissue.

What are the cells called that produces muscle tissue and fibres?

A

myofibroblasts

142
Q

When thinking about the cells in connective tissue.

What are the cells called that are fat producing cells?

A

lipoblasts

143
Q

When thinking about cells in connective tissue.

What are the cells called that are the cartilage producing cells?

A

chondroblasts

144
Q

When thinking about the cells in connective tissue.

What are the cells called that produces bone matrix?

A

osteoblasts

145
Q

When thinking about cells in connective tissue.

What are the cells called that create stem cells for specific tissues?

A

tissue specific stem cells

146
Q

When thinking about cells in connective tissue.

What are the cells called that produce something, secretes extra-cellular matrix?

A

a blast cell

147
Q

When thinking about cells in connective tissue.

What are the cells called that when it has produced something, the cell will become dormant?

A

a cyte cell

148
Q

When thinking about cells in connective tissue.

What are the cells called that break down something?

A

a clast cell

149
Q

What is a monocyte cell?

A

a white blood cell

150
Q

What are the 3 components of the extra-cellular matrix?

A
  • fibrous structural proteins
  • cell-surface proteins
  • glycoproteins
151
Q

What is type 1 collagen produced by and where is it found?

A

Produced by fibroblasts, osteoblasts or odontoblasts

Found in scar tissue, bone, teeth, tendons and ligaments

152
Q

What does type 2 collagen make up?

A

50% hyaline cartilage

153
Q

What is type 3 collagen produced by and where is it found?

A

Produced by fibroblasts

Found in arteries and skin

154
Q

Where is type 4 collagen found?

A

basement membranes lining cavities and surfaces of organs

155
Q

What is the role of ground substance?

A

provide a route for communication and transport between tissues

156
Q

What are the names of the 2 mechanisms involved in bone differentiation and formation?

A

intramembranous ossification

endochondral ossification

157
Q

Most of the structures in the head are formed by … apart from the base of the skull

A

intramembranous ossification

158
Q

Most of the long bones in the body are formed by …

A

endochondral ossification

159
Q

What is the difference between intramembranous ossification and endochondral ossification?

A

intramembranous - doesn’t start with cartilage

endochondral - starts with hyaline cartilage

160
Q

… bone is the hard, outside of the bone

A

cortical

161
Q

… is the middle of a bone which is the spongy part

A

trabecular

162
Q

What is inside the inner most space of a bone?

A

stem cells

163
Q

How is bone formed?

A
  • made from osteoblast cells that secrete osteoid matrix

- osteoid is mineralised to become bone, 60% organic

164
Q

What are the cellular components of bone and their roles in formation?

A
  • osteoblasts - lay down the osteoid matrix
  • osteocytes - osteoblasts in bone matrix lay dormant
  • osteoclasts - break down some of the bone in order to keep it healthy
165
Q

How does alendronic acid work?

A

Stops the osteoclasts from breaking down bone, making the bones become denser and less likely to fracture in patients with brittle bones

166
Q

What are the risks of alendrotnic acid in dentistry?

A

Osteonecrosis of the jaw, after an XLA it can prevent the tissues from healing

167
Q

How is cartilage formed?

A
  • Cartilage develops with chondroblast cells secreting cartilage matrix
  • Once trapped within the matrix, chondroblasts differentiate into chondrocytes
168
Q

What are the two types of growth in which cartilage is formed and what are they?

A
  • Appositional growth, layered growth

- Interstitial growth, deep in tissues

169
Q

What is perichondrium? And what does it provide for cartilage?

A

A membrane that lies outside of the bone

Cartilage relies on this as it is avascular

170
Q

What are the 3 main types of cartilage?

A
  1. Hyaline cartilage
  2. White fibrocartilage
  3. Yellow elastic fibrocartilage
171
Q

What description of cartilage does this most describe? ‘most common, contains only collagen, weakest, all cartilage starts as this’

A

hyaline

172
Q

What description of cartilage does this most describe? ‘never found alone but with hyaline, TMJ, has no perichondrium, strong’

A

white fibrocartilage

173
Q

What description of cartilage does this most describe? ‘numerous elastic fibres as well as collagen, ear, larynx, epiglottis’

A

yellow elastic fibrocartilage

174
Q

All of the bones of the skull are formed from what process?

