Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

A

A

nasal

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2
Q

B

A

sphenoid

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3
Q

C

A

ethmoid

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4
Q

D

A

maxilla

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5
Q

E

A

frontal

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6
Q

F

A

parietal

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7
Q

G

A

temporal

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8
Q

H

A

zygomatic

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9
Q

I

A

mandible

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10
Q

A

A

lacrimal

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11
Q

B

A

palatine

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12
Q

C

A

occipital

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13
Q

what type of joints are sutures?

A

fibrous immovable joints

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14
Q

A

A

coronal suture

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15
Q

B

A

sagittal suture

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16
Q

A

A

squamosal suture

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17
Q

A

A

lambdoid suture

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18
Q

Why are bones not immovable in newborn skulls?

A
  • to pass through the birth canal

- symmetrical growth of the brain

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19
Q
A
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20
Q

A

A

anterior fontanelle

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21
Q

B

A

posterior fontanelle

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22
Q

A

A

sphenoid fontanelle

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23
Q

B

A

mastoid fontanelle

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24
Q

What is the weakest point in the adult skull?

A

pterion

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25
Q

What is the term used to describe when sutures and fontanelles fuse prematurely?

A

craniosynostosis

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26
Q

What is the TMJ?

A

joint between the temporal and the mandible bones

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27
Q

What type of joint is the TMJ?

A

synovial joint

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28
Q

What is a synovial joint?

A

joint contained in a joint capsule, filled with synovial fluid which is needed for lubrication and therefore reduce friction

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29
Q

A

A

fibrous capsule

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30
Q

B

A

sphenomandibular ligament

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31
Q

C

A

stylomandibular ligament

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32
Q

D

A

mylohyoid groove

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33
Q

What is the metopic line?

A

faded suture line between the two frontal bones

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34
Q

What are the zygomatic and maxillary processes of the frontal bone?

A

point where the frontal bone attaches to the zygomatic and maxilla

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35
Q

A

A

zygomatic process

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36
Q

B

A

maxillary process

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37
Q

C

A

supra-orbital notch

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38
Q

D

A

superciliary arch

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39
Q

E

A

glabella

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40
Q

F

A

superior temporal line

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41
Q

G

A

frontal sinus

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42
Q

A

A

lesser wing of sphenoid bone

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43
Q

B

A

greater wing of sphenoid bone

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44
Q

C

A

sella turcica

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45
Q

D

A

optic groove

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46
Q

E

A

anterior clinoid process

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47
Q

F

A

posterior clinoid process

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48
Q

A

A

spine of sphenoid bone

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49
Q

B

A

pterygoid hamulus

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50
Q

C

A

medial pterygoid plate

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51
Q

D

A

lateral pterygoid plate

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52
Q

A

A

crista galli

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53
Q

B

A

cribriform plate

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54
Q

C

A

perpendicular plate

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55
Q

D

A

middle nasal concha

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56
Q

E

A

superior nasal concha

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57
Q

A

A

occipital condyle

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58
Q

B

A

inferior nuchal line

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59
Q

C

A

superior nuchal line

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60
Q

D

A

internal occipital crest

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61
Q

E

A

internal occipital protuberance

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62
Q

F

A

jugular process

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63
Q

G

A

cerebellar fossa

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64
Q

A (temporal bone)

A

zygomatic process

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65
Q

B (temporal bone)

A

squamous portion

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66
Q

C (temporal bone)

A

petrous portion

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67
Q

D (temporal bone)

A

styloid process

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68
Q

E (temporal bone)

A

tympanic plate

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69
Q

F (temporal bone)

A

external auditory meatus

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70
Q

G (temporal bone)

A

internal auditory meatus

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71
Q

H (temporal bone)

A

mandibular fossa

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72
Q

I (temporal bone)

A

articular tubercle

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73
Q

A

A

zygomatic process

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74
Q

B

A

frontal process

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75
Q

C

A

orbital surface

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76
Q

D

A

infraorbital groove

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77
Q

E

A

alveolar process

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78
Q

F

A

palatine process

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79
Q

G

A

canine fossa

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80
Q

H

A

maxillary sinus

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81
Q

I

A

anterior nasal spine

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82
Q

What bone is this?

A

palatine bone (right)

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83
Q

A

A

head of mandible

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84
Q

B

A

neck of mandible

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85
Q

C

A

ramus

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86
Q

D

A

body of mandible

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87
Q

E

A

condylar process

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88
Q

F

A

coronoid process

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89
Q

G

A

angle of mandible

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90
Q

H

A

mandibular notch

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91
Q

I

A

lingula

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92
Q

J

A

mylohyoid line

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93
Q

K

A

submandibular fossa

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94
Q

L

A

sublingual fossa

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95
Q

M

A

digastric fossa

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96
Q

N

A

mental spine

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97
Q

E

A

condylar process

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98
Q

G

A

angle of mandible

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99
Q

How many cranial fossae are there?

A

3 - anterior, middle and posterior

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100
Q

Which bones make up the anterior cranial fossa?

A

frontal, sphenoid and ethmoid

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101
Q

Which bones make up the middle cranial fossa?

A

sphenoid and temporal

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102
Q

Which bones make up the posterior cranial fossa?

A

temporal and occipital

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103
Q

A

A

anterior cranial fossa

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104
Q

B

A

middle cranial fossa

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105
Q

C

A

posterior cranial fossa

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106
Q

A

A

superior orbital fissure

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107
Q

A

A

cribriform plate

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108
Q

B

A

optic canal

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109
Q

C

A

foramen rotundum

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110
Q

D

A

foramen ovale

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111
Q

E

A

foramen spinosum

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112
Q

F

A

jugular foramen

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113
Q

G

A

internal auditory meatus

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114
Q

H

A

hypoglossal canal

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115
Q

I

A

foramen magnum

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116
Q

J

A

foramen lacerum

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117
Q

A

A

olfactory

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118
Q

B

A

optic

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119
Q

C

A

oculomotor

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120
Q

D

A

trochlear

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121
Q

E

A

trigeminal

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122
Q

F

A

abducens

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123
Q

G

A

facial

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124
Q

H

A

vestibulocochlear

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125
Q

I

A

glossopharyngeal

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126
Q

J

A

vagus

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127
Q

K

A

accessory

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128
Q

L

A

hypoglossal

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129
Q

1

A

smell

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130
Q

2

A

sight

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131
Q

3

A

special senses (touch, pain, temp), muscles of the eye

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132
Q

4

A

1 eye muscle

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133
Q

5

A

largest, sensation to the face, nasal cavity, throat, muscles of mastication (motor)

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134
Q

6

A

1 eye muscle

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135
Q

7

A

motor to muscles of the face (facial expression), taste to part of the tongue, parasympathetic (salivary glands)

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136
Q

8

A

hearing and balance

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137
Q

9

A

sensation to tongue, oral cavity

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138
Q

10

A

larynx, palate

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139
Q

11

A

muscles of the neck

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140
Q

12

A

muscles of the tongue

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141
Q
A
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142
Q

Acronym for layers of the scalp

A
S - skin
C - connective tissue (dense)
A - aponeurosis (tough connective tissue)
L - loose connective tissue
P - periosteum
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143
Q

A

A

anterior auricular

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144
Q

B

A

superior auricular

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145
Q

C

A

posterior auricular

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146
Q

D

A

occipital belly of occipitofrontalis

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147
Q

E

A

frontal belly of occipitofrontalis

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148
Q

F

A

aponeurosis

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149
Q

G

A

orbicularis oculi

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150
Q

A

A

corrugator supercilli

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151
Q

B

A

orbicularis oculi

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152
Q

A

A

procerus

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153
Q

B

A

nasalis

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154
Q

C

A

depressor septi nasi

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155
Q

D

A

orbit

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156
Q

E

A

levator labii superioris alaeque nasi

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157
Q

F

A

attachment to frontal process of maxilla

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158
Q

G

A

attachment to maxilla

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159
Q

A

A

orbicularis oris

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160
Q

B

A

risorius

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161
Q

C

A

zygomaticus major

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162
Q

D

A

zygomaticus minor

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163
Q

E

A

levator anguli oris

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164
Q

F

A

levator labii superioris alaeque nasi

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165
Q

G

A

levator labii superioris

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166
Q

H

A

depressor anguli oris

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167
Q

I

A

depressor labii inferioris

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168
Q

J

A

platysma

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169
Q

K

A

mentalis

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170
Q

L

A

buccinator

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171
Q

M

A

modiolus

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172
Q

What is the function of the orbital part of orbicularis oculi?