A

intramembranous ossification

175
Q

What part of the skull does the following description of the development best apply? ‘the bones are formed from growth centres from intramembranous ossification, condensation of the connective tissues then occurs, bone cells enter into these areas and start to lay down the bone matrix which then becomes calcified, this is then the centre where the bone expands towards the periphery, forming the joins of the suture as it matures’

A

the calvaria

176
Q

What are the following stages describing the cellular development of?

  1. Mesenchymal cells cluster and differentiate into osteoblasts, forming an ossification centre
  2. Osteoblasts make an extracellular matrix ‘osteoid’
  3. Osteoid matrix becomes mineralised, rudimentary bone tissue is formed
A

intramembranous ossification of the calvaria

177
Q

What is the periosteum?

A

fibrous membrane, providing protection and blood supply to bone

178
Q

When does the process of blood vessels being developed into the bone tissues begin?

A

when the bone matrix is being laid down

179
Q

What feature of the skull is being described? ‘contain actively dividing cells, allow the skull to grown to accommodate expanding brain, unique to the cranium’

A

sutures

180
Q

What part of the skull is the only part to be developed by endochondral ossification?

A

the base of the skull (chondrocranium)

181
Q

What week of foetal development do the endochondral ossification centres sit in order to make the structure for all the different foramina in the base of the skull?

A

5th and 8th week

182
Q

What are the 5 zones involved in the endochondral ossification formation of the chondrocranium?

A
  1. Resting zone
  2. Proliferating zone
  3. Hypertrophic zone
  4. Ossification or mineralisation zone
  5. Primary spongiosa
183
Q

What is the name of the process described and what is being developed?

  • All of the cells in the resting zone are cartilage cells, then something starts to happen in the tissues
  • The cells then start to expand and become balloon-like in the hypertrophic zone
  • Once this has occurred, the osteoblasts come into the tissues and the chondrocytes in the hypertrophic zone die off
  • They are then replaced by the matrix that the osteoblasts laid down and this is how the bone formation/endochondral ossification takes place
A

endochondral ossification formation of the chondrocranium

184
Q

What part of the skull does this summary of development describe?

  • plates of membranous bone
  • separated by fontanelles and sutures
  • formed by intramembranous ossification
A

calvaria

185
Q

What part of the skull does this summary of development describe?

  • begins as small cartilage plates
  • formed by endochondral ossification
A

chondrocranium

186
Q

What does the frontonasal process/prominence develop into?

A

forehead and front of the nose

187
Q

What does the lens placode later become?

A

future eye

188
Q

What does the nasal placode later become?

A

future nose

189
Q

What are being described? ‘On outer surface, sitting laterally on the face, specialised thickened ectoderm at location of special sense organs’

A

placodes

190
Q

Is the mandible formed by intramembranous or endochondral ossification?

A

intramembranous

191
Q

What is this the formation of? Fill in the blanks

  • In the mandibular arch, there is Meckel’s cartilage, the cartilage sits there as a template to provide structure and rigidity to support the bone process of the …
  • The bone tissues will form by intramembranous ossification for the majority of the …, so connective tissue cells are laid down which will become osteoblast cells and produce osteoid matrix.
A

mandible

192
Q

What is the following stages describing the end of development of?

  1. When the bone is formed, you have growth of the bone towards the midline, this is where the chin is and where the growth finishes
  2. Meckel’s cartilage disappears after bone formation
A

mandible

193
Q

Is the maxilla formed by intramembranous or endochondral ossification?

A

intramembranous

194
Q

When does foetal development of the maxilla begin?

A

4 weeks

195
Q

When does foetal development of the mandible begin?

A

4 weeks

196
Q

Stages of the … of development

  • The maxilla grows towards the front, but also grows on the inside to form the palate in the oral cavity, at this stage there is no divide between the nasal and oral cavity.
  • … moves forward towards the midline but doesn’t join up fully, they form a junction with the frontonasal process which goes down and fuses with the …
A

maxillary process (where the maxilla joins with the palate and the frontonasal process)

197
Q

What parts of the face come from the medial nasal process?

A

the midline and philtrum

198
Q

What part of the face comes from the lateral nasal process?

A

side of the nostril

199
Q

What part of the mouth comes from the frontonasal process?

A

where the maxillary incisors are

200
Q

Stages of the … of development

  • Can be divided into different sections, where the nasal placodes, there is something called the medial nasal process and the lateral nasal process
  • The lateral nasal process will join up to the maxillary process and also the medial nasal process and grow towards the midline and will become the tip of the nose
A

frontonasal process (where the frontonasal process joins up with the maxillary process)

201
Q

What is a consequence to the baby if there is failure of the fusion of the maxillary process with the medial nasal process?