A

closes eyelid forcefully

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173
Q

What is the function of the palpebral part of orbicularis oculi?

A

blinking and closing eyelid gently

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174
Q

What is the function of corrugator supercilli?

A

draws brows medially

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175
Q

What is unique about the muscles of facial expression?

A

they insert onto skin and move the skin

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176
Q

What is the function of the procerus muscle?

A

wrinkles skin of nose and pulls eyebrows down

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177
Q

What is the function of the transverse and alar parts of the nasalis muscle?

A

compress and dilate nostrils

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178
Q

What is the function of the depressor septi nasi?

A

depresses nasal septum

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179
Q

What is the function of auricularis anterior, superior and posterior?

A

move the ear anterior, superior or posterior (respectively)

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180
Q

What is the function of orbicularis oris?

A

closes and protrudes lips, also provides bridge for the other oral muscles to connect to

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181
Q

What is the function of zygomaticus major and minor?

A
  • raises corners of mouth superior and lateral

- raises upper lip

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182
Q

What is the function of the risorius muscle?

A

retracts corner of mouth

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183
Q

What is the function of the levator labii superioris alaeque nasi?

A

raises upper lip and opens nostrils

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184
Q

What is the function of the levator labii superioris?

A

raises upper lip

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185
Q

What is the function of the levator anguli oris?

A

elevates angle of the mouth

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186
Q

What is the function of the depressor labii inferioris?

A

depresses lower lip

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187
Q

What is the function of the depressor anguli oris?

A

depresses corners of the mouth

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188
Q

What is the function of the platysma?

A

raises the skin of the neck and pulls corners of the mouth down

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189
Q

What is the function of the mentalis?

A

raises and protrudes lower lip

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190
Q

What is the function of the frontal belly of occipitofrontalis?

A

elevate eyebrows and wrinkle forehead

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191
Q

What is the function of the occipital belly of occipitofrontalis?

A

draw scalp back

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192
Q

What is the function of the buccinator?

A

presses cheeks against teeth

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193
Q

What cranial nerve supplies all muscles of facial expression?

A

facial nerve (CN 7)

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194
Q

A

A

midbrain

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195
Q

B

A

pons

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196
Q

C

A

medulla

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197
Q

What is the intracranial course of the facial nerve? (4 points to remember)

A
  1. exits posterior cranial fossa
  2. passes through the internal acoustic meatus
  3. passes through the petrous part of the temporal bone
  4. exits via the stylomastoid foramen
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198
Q

What is the extra cranial course for the facial nerve? (4 points to remember)

A
  1. leaves the skull via the stylomastoid foramen
  2. immediately gives off the posterior auricular branch
  3. enters the parotid gland
  4. divides into 5 major branches
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199
Q

What 5 branches does the motor component of the facial nerve divide in to? (to Zanzibar by motor car)

A
  1. temporal
  2. zygomatic
  3. buccal
  4. mandibular
  5. cervical
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200
Q

What is a symptom of damage to the facial nerve and therefore paralysis of the stapedius muscle?

A

intolerance to loud noises

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201
Q

FACIAL NERVE - 1. What do motor neurons supply? 2. And where do those originate from?

A
  1. muscles of facial expression

2. second pharyngeal arch

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202
Q

FACIAL NERVE - What special sensation does it supply and where?

A

taste to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue

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203
Q

What is the parasympathetic function of the facial nerve?

A

salivary glands, mucous glands, lacrimal gland

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204
Q

What is the name of the branch of the facial nerve that carries special sensation and parasympathetic?

A

chorda tympani

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205
Q

What is bells palsy?

A

complete paralysis to one side of the face

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206
Q

What is the lower motor neuron part of the facial nerve?

A

brainstem to the face

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207
Q

What is the upper motor neuron part of the facial nerve?

A

brain to the brainstem

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208
Q

A

A

chorda tympani

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209
Q

B

A

lingual nerve

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210
Q

C

A

glossopharyngeal nerve

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211
Q

What is the difference in facial paralysis between bells palsy and a stroke?

A

Stroke patients will still be able to move their eyebrows, whereas patients with bells palsy will not

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212
Q

What do the external carotid artery, retromandibular vein and facial nerve and its 5 branches all travel through?

A

parotid gland

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213
Q

What is a parotidectomy?

A

removal of the tumour and parotid gland

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214
Q

What nerve supplies muscles of mastication?

A

trigeminal

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215
Q

What are the 3 branches of the trigeminal nerve?

A

V1 - ophthalmic nerve
V2 - maxillary nerve
V3 - mandibular nerve

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216
Q

A

A

ophthalmic nerve (v1)

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217
Q

B

A

maxillary nerve (v2)

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218
Q

C

A

mandibular nerve (v3)

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219
Q

What branch of the trigeminal nerve is responsible for motor function for muscles of mastication?

A

mandibular (v3)

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220
Q

A

A

exits from cranial cavity - superior orbital fissure

onto the face - supra orbital notch or foramen

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221
Q

B

A

exits from cranial cavity - foramen rotundum

onto the face - infraorbital foramen

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222
Q

C

A

exits from cranial cavity - foramen ovale

onto the face - mental foramen

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223
Q

What is the purpose of ligaments surrounding the TMJ?

A

to stabilise and limit the movement

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224
Q

What is the function of the temporalis muscle?

A

elevates and retracts the mandible

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225
Q

What is the function of the masseter muscle?

A

elevates mandible

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226
Q

What is the function of the medial pterygoid muscle?

A

elevates and (in combination with the lateral pterygoid muscle) lateral deviation of the mandible

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227
Q

What is the function of the lateral pterygoid muscle?

A

protrusion and (when in combination with the medial pterygoid muscle) lateral deviation, depression of the mandible

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228
Q

A

A

temporalis

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229
Q

B

A

masseter

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230
Q

C

A

lateral pterygoid

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231
Q

D

A

medial pterygoid

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232
Q

A

A

lateral pterygoid plate

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233
Q

B

A

medial pterygoid plate

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234
Q

Where does the lateral pterygoid muscle attach to?

A

lateral side of the lateral pterygoid plate and runs back to the TMJ

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235
Q

Where does the medial pterygoid muscle attach to?

A

medial side (inside) of the lateral pterygoid plate down to the edge of mandible

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236
Q

When in combination together, what two muscles enable the mandible to move side to side due to their oblique orientation?

A

medial and lateral pterygoid muscles

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237
Q

A

A

masseter, superficial part

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238
Q

B

A

medial pterygoid, deep head

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239
Q

C

A

masseter, deep part

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240
Q

D

A

medial pterygoid plate

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241
Q

E

A

lateral pterygoid, inferior head

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242
Q

F

A

lateral pterygoid, superior head

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243
Q

What pharyngeal arch supplies muscles of mastication?

A

first pharyngeal arch

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244
Q

A

A

anterior belly of digastric muscle

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245
Q

B

A

mylohyoid muscle

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246
Q

C

A

hyoid bone

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247
Q

D

A

posterior belly of digastric muscle

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248
Q

E

A

stylohyoid muscle

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249
Q

What is the function of the accessory muscles of mastication - mylohyoid and anterior belly of digastric?

A

depress the mandible

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250
Q

What are the 8 branches of the external carotid artery? (Some Anatomists Like Freaking Out Poor Medical Students)

A
S - superior thyroid artery
A - ascending pharyngeal artery
L - lingual artery
F - facial artery
O - occipital artery
P - posterior auricular artery
M - maxillary artery
S - superficial temporal artery
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251
Q

Where does the superior thyroid artery supply?

A

thyroid

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252
Q

Where does the ascending pharyngeal artery supply?

A

pharynx

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253
Q

Where does the lingual artery supply?

A

tongue

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254
Q

Where does the facial artery supply?

A

face

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255
Q

Where does the occipital artery supply?

A

scalp

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256
Q

Where does the posterior auricular artery supply?

A

scalp

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257
Q

Where does the maxillary artery supply?

A

muscles of mastication

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258
Q

Where does the superficial temporal artery supply?

A

scalp

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259
Q

A

A

occipital artery

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260
Q

B

A

facial artery

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261
Q

C

A

lingual artery

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262
Q

D

A

internal carotid artery

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263
Q

E

A

external carotid artery

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264
Q

F

A

superior thyroid artery

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265
Q

G

A

ascending pharyngeal artery

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266
Q

H

A

posterior auricular artery

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267
Q

I

A

maxillary artery

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268
Q

J

A

superficial temporal artery

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269
Q

A (SALFOPMS)

A

superior thyroid artery

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270
Q

B (SALFOPMS)

A

ascending pharyngeal artery

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271
Q

C (SALFOPMS)

A

lingual artery

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272
Q

D (SALFOPMS)

A

facial artery

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273
Q

E (SALFOPMS)

A

occipital artery

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274
Q

F (SALFOPMS)

A

posterior auricular artery

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275
Q

G (SALFOPMS)

A

maxillary artery

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276
Q

H (SALFOPMS)

A

superficial temporal artery

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277
Q

I

A

infra-orbital artery

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278
Q

J

A

inferior alveolar artery

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279
Q

K

A

middle meningeal artery

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280
Q

Identify 3 structures that run through the parotid gland?

A
  • retromandibular vein
  • external carotid artery
  • facial nerve
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281
Q

A

A

facial vein

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282
Q

B

A

internal jugular vein

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283
Q

C

A

external jugular vein

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284
Q

D

A

retromandibular vein

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285
Q

E

A

occipital vein

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286
Q

All muscles of the soft palate (apart from the tensor veli palatini) are supplied by what nerve?

A

vagus nerve

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287
Q

A

A

muscularis uvulae

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288
Q

B

A

tensor veli palatini muscle

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289
Q

C

A

levator veli palatini muscle

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290
Q

D

A

palatopharyngeus muscle

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291
Q

E

A

cartilage of the auditory tube

292
Q

What is the function of the tensor veli palatini muscle?

A

tenses the soft palate

293
Q

What is the function of the levator veli palatini muscle?

A

raises the soft palate

294
Q

What is the function of the palatopharyngeus muscle?

A

elevates pharynx and larynx, depresses soft palate

295
Q

What is the function of the palatoglossus muscle?

A

elevate the tongue, depress the soft palate

296
Q

What is the function of the muscularis uvulae?

A

elevates and retracts the uvulae

297
Q

What nerve supplies the tensor veli palatini muscle?

A

trigeminal

298
Q

Function of V3 (mandibular) branch of trigeminal?

A

sensory and motor

299
Q

Function of V1 (opthalmic) branch of trigeminal?

A

sensory

300
Q

Function of V2 (maxillary) branch of trigeminal?

A

sensory

301
Q

A

A

tensor veli palatini muscle

302
Q

B

A

levator veli palatini muscle

303
Q

C

A

palatopharyngeus muscle

304
Q

D

A

palatoglossus muscle

305
Q

What is the sulcus terminalis?

A

V shaped groove dividing anterior 2/3 and posterior 1/3 of the tongue

306
Q

A

A

sulcus terminalis

307
Q

B

A

foramen caecum

308
Q

C

A

epiglottis

309
Q

D

A

palatine tonsil

310
Q

E

A

palatoglossal arch

311
Q

F

A

foliate papillae

312
Q

G

A

vallate papillae

313
Q

H

A

fungiform papillae

314
Q

I

A

filiform papillae

315
Q

What type of papillae do not have taste and are only for grip and abrasion?

A

filiform papillae, found mostly in the centre of the tongue

316
Q

What type of papillae are the only ones that are keratinized?

A

filiform papillae

317
Q

A

A

filiform papillae

318
Q

B

A

fungiform papillae

319
Q

C

A

vallate papillae

320
Q

D

A

foliate papillae

321
Q

What is the specialisation of the papillae located around the centre of the tongue?

A

filiform papillae - keratinised for grip and abrasion

322
Q

What is the function of the soft palate?

A

elevates to close the pharyngeal isthmus during swallowing – this prevents the food from entering the nasopharynx

323
Q

Where is the point that the oral cavity stops?

A

oropharyngeal isthmus

324
Q

Where does the soft palate stop?

A

at the uvula

325
Q

A

A

oral vestibule

326
Q

B

A

palatoglossal arch

327
Q

C

A

palatopharyngeal arch

328
Q

D

A

oropharyngeal isthmus

329
Q

E

A

frenulum

330
Q

F

A

hard palate

331
Q

G

A

soft palate

332
Q

H

A

uvula

333
Q

I

A

palatine tonsil

334
Q

J

A

tongue

335
Q

K

A

frenulum

336
Q

What is the function of the epiglottis?

A

the epiglottis is a small, movable “lid” just above the larynx that prevents food and drink from entering your windpipe

337
Q

What are the 4 types of tonsils?

A
  1. adenoids
  2. palatine
  3. lingual
  4. tubal
338
Q

A

A

epiglottis

339
Q

B

A

adenoid tonsils

340
Q

C

A

tubal tonsils

341
Q

D

A

lingual tonsils

342
Q

A

A

superior longitudinal

343
Q

B

A

vertical muscle

344
Q

C

A

transverse muscle

345
Q

D

A

inferior longitudinal muscle

346
Q

E

A

palatoglossus muscle

347
Q

F

A

styloglossus muscle

348
Q

G

A

hypoglossus muscle

349
Q

H

A

genioglossus muscle

350
Q

What is the function of the palatoglossus muscle?

A
  • can help to elevate the posterior part of the tongue

- can help to depress the soft palate

351
Q

What is the function of the styloglossus muscle?

A
  • helps with lateral movement

- main retractor of the tongue

352
Q

What is the function of the hypoglossus muscle?

A
  • helps with depression
  • helps with retraction
  • helps to elevate the hyoid bone
353
Q

What is the function of the genioglossus muscle?

A
  • main function is to protrude the tongue

- helps with depression and deviation

354
Q

What muscle is this description… ‘runs from the soft palate to the side of the tongue and attaches round the outer edge’ ?