A

unilateral or bilateral cleft lip

202
Q

What is the following a summary of the development of?

  • follows Meckel’s cartilage
  • formed mainly by intramembranous ossification
  • woven bone turning to lamellar bone
A

mandible

203
Q

What is the following a summary of the development of?

  • formed by intramembranous ossification
  • midline palatine suture for lateral growth
A

maxilla

204
Q

What week of foetal development does palate formation begin?

A

5 weeks

205
Q

What week of foetal development is the palate fully completed?

A

12 weeks

206
Q

What are the 3 stages of palate formation?

A
  • primary formation
  • secondary formation
  • final completion
207
Q

What part of the palate is meant by the following statement? ‘anterior segment that comes from the frontonasal process, grows down and joins up to the maxilla’

A

primary palate

208
Q

What part of the palate is meant by the following statement? ‘the back of the palate, the junction of the plates at the back’

A

secondary palate

209
Q

What part of the palate is meant by the following statement? ‘where the bone is fully developed, but also all the structures that sit behind the palate like the muscles, uvula etc.’

A

final palate

210
Q

What structure is being developed in this process?

- inter maxillary segment formation from fusion of the two medial nasal processes.

A

primary palate

211
Q

What structure is being developed in this process?
- maxillary processes form two separate palatal ‘shelves’, they fuse together and join in the midline at the front first to form the … and this is where you have the closing of the oral cavity from the nasal cavity’

A

secondary palate

212
Q

What 2 things have to happen during palate formation in order to have fusion at the midline?

A
  1. tongue has to move down posteriorly of the oral cavity

2. two palatal process have to change direction and start growing towards midline

213
Q

Is the palate developed by endochondral ossification or intramembranous ossification?

A

intramembranous

214
Q

What part of the palate is not developed by intramembranous ossification?

A

posterior of the secondary palate (soft palate and uvula)

215
Q

Fill in the blanks
There is a condensation, almost like a horseshoe shape arch in the maxilla and the mandible ad this is called the …, from this you have dental buds where the stage of tooth development is initiated and this determines where the tooth is going to go which is genetically pre-programmed

A

dental lamina

216
Q

What stage of foetal development does the initiation stage of tooth development happen?

A

Week 6

217
Q

What is the term used to define the following?

‘cell changes, change function, change into different types of cells’

A

proliferation

218
Q

What is the term used to define the following? ‘describes the form of how the tooth is shaped’

A

morphogenesis

219
Q

What is the term used to describe the following? ‘tissues being laid down’

A

apposition

220
Q

What is the term used to describe the following? ‘fully mineralises and becomes functional tooth’

A

maturation

221
Q

What does the vestibular lamina become?

A

future sulcus

222
Q

What stage of tooth development is being described?

  • 6th week in utero
  • Ectodermal epithelium develops horseshoe shape thickening, which will becomes the dental lamina, next to deeper ectomesenchyme
  • Neural tube marginal cells called neural crest cells migrate into the mesenchyme beneath the dental lamina, to form ectomesenchyme
  • Ectoderm informs ectomesenchyme that a tooth will form, but the ectomesenchyme dictates which tooth and where
A

initiation stage

223
Q

Complex interaction between epithelial and mesenchymal tissues in tooth development.
Finish the sentence..
Between the formation of the enamel and dentine, growth factors and transcription factors signalling between the tissues, have to have … there first before the …

A

DENTINE there first before the ENAMEL

224
Q

What stage of tooth development is being described?

  • 8th week in utero
  • proliferation
  • down growth of the dental lamina with 10 buds per arch for deciduous arch and lingually placed for permanent buds starting anteriorly of the mandible
  • ectomesenchyme responds by proliferating
  • leads to early enamel organ surrounding mesenchyme
A

bud stage

225
Q

What stage of foetal development does the bud stage of tooth development happen?

A

8th week

226
Q

What stage of foetal development does the cap stage of tooth development happen?

A

Week 9-10

227
Q

What stage of tooth development is being described?

  • 9th to 10th week in utero
  • further proliferation of epithelium, dictates shape of crown morphogenesis
  • epithelium differentiates to form the enamel organ
  • enamel organ forms a cap shape that surrounds the ectomesenchyme which is now called the dental papilla
  • a surrounding mass of ectomesenchyme is named dental sac
A

cap stage

228
Q

What does the dental papilla develop into?