A

palatoglossus

355
Q

What muscle is this description… ‘goes from the styloid process to the side of the tongue’ ?

A

styloglossus

356
Q

What muscle is this description… ‘runs from the hyoid bone to the side of the tongue, flat muscle’ ?

A

hyloglossus

357
Q

What muscle is this description… ‘biggest muscle of the tongue, forms the bulk of the tongue, comes from the spine of the mandible’ ?

A

genioglossus

358
Q

What muscle is this description… ‘runs along the top and runs length ways along the tongue’ ?

A

superior longitudinal

359
Q

What muscle is this description ‘lowest of the intrinsic muscles, runs longitudinal’ ?

A

inferior longitudinal

360
Q

What muscle is this description… ‘runs vertical along the tongue’ ?

A

vertical

361
Q

What muscle is this description… ‘runs across length of the tongue’ ?

A

transverse

362
Q

A

A

styloid process

363
Q

B

A

palatoglossus

364
Q

C

A

stylohyoid

365
Q

D

A

styloglossus

366
Q

E

A

hyloglossus

367
Q

F

A

tongue

368
Q

G

A

frenulum

369
Q

H

A

mandible

370
Q

I

A

genioglossus

371
Q

J

A

hyoid bone

372
Q

What nerve supplies motor to all the muscles of the tongue? (one exception)

A

hypoglossus (CN 12)

373
Q

What nerve supples motor to the palatoglossus muscle?

A

vagus nerve (CN 10), as it is a soft palate muscle

374
Q

What nerve supplies general sensation to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?

A

trigeminal (CN 5) (lingual branch) - first pharyngeal arch

375
Q

What nerve supplies general sensation to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue?

A

glossopharyngeal (CN 9) - third pharyngeal arch

376
Q

What nerve supplies general sensation the most posterior part of the tongue?

A

vagus (CN 10) - fourth pharyngeal arch

377
Q

What nerve supplies taste to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?

A

facial (CN 7) - chorda tympani

378
Q

What nerve supplies taste to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue?

A

glossopharyngeal (CN 9)

379
Q

Where does the dorsal lingual artery supply?

A

posterior part of the tongue

380
Q

Where does the deep lingual artery supply?

A

anterior part of the tongue

381
Q

Where does the sublingual artery supply?

A

floor of the mouth and sublingual salivary gland

382
Q

A

A

lingual nerve

383
Q

B

A

hypoglossal nerve

384
Q

C

A

submandibular duct

385
Q

D

A

lingual artery

386
Q

E

A

dorsal lingual artery

387
Q

F

A

deep lingual artery

388
Q

G

A

sublingual artery

389
Q

What is the keratinisation status of lining epithelium?

A

non-keratinised

390
Q

What is the keratinisation status of specialised epithelium?

A

para-keratinised

391
Q

What is the keratinisation status of masticatory epithelium?

A

keratinised

392
Q

Where is lining epithelium found?

A

soft palate, cheeks, floor of mouth

393
Q

Where is specialised epithelium found?

A

tongue

394
Q

Where is masticatory epithelium found?

A

hard palate, gingiva

395
Q

What type of epithelium has to be tougher due to being in contact with food and therefore keratinised?

A

masticatory epithelium

396
Q

Where does the trigeminal ganglion enter the brain stem?

A

at the level of the pons

397
Q

PIC OF BRAINSTEM - NAME A

A

motor and sensory root of trigeminal

398
Q
A

infra-temporal fossa

399
Q

A

A

pterygopalatine fossa

400
Q

Pterygopalatine fossa is used for what branch of trigeminal?

A

V2 (maxillary)

401
Q

Infra-temporal fossa is used for what branch of trigeminal?

A

V3 (mandibular)

402
Q

Cranial nerve V1 (ophthalmic) travels through which foramen?

A

superior orbital fissure

403
Q

Cranial nerve V2 (maxillary) travels through which foramen?

A

foramen ovale

404
Q

Cranial nerve V3 (mandibular) travels through which foramen?

A

foramen spinosum

405
Q

What cranial nerves carries parasympathetic?

A

CN 3 - oculomotor
CN 7 - facial
CN 9 - glossopharyngeal
CN 10 - vagus

406
Q

What is the only cranial nerve to travel round to the rest of the body?

A

vagus (CN 10)

407
Q

What are the 5 branches of the facial nerve? (To Zanzibar By Motor Car)

A
  1. temporal
  2. zygomatic
  3. buccal
  4. mandibular
  5. cervical
408
Q

What are the 3 main branches of the ophthalmic branch V1?

A
  • nasociliary - most medial
  • lacrimal - most lateral
  • frontal - in the middle/superior
409
Q

A

A

ciliary ganglion

410
Q

B

A

otic ganglion

411
Q

C

A

pterygopalatine ganglion

412
Q

D

A

submandibular ganglion

413
Q

What is the function of the lacrimal nerve?

A

provides sensory innervation to the lacrimal gland for pain, inflammation etc.

414
Q

Where does the supraorbital nerve pass through?

A

supraorbital notch

415
Q

What are the branches of the frontal nerve?

A
  1. supraorbital nerve

2. supratrochlear nerve

416
Q

What is the function of the supraorbital and supratrochlear nerves?

A

supplies sensory innervation to the upper eyelid, conductive and forehead

417
Q

What are the branches of the nasociliary nerve?

A
  1. ethmoidal nerve (anterior and posterior)

2. infratrochlear nerve

418
Q

What is the function of the nasociliary nerve?

A

provides sensory perception to the cornea, eyelids, conjuctiva and mucous membranes of the nasal cavity

419
Q

What is the function of the infratrochlear nerve?

A

supplies medial aspect of the eye, lacrimal duct and sac

420
Q

What is the function of the ethmoidal nerve (anterior)?

A

provides sensory branches to the nasal cavity

421
Q

What is the function of ophthalmic nerve V1?

A

sensory - forehead, eyeball, lacrimal glands, upper eyelids, frontal sinuses

422
Q

What is the function of maxillary nerve V2?

A

sensory - maxilla, mid face, nasal cavity, palate

423
Q

What is the function of mandibular nerve V3?

A

motor and sensory - muscles of mastication, anterior 2/3 of the tongue, TMJ, pain and temp mandibular teeth

424
Q

A

A

anterior ethmoidal nerve

425
Q

B

A

infratrochlear nerve

426
Q

C

A

supratrochlear nerve

427
Q

D

A

supraorbital nerve

428
Q

E

A

posterior ethmoidal nerve

429
Q

What are the direct branches of V2 (maxillary nerve)?

A
  • meningeal
  • superior alveolar nerves
  • zygomatic
  • infraorbital
430
Q

Where does the meningeal branch of nerve V2 supply sensory to?

A

anterior half of the meninges inside the cranial cavity

431
Q

What are the 3 types of superior alveolar nerves?

A
  1. posterior
  2. middle
  3. anterior
432
Q

What are the 2 branches of infraorbital branch of V2?

A

anterior and middle superior alveolar

433
Q

Posterior superior alveolar nerve is a branch of… and where does it sit?

A

V2 (maxillary), in the pterygopalatine fossa

434
Q

How do the infraorbital and zygomatic nerves (branches of V2) get into the orbit?

A

through the inferior orbital fissure

435
Q

Where does the zygomatic nerve supply sensory to?

A

area of skin over temple and area of skin over cheek bones

436
Q

Where does the infraorbital nerve (branch of V2) travel?

A

floor of the orbit in the infraorbital groove and down to the infraorbital canal and out to the infraorbital foramen

437
Q

Where does the infraorbital nerve (branch of V2) supply sensory to?

A

skin over lateral aspect of nose, lower eyelid, upper lip

438
Q

What are the branches of the infraorbital nerve (branch of V2)?

A
  • palpebral
  • nasal
  • labial
439
Q

Where does the posterior superior alveolar nerve supply sensory to?

A

maxillary molars - forms the superior dental plexus

440
Q

What does the posterior, middle and anterior superior alveolar nerves in combination form?

A

superior dental plexus - which all contribute to sensory to upper dentition

441
Q

What are the indirect (associated pterygopalatine ganglion) branches of V2 (maxillary nerve)?

A
  • greater and less palatines
  • nasopalatine
  • lateral nasal
  • pharyngeal
  • orbital
442
Q

A (nerves & branches of V2)

A

trigeminal ganglion

443
Q

B (nerves and branches of V2)

A

maxillary nerve

444
Q

C (nerves and branches of V2)

A

ophthalmic nerve

445
Q

D (nerves and branches of V2)

A

middle meningeal nerve

446
Q

E (nerves and branches of V2)

A

mandibular nerve

447
Q

F (nerves and branches of V2)

A

foramen rotundum

448
Q

G (nerves and branches of V2)

A

zygomatic nerve

449
Q

H (nerves and branches of V2)

A

pterygopalatine ganglion

450
Q

I (nerves and branches of V2)

A

posterior superior alveolar nerve

451
Q

J (nerves and branches of V2)

A

medial superior alveolar nerve

452
Q

K (nerves and branches of V2)

A

infraorbital nerve

453
Q

L (nerves and branches of V2)

A

infraorbital foramen

454
Q

M (nerves and branches of V2)

A

anterior superior alveolar nerve

455
Q

Where does the posterior superior alveolar nerve branch off of and where is it?

A

V2 maxillary nerve and in the pterygopalatine fossa

456
Q

Where do the anterior and middle superior alveolar nerve branch off of and where are they?

A

infraorbital nerve and in the infraorbital groove/canal

457
Q

How do the greater and lesser palatine nerves get to the palate?

A

enter to the palatine canal

458
Q

Where do the greater and lesser palatine nerves supply sensory to?

A

hard and soft palate and palatine gingiva

459
Q

How does the nasopalatine nerve enter to the nasal cavity?

A

passes through the sphenopalatine foramen

460
Q

What is the journey of the nasopalatine nerve?

A

passes through the sphenopalatine foramen, runs along the nasal septum then through the incisive foramen into the oral cavity

461
Q

Where does the nasopalatine nerve supply sensory to?

A

gives rise to the nasal nerves that innervate the nasal skin and mucosa

462
Q

What is the journey of the infraorbital nerve?

A

runs through the inferior orbital fissure, along the infraorbital groove, into the infraorbital canal then emerges on the face through the infraorbital foramen

463
Q

What is the journey of the pharyngeal nerve?

A

leaves the pterygopalatine ganglion through the pharyngeal canal

464
Q

Where does the pharyngeal nerve supply sensory to?

A

the nasopharynx

465
Q

Where does the orbit branches supply sensory to?

A

orbit and sinuses

466
Q

What is the journey of the orbital branches?

A

pass through the inferior orbital fissure

467
Q

What is the journey of the zygomatic nerve?

A

the branches (zygomaticofacial & zygomaticotemporal) leave through identically named foramina in the zygomatic bone

468
Q

Where does the zygomatic nerve supply sensory to?

A

to the skin of the temple and the cheek

469
Q

Where does the meningeal nerve supply sensory to?

A

to the anterior half of the dura meter

470
Q

What is the journey of the lateral nasal branches?

A

follow the nasopalatine nerve to the nasal cavity but then run along the lateral wall of nasal cavity

471
Q

Where does the lateral nasal branches supply sensory to?

A

nasal cavity

472
Q

What division of V3 is motor?

A

anterior

473
Q

What division of V3 is sensory?

A

posterior

474
Q

What are the branches of the anterior branch of V3? (one exception of long buccal nerve)

A
  • masseteric nerve
  • deep temporal nerves
  • lateral pterygoid nerve
475
Q

What are the branches of the posterior branch of V3? (one exception of nerve to mylohyoid)

A
  • lingual nerve
  • inferior alveolar nerves
  • auriculotemporal nerve
476
Q

Where does the deep temporal branches supply motor to?

A

temporalis

477
Q

Where does the lateral pterygoid nerve supply motor to?

A

lateral pterygoid

478
Q

Where does the masseteric nerve supply motor to?

A

masseter

479
Q

Where does the buccal nerve supply sensory to?

A

skin over buccinator, inner surface of cheek and buccal gingiva

480
Q

Where does the lingual nerve supply sensory to?

A

lingual gingiva and anterior 2/3 of the tongue

481
Q

What is the journey of the inferior alveolar nerve?

A

runs through the mandible via mandibular foramen and canal

482
Q

Where does the inferior alveolar nerve supply sensory to?

A

mandibular teeth and gingiva

483
Q

Where does the auriculotemporal nerve supply sensory to?

A

angle of mandible, TMJ and scalp

484
Q

Where does the nerve to mylohyoid supply motor to?

A

mylohyoid and anterior digastric

485
Q

What is the journey of the mental nerve?

A

leaves the mandible through the mental foramen

486
Q

Where does the mental nerve supply sensory to?

A

skin over the chin

487
Q

What is the journey of the incisive nerve?

A

continuation of inferior alveolar nerve after mental nerve has branched

488
Q

Where does the incisive nerve supply sensory to?

A

lower incisors

489
Q

A (branches of V3)

A

auriculotemporal nerve

490
Q

B (branches of V3)

A

chorda tympani

491
Q

C (branches of V3)

A

lingual nerve

492
Q

D (branches of V3)

A

incisive nerve

493
Q

E (branches of V3)

A

mental nerve

494
Q

F (branches of V3)

A

nerve to mylohyoid

495
Q

G (branches of V3)

A

inferior alveolar nerve

496
Q

Through which opening does the accessory nerve exit the skull?

A

jugular foramen

497
Q

Which cranial nerves are responsible for the motor innervation of the tongue?

A

hypoglossal and vagus nerves

498
Q

What is the definition of lateral?

A

away from the midline

499
Q

What is the definition of cranial?

A

towards the head

500
Q

What is the definition of caudal?

A

towards the tail

501
Q

What is the definition of superficial?

A

surface

502
Q

What is the definition of ventral?

A

front

503
Q

Which anatomical plane divides the body into left and right?

A

sagittal plane

504
Q

Which anatomical plane divides the body anterior and posterior?

A

coronal plane

505
Q

Which anatomical plane divides the body into superior and inferior?

A

axial plane

506
Q

Which anatomical plane divides the body at an angle?

A

oblique plane

507
Q

If you have a sagittal cut straight down the midline, what is this called?

A

mid sagittal plane

508
Q

What are the anatomical planes for the images?

A

A - sagittal
B - coronal
C - axial

509
Q

What is the term used to describe the movement: decrease and increase in angle of joint?

A

flexion (bending a joint) and extension (straightening a joint)

510
Q

What is the term used to describe the movement: away from and towards the body?

A

abduction (taking away from the body) and adduction (going back towards the body)

511
Q

What is the term used to describe the movement: rotation away from and towards the body?