A

the pulp and dentine

229
Q

What does the dental sac develop into?

A

the cementum and periodontal ligament

230
Q

What is meant by the description?

- the cells that will produce the crown of the tooth

A

enamel organ

231
Q

In the cap stage of tooth development, what are the 3 elements that the tooth germ comprises of?

A
  • enamel organ
  • dental papilla
  • dental sac
232
Q

What week of foetal development does the following happen?
- At this stage, there is a big change inside the mouth, at this point there is another dental lamina being laid down or there is another bud coming along and this is attached to some of the tooth germs in there and this is where the permanent teeth come from

A

Week 10 (cap stage)

233
Q

What stage of tooth development is being described?

  • 11th-12th week in utero
  • no mineralised tissues at this point
  • enamel organ now comprised of: outer enamel epithelium, stellate reticulum, stratum intermedium, inner enamel epithelium

Dental papilla differentiates into:

  • outer cells (future odontoblasts)
  • central cells (future pulp)
A

bell stage

234
Q

What week of foetal development does the bell stage occur?

A

Week 11 and 12

235
Q

During the bell stage of foetal development, what 4 elements does the tooth germ become comprised of?

A
  • outer enamel epithelium
  • stellate reticulum
  • stratum intermedium
  • inner enamel epithelium
236
Q

In the appositional/secretory stage of tooth development, what do you need to have the presence of for the formation of enamel and dentine?

A

enamel organ and dentine matrix

237
Q

What stage of tooth development is being described?

  • enamel, dentine and cementum laid down as a matrix
  • preameloblasts and preodontoblasts formed
  • preodontoblasts lay down predentine, basement membrane disintegrates forming EDJ and then become ameloblasts and secrete enamel matrix from Tomes process
A

appositional stage

238
Q

What are the key elements in the enamel matrix (organic)?

A
  • amelogenin

- enamelin

239
Q

The tooth root, made of root dentin and root canals (where dental pulp lives), forms from a combination of three structures: …, … and another important group of cells known as …

A
  1. dental papilla
  2. dental sac
  3. hertwigs epithelial root sheath
240
Q

What is the name given for the following?
They are discrete clusters of residual cells from Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath (HERS) that didn’t completely disappear

A

epithelial rests of Malssez

241
Q

Cementum provides attachment for the periodontal ligament via …

A

sharpey’s fibres

242
Q

What condition is shown on the image?

What teeth does it commonly affect?

A

microdontia (abnormally small teeth)

permanent maxillary lateral incisors (peg laterals) and third molars with partial microdontia (peg molar)

243
Q

What condition is shown on the image?

A

macrodontia (abnormally large teeth)

244
Q

What condition is shown on the image?

What teeth does it usually affect?

A

dens in dente

permanent upper lateral incisors

245
Q

What condition is shown on the image?

A

gemination/fusion

246
Q

What condition is shown on the image?

A

tubercle

247
Q

What condition is shown on the image?

A

concrescence

248
Q

What condition is shown on the image?

A

enamel dysplasia

249
Q

What condition is shown on the image?

A

amelogenesis imperfecta

250
Q

What condition is shown on the image?

A

dentinogenesis imperfecta

251
Q

What condition is shown on the image?

A

enamel pearl

252
Q

What dental tissue is being described?

  • hard, non vascular and no sensation
  • 96% mineralised, hydroxyapatite crystals, surrounded by amelogenin protein, enamelin and water
  • cannot replace itself, but very hard to destroy
  • rods are 5 microns diameter, getting wider nearer the surface
A

enamel

253
Q

What process is being described?
A histologic landmark identified on an ameloblast, cells involved in the production of tooth enamel. During the synthesis of enamel, the ameloblast moves away from the enamel, forming a projection surrounded by the developing enamel.

A

Tomes process

254
Q

The production of what dental tissue is being described?

  • ameloblasts secrete enamel protein matrix, which mineralises due to addition of calcium phosphate crystals
  • ameloblasts secrete through Tomes process
  • crystals laid down in 2 different orientations (rod and interod)
  • ameloblasts travels away from the EDJ, rods intertwine increasing the strength (hunter-schreger bands)
A

enamel production

255
Q

What dental tissue is being described?
- incompletely mineralised ribbon-like structures that run longitudinally to the tooth axis and extend from the dentinoenamel junction (DEJ)

A

enamel tufts

256
Q

… are fissure-like defects that extend along the longitudinal axis of the tooth down to the dentin layer (also get their name when enamel tufts are at full thickness)

A

enamel lamellae

257
Q

What element of enamel structure is being described?