A

lateral (rotation away from) and medial rotation (towards the midline)

512
Q

What is the term used to describe the movement: up and down

A

elevation (up) and depression (down)

513
Q

What is the term used to describe the movement: pushing out and pulling in

A

protrusion (pushing out) and retraction (pulling in)

514
Q

What is the term used to describe the movement: flexion from the midline to one side

A

lateral flexion (means away from the midline, flexion means bending)

515
Q

Which anatomical movement is this?

A

abduction and adduction

516
Q

Which anatomical movement is this?

A

flexion and extension

517
Q

Which anatomical movement is this?

A

medial and lateral rotation

518
Q

Which anatomical movement is this?

A

elevate and depress

protrude or retract

519
Q

Which anatomical movement is this?

A

lateral flexion, bending from the midline to one side

520
Q

What are the 4 basic tissue types?

A
  1. epithelial
  2. connective
  3. muscular
  4. nervous
521
Q

What tissue type is this a description of?

- the inside and outside of organs, inside the mouth, forming the outer layers of skin, lining cavities

A

epithelium

522
Q

What tissue type is this a description of?
- Tissue that supports, protects, and gives structure to other tissues and organs in the body. Made up of cells, fibres, and a gel-like substance. Types of tissue include bone, cartilage, fat, blood, and lymphatic tissue.

A

connective

523
Q

What tissue type is this a description of?

  • provides signals to all tissue types
  • found in the brain, spinal cord, and nerves. It is responsible for coordinating and controlling many body activities.
A

nerve

524
Q

What tissue type is this a description of?
- skeletal attaches muscle to the skeleton to voluntarily move joints, cardiac muscle is specialised skeletal muscle found in the heart, smooth muscle produces involuntary movements within structures

A

muscular

525
Q

What is the different between smooth muscle and skeletal muscle?

A

smooth muscle - generate involuntary movement

skeletal muscle - attached to bones and allow voluntary movement of the body

526
Q

Which type of microscope is being described?

  • most common
  • PRO: shows colour, beneficial when coloured stains are used to highlight tissue types
  • PRO: lightweight, easy to use
  • CON: less magnification and less resolution
A

light microscope

527
Q

Which type of microscope is being described?

  • PRO: have a higher resolution and magnification so can see in greater detail
  • CON: only shows images in black and white, in order to stain heavy metals are needed which are expensive and harder to do
A

electron microscope

528
Q

Name the following cells…

A

A) keratinocyte - protein found in skin, present anywhere where extra protection is needed, durability (roof of mouth, gums)
B) macrophage - engulf pathogens
C) neutrophil - white blood cell
D) plasma cell - makes up part of blood, type of white blood cell
E) lymphocyte - type of white blood cell
F) neuron - carries nerve impulses
G) red blood cell - carries oxygen, have no nucleus

529
Q

What type of muscle is cardiac?

A

specialised skeletal muscle, specialised because it is involuntary unlike typical skeletal muscle

530
Q

What are the 2 types of cartilage we have around the body?

A
  1. hyaline

2. fibrous

531
Q

Which type of cartilage is being described?

  • lines joint surfaces
  • super smooth as it is designed to be as low friction as possible due to not wanting friction between joints
A

hyaline cartilage

532
Q

Which type of cartilage is being described?

  • lies between joints
  • tougher, more durable, more friction
  • striated, less smooth, more stringy
  • when hyaline cartilage is produced, replaced with this type of cartilage which produces more friction therefore more wear and tear
A

fibrous cartilage

533
Q

What type of cartilage is shown on the image?

A

hyaline cartilage

534
Q

What type of cartilage is shown on the image?

A

fibrous cartilage

535
Q

What type of muscle are shown?

A

A) skeletal
B) smooth
C) cardiac

536
Q

What muscle does the following description of appearance apply to?

  • two layers
  • involuntary
  • lines things like the gut, oesophagus, smooth looking, not irregularly patterned
A

smooth muscle

537
Q

What muscle does the following description of appearance apply to?

  • very regular
  • parallel bundles
  • striated muscle, crucial to functionality
A

skeletal muscle

538
Q

What muscle does the following description of appearance apply to?

  • involuntary
  • striated, dark lines between muscle lines are called intercalated discs (unique to this type of muscle) connections between monocytes to know when each other is contracting
A

cardiac muscle

539
Q

What are the 4 types of epithelium?

A
  1. Simple
  2. Stratified
  3. Pseudostratified
  4. Transitional
540
Q

What type of epithelium is this the function of?
- a single layer of cells is good for absorption and secretion, only one layer to go through to make passage easier between layers, smooth surface. found in areas like inside lining of blood vessels due to low risk of obstruction or friction

A

simple squamous

541
Q

What type of epithelium is this the function of?

- single layer but for absorption in the GI tract, intestines

A

simple cuboidal

542
Q

What type of epithelium is this the function of?
- found in areas where we need absorption and secretion and extra protection, like stomach, we have to secrete mucous but also need protection back against acids so we have columnar cells separating the wall from the edge of the epithelium

A

simple columnar

543
Q

What type of epithelium is this the function of?
- durability and protection, most common to come across, any area that has something passing through it that needs protecting

A

stratified squamous

544
Q

What type of epithelium is this the function of?

- more protection, less common, have absorption and secretive properties

A

stratified cuboidal and columnar

545
Q

What type of epithelium is found in these areas?

- respiratory, neck, cilia

A

pseudostratified

546
Q

Which cranial nerve does the cribriform plate transmit?

A

olfactory

547
Q

A patient who has a base of skull fracture, can have a constant leaking of watered down blood coming through the nasal cavity, what is this liquid likely to be?

A

CSF

548
Q

What structures separate the nasal and oral cavity?

A
  • maxilla
  • palatine bone
  • soft palate
549
Q

Where does the soft palate terminate?

A

at the uvula

550
Q

Which nerve travels through the incisive canal?

A

nasopalatine nerve

551
Q

What bones make up the roof of the nasal cavity?

A
  • nasal
  • frontal
  • ethmoid
  • sphenoid
552
Q

What bones make up the floor of the nasal cavity?

A
  • palatine bones (palatine process of maxilla and horizontal plate of palatine bones)
553
Q

What structures make up the medial wall of the nasal cavity?

A
  • septal cartilage
  • ethmoid
  • vomer
554
Q

What is the function of the nasal cavity?

A

it is the entrance to the airway, its role is to warm and humidify the air

555
Q

The majority of the nasal cavity is lined with what type of epithelium?

A

respiratory epithelium

556
Q

What type of epithelium is respiratory epithelium?

A

pseudostratified columnar ciliated epithelium

557
Q

A small part of the nasal cavity is lined with what type of epithelium?

A

keratinised stratified squamous epithelium

558
Q

What part of the nasal cavity is there keratinised stratified squamous epithelium?

A

the opening of the nasal cavity, nostrils

559
Q

What is the line highlighted marking?

A

where keratinised stratified squamous epithelium becomes respiratory epithelium

560
Q

On the lateral wall, there are 4 channels for air, what are they?

A
  1. superior nasal meatus - under the superior concha
  2. middle nasal meatus - under the middle concha
  3. inferior nasal meatus - under the inferior concha
  4. spheno-ethnmoidal recess - above the superior concha
561
Q

What are the names of the 4 paranasal sinuses on each side?

A
  • frontal
  • ethmoid
  • maxillary
  • sphenoid
562
Q

What type of epithelium are the 4 paranasal sinuses lined with?

A

respiratory epithelium

563
Q

Which cranial nerve are the paranasal sinuses innervated by?

A

trigeminal nerve

564
Q

Which paranasal sinus is the last to form?

A

frontal

565
Q

What type of paranasal sinus is being described?

  • lie above the orbit within the frontal bone
  • last sinus to pneumatise (means to form, bone gets replaced with empty space)
A

frontal

566
Q

The drainage process of which paranasal sinus is being described?
- drains into the lateral wall of the middle meatus via the frontonasal duct that continues down the ethmoidal infundibulum and the hiatus semilunaris and down the oesophagus

A

frontal sinus

567
Q

Which nerve innervates the frontal sinus?

A

supraorbital nerve (branch of V1 ophthalmic)

568
Q

What type of paranasal sinus is being described?

  • lies in ethmoid bone
  • made up of 3-18 irregularly shaped air cells
  • give the bone a honeycomb appearance
  • can be subdivided into anterior, middle and posterior
A

ethmoid

569
Q

The drainage process of which paranasal sinus is being described?

  • anterior cells open into the frontonasal duct - middle meatus
  • middle cells open onto the ethmoidal bulla - middle meatus
  • posterior cells open onto the lateral wall of the superior meatus
A

ethmoid

570
Q

What is being described?

  • forms the posterior and superior walls of the ethmoid infundibulum and hiatus semilunaris.
  • is the largest anterior ethmoid air cell. It is also one of the most consistent air cells in the middle meatus
A

ethmoidal bulla

571
Q

What type of paranasal sinus is being described?

  • posterior to nasal cavity
  • sphenoid bone holds the pituitary gland behind the sinus
A

sphenoid

572
Q

the drainage process of what paranasal sinus is being described?
- drains into the spheno-ethmoidal recess

A

sphenoid

573
Q

What nerves supply innervation to the sphenoid and ethmoidal sinuses?

A

anterior and posterior ethmoidal nerve, branch of nasociliary

574
Q

Which paranasal sinus is being described?

  • inferior to the nasal cavity
  • largest of the sinuses
  • contains the superior alveolar nerves
A

maxillary

575
Q

The drainage process of which paranasal sinus is being described?
- drains into the middle meatus

A

maxillary

576
Q

Which nerve supplies innervation to the maxillary sinus?

A

superior alveolar nerve

577
Q

What are the 3 main functions of the sinuses?

A
  1. reduce weight
  2. equalise pressure
  3. mucous production to trap pathogens
578
Q

What sinus is most commonly infected and why?

A

maxillary - due to drainage system not making sense - opening at the top

579
Q

What is a blowout fracture and what happens?

A

Refers to fractures around the orbit, but most commonly an inferior fracture of the maxilla (the floor) making the eyes sink into the maxillary sinus

580
Q

What are the 3 layers the eye can be divided into?

A

fibrous
vascular
inner

581
Q

What part of the eye is responsible for focusing light rays into the retina?

A

the lens

582
Q

What does the fibrous layer of the eye consist of?

A

sclera

cornea

583
Q

What does the vascular layer of the eye consist of?

A

ciliary body
choroid
iris

584
Q

What does the inner layer of the eye consist of?

A

neural layer/retina

585
Q

What part of the eye is being described?

white of the eye, supporting wall of the eyeball, helps maintain the eye shape and protects it from injury

A

sclera

586
Q

What part of the eye is being described?

clear part of the eye, the outer covering

A

cornea

587
Q

What part of the eye is being described?

moves the lens of the eye, extension of the iris

A

ciliary body

588
Q

What part of the eye is being described?

focuses light rays into the retina

A

lens

589
Q

What part of the eye is being described?

vascular layer of tissue that surrounds the eye

A

choroid

590
Q

What part of the eye is being described?

coloured part of the eye, muscular part that moves

A

iris

591
Q

What part of the eye is being described?

picks up the image coming in via light, transfers to the optic nerve to the brain

A

retina

592
Q

What are the 3 fluid filled chambers of the eye?

A

anterior
posterior
vitreous

593
Q

What muscle is responsible for dilating the pupil?

A

dilator pupillae muscle

594
Q

What muscle is responsible for constricting the pupil?

A

sphincter pupillae muscle

595
Q

Which cranial nerve innervates sphincter papillae muscle?

A

oculomotor

596
Q

What is responsible for controlling the dilator pupillae muscle?

A

sympathetic nervous system

597
Q

What is the term used for the blind spot of the eye and also where the main artery and nerve enters the eye?

A

the optic disc

598
Q

What is the term used for the point of clearest vision and focus in the eye?

A

macula and fovea

599
Q

What does the eye muscle superior rectus do?

A

makes the eye look up

600
Q

What does the eye muscle inferior rectus do?

A

makes the eye look down

601
Q

What does the eye muscle medial rectus do?

A

makes the eye look into the midline

602
Q

What does the eye muscle lateral rectus do?

A

makes the eye look out

603
Q

What does the eye muscle levator palpebrae superioris do?

A

opens the eye, attaches to the skin of the eyelid

604
Q

What does the eye muscle superior oblique do?

A

rotates the eye, extorsion, also looks up and out

605
Q

What does the eye muscle inferior oblique do?

A

rotates the eye, intorsion, also looks down and out

606
Q

What cranial nerve innervates the following eye muscles?

  • levator palpebrae superioris
  • superior rectus
  • inferior rectus
  • medial rectus
  • inferior oblique
A

oculomotor

607
Q

What cranial nerve innervates the following eye muscle?

- superior oblique

A

trochlear

608
Q

What cranial nerve innervates the following eye muscle?

- lateral rectus

A

abducens

609
Q

What is the term used for infection of the outer ear?

A

otitis externus

610
Q

What is the anatomical reason for children getting a lot of ear infections?

A

due to the pharyngotympanic tube in children being shorter and at a more horizontal position therefore not being able to drain as easily

611
Q

When a severe middle ear infection is left in a child and erodes through bone, what illness can then develop?

A

meningitis

612
Q

A patient with bells palsy will also suffer from an intolerance to loud noises. Why is this?

A

Due to the stapedius muscle which dampens loud noises being innervated by the facial nerve

613
Q

Round window is the membrane that connects the middle ear with the lower half of the cochlea. What is its function?

A

its function is to aid fluid motion within the cochlea and serve to equalize the hydraulic pressure. To avoid pressure build up

614
Q

What is the function of the vestibular system in the ear?

A

provides the sense of balance and information about body position which allows compensatory movements

615
Q

Which cranial nerve supplies innervation to the vestibular system?

A

vestibulocochlear nerve

616
Q

What is the function of the utricle and saccule in the ear?

A

important role in orientation and balance

617
Q

Which nerve innervates the utricle and saccule of the ear?

A

superior vestibular nerve

618
Q

Which cranial nerve is responsible for hearing?

A

vestibulocochlear nerve

619
Q

Which cranial nerve is responsible for sight?

A

optic nerve

620
Q

The causation of which illness is being described? arises because of asymmetry in the vestibular system due to damage to or dysfunction of the labyrinth, vestibular nerve, or central vestibular structures in the brainstem or cerebellum

A

vertigo

621
Q

What structure is being described?
passageway leading from the oral and nasal cavities in the head to the oesophagus. serves both respiratory and digestive functions

A

pharynx

622
Q

What are the 3 parts the pharynx can be divided into?

A

nasopharynx - upper
oropharynx - middle
laryngopharynx - lower

623
Q

Which vertebral level does the pharynx start?

A

C0 / base of skull

624
Q

Which vertebral level does the pharynx stop and become the oesophagus?

A

C6

625
Q

What epithelium lines the nasopharynx?

A

respiratory epithelium

626
Q

What epithelium lines the oropharynx?