  • incremental growth lines, oblique from EDJ to surface, also in cross sections seen as rings
  • possibly due to Tomes process restriction at end of secretory phase
  • prominent … line is called neonatal line, but other variations may reflect illness, fever and may cause hypoplasia
  • on surface they are represented as shallow waves called perikymata
A

striae of Retzius

258
Q

What dental tissue is being described?

  • produced by odontoblasts
  • by weight 70% inorganic (hydroxyapatite)
  • softer than enamel but harder than bone
  • 20% organic and 10% water
  • elastic and flexible, underpins enamel and prevents it from fracturing, yellow giving teeth colour depending on enamel thickness
A

dentine

259
Q

The production of what dental tissue is being described?

  • Formed by odontoblasts and composed of tubules with odontoblast process within
  • Odontoblast end up within and form outermost layer
  • Vital like bone and very sensitive
  • Vascular connective tissue providing nourishment
A

pulp

260
Q

What microscopic dental structure is being described?

  • dentinal tubules
  • 2.5 micrometers wide at pulpal surface
  • occlusally directed S shaped curves, as odontoblasts get crowded as they retreat towards pulp space, finer secondary curves
A

dentine structure

261
Q

What are the 4 types of dentine?

A
  1. mantle
  2. primary
  3. secondary
  4. tertiary
262
Q

What type of dentine is being described?
- First formed 30-150 micrometers of the primary dentine, first formed, less mineralised, loose collagen and trapped odontoblast terminal branches

A

mantle dentine

263
Q

What type of dentine is being described?

- Most of the tooth

A

primary dentine

264
Q

What type of dentine is being described?

- After root formation is completed, throughout life at pulpal edge, reducing pulp size

A

secondary dentine

265
Q

What type of dentine is being described?

  • Induced by stimuli
  • (reparative), responsive to events e.g. caries, fracture, cavity prep, irregular tubules, less permeable and protects the pulp, osteodentin (fast formed), type I and III collagen
A

tertiary dentine

266
Q

What are the 3 types of microscopic dentine?

A
  1. peri/intratubular
  2. intertubular
  3. interglobular
267
Q

… contains dentinal tubules that have become completely obliterated by the deposition of peritubular dentin. This reaction by irritated odontoblasts forms a protective wall between themselves and noxious stimuli

A

sclerotic dentine

268
Q

What component of dentine is being described?
- an area of empty dentinal tubules beneath a carious lesion where the odontoblasts have died and not laid down sclerotic dentin

A

dead track

269
Q

What are the incremental growth lines of dentine called?

A

lines of Von Ebner

270
Q

Metabolic disturbances (birth, fever, infections) accentuate Von Ebner lines called…

A

contour line of Owen

271
Q

What tooth structure is being described?

  • attached to the root dentine
  • provides anchorage for collagen fibres of the PDL (sharpeys fibres)
A

cementum

272
Q

What are the two types of cementum?

A
  • acellular: first formed over root dentine, covered by cellular cementum
  • cellular: contains cementum forming cells
273
Q

What is being described?

- epithelial remnants of the Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath (HERS) that are involved in the formation of tooth roots

A

epithelial rests of Malassez

274
Q

What are the 4 functions of the periodontal ligament?

A
  1. support
  2. sensory
  3. nutritive via blood supply
  4. homeostasis
275
Q

What are the 3 elements of the periodontal ligament?

A
  1. cells
  2. fibres
  3. ground substance
276
Q

What are the 5 elements of the pulp?

A
  1. collagen
  2. ground substance
  3. blood vessels
  4. rudimentary lymphatics
  5. nerves
277
Q

What 2 types of nerves are in the pulp?

A
  1. myelinated nerves - sensory, in dentinal tubules

2. unmyelinated nerves - are associated with the blood vessels

278
Q

What dental structure is being described?

  • supports and protects the maxillary and mandibular teeth
  • made up of both compact lamina dura and woven or spongy bone
A

alveolar bone

279
Q

What is being described?
thin membrane of the reduced enamel epithelium that covers the tooth once it has erupted (reminence of the compressed enamel organ)

A

nasmyths membrane