A

stratified squamous epithelium

627
Q

What epithelium lines the laryngopharynx?

A

stratified squamous epithelium

628
Q

What is the purpose of constrictor muscles in the pharynx?

A

to constrict and dilate the pharynx to push food down

629
Q

What is being described?
the involuntary constriction and relaxation of the muscles of the pharynx, creating wave-like movements that push the contents of the canal forward

A

peristalsis

630
Q

What is the purpose of longitudinal muscles in the pharynx?

A

to shorten and elevate the pharynx, making it more efficient for swallowing

631
Q

Are the following muscles of the pharynx constrictors or longitudinal muscles?
superior constrictor
middle constrictor
inferior constrictor

A

constrictors

632
Q

Are the following muscles of the pharynx constrictors or longitudinal?
stylopharyngeus
salpingopharyngeus
palatopharyngeus

A

longitudinal

633
Q

What is being described?
also known as the pterygomandibular ligament, is a fibrous band of the buccopharyngeal fascia extending from the hamulus of the medial pterygoid plate to the mylohyoid ridge of the mandible

A

pterygomandibular raphe

634
Q

What is being described?
the common meeting point of the superior pharyngeal constrictor muscle and the buccinator muscle. It holds them together, forming part of the mouth.

A

pterygomandibular raphe

635
Q

What 2 muscles does the pterygomandibular raphe divide?

A

superior constrictor from the buccinator

landmark to indicate end of the oral cavity muscle and start of the pharyngeal muscle

636
Q

Which muscle of the pharynx comes from the soft palate to the pharynx?

A

palatopharyngeus

637
Q

Which muscle of the pharynx comes from the styloid process to the pharynx?

A

stylopharyngeus

638
Q

Which muscle of the pharynx comes from the pharyngotympanic tube to the pharynx?

A

salpingopharyngeus

639
Q

What is the primary function of the longitudinal muscles of the pharynx?

A

elevate the pharynx for swallowing

640
Q

Which nerve innervates the stylopharyngeus muscle of the pharynx?

A

glossopharyngeal nerve

641
Q

Which nerve innervates the nasopharynx?

A

trigeminal

642
Q

Which nerve innervates the oropharynx?

A

glossopharyngeal

643
Q

Which nerve innervates the laryngopharynx?

A

vagus

644
Q

Which nerve supplies motor innervation to all muscles of the pharynx apart from the stylopharyngeus?

A

vagus nerve

645
Q

What are the 3 phases of swallowing?

A

oral phase
pharyngeal phase
oesophageal phase

646
Q

Out of the 3 phases of swallowing; oral, pharyngeal and oesophageal, what is the only phase that is voluntary?

A

oral phase

647
Q

What nerve innervates sensory of swallowing/gag reflex?

A

glossopharyngeal

648
Q

What nerve innervates motor of swallowing/gag reflex?

A

vagus

649
Q

What structure is being described?

part of the upper respiratory tract, continuous inferiorly with trachea, anterior to laryngopharynx

A

larynx

650
Q

The function of what structure is being described?

involved in sound production, respiration, prevents foreign bodies entering the lungs

A

larynx

651
Q

What structure is being described?

  • connects middle ear to nasopharynx
  • bony 1/3 and cartilaginous 2/3
  • posterior to ovale and spinosum
  • equalises pressure
  • drainage
A

pharyngotympanic tube

652
Q

The larynx is composed of 3 unpaired and 3 paired cartilages.
What are the 3 paired cartilages?

A

thyroid
cricoid
epiglottis

653
Q

The larynx is composed of 3 paired and 3 unpaired cartilages. What are the 3 unpaired cartilages?

A

arytenoid
corniculate
cuneiform

654
Q

What type of cartilage in the larynx is being described?

  • largest unpaired laryngeal cartilage
  • fuse anteriorly at laryngeal prominence
  • oblique line: attachment of extrinsic muscles of the larynx
A

thyroid

655
Q

What type of cartilage in the larynx is being described?

  • most inferior unpaired cartilage
  • superior articulation with arytenoid
A

cricoid

656
Q

What type of cartilage in the larynx is being described?

  • thyroid cartilage anteriorly
  • arytenoid cartilages laterally
A

epiglottis

657
Q

What type of cartilage in the larynx is being described?

  • sit on superior aspect of cricoid cartilage
    base: articulates with cricoid cartilage
    apex: supports aryepiglottic fold
  • has 2 processes: vocal and muscular
A

arytenoids

658
Q

What is the only muscle which opens the vocal chords?

A

posterior cricoarytenoid

659
Q

Damage to what muscle of the larynx can cause obstruction of the airway, wheezing?

A

posterior cricoarytenoid

660
Q

Damage to what nerve of the larynx can cause difficulty talking, breathing?

A

recurrent laryngeal nerve (brach of vagus)

661
Q

What nerve provides innervation to the larynx?

A

vagus nerve

662
Q

Which membrane lies between the hyoid and thyroid?

A

thryohyoid membrane

663
Q

Which nerve provides motor innervation to the cricothyroid muscle of the larynx?

A

external laryngeal nerve

664
Q

Which branch of the vagus nerve supplies motor innervation to the larynx?

A

recurrent laryngeal nerve

665
Q

Which branches of the vagus nerve supplies sensory innervation to the larynx?

A

above vocal chords - internal laryngeal nerve

below vocal chords - recurrent laryngeal nerve

666
Q

What movement do the fibres of the upper trapezius muscle do?

A

elevate the scapula (shoulder blade)

667
Q

What movement do the middle fibres of the trapezius muscle do?

A

retract the scapula (shoulder blade)

668
Q

What movement do the lower fibres of the trapezius muscle do?

A

depress the scapula (shoulder blades)

669
Q

What nerve supplies motor to the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles?

A

accessory nerve

670
Q

What movements does the sternocleidomastoid do?

A

turns the head to either side
right muscle turns the head to the left
left muscle turns the head to the right

671
Q

Name the muscle shown

A

sternocleidomastoid

672
Q

What is a method to test the sternocleidomastoid muscle and the accessory nerve (CN 11)?

A

put hand on their chin and ask them to turn their head against resistance

673
Q

What is a method to test the trapezius muscle and the accessory nerve (CN11)?

A

shrug shoulders

674
Q

What are the 4 suprahyoid muscles?

A

stylohyoid
digastric
mylohyoid
geniohyoid

675
Q

What are the 4 infrahyoid muscles?

A

omohyoid
sternohyoid
sternothyroid
thyrohyoid

676
Q

What is meant by the term ‘raphe’?

A

the seamlike union of the two lateral halves of a part or organ

677
Q

What movements do the suprahyoid muscles contribute to?

A

depress the mandible

elevate the hyoid bone

678
Q

What movements do the infrahyoid muscles contribute to? (apart from the sternothyroid muscle)

A

depress the hyoid bone

679
Q

What movements does the sternothyroid muscles contribute to?

A

depresses thyroid cartilage to help move the larynx down

680
Q

What movements does the thyrohyoid muscles contribute to?

A

elevates the thyroid cartilage and the larynx

681
Q

What are the 4 anterior triangles of the neck?

A
  1. submental
  2. submandibular
  3. carotid
  4. muscular
682
Q

What are the 2 posterior triangles of the neck?

A
  1. occipital

2. supraclavicular

683
Q

Name the muscle A

A

digastric anterior and posterior belly

684
Q

Name the muscle A

A

omohyoid muscle

685
Q

What muscle splits the anterior from the posterior triangles of the neck?

A

sternocleidomastoid muscle

686
Q

How many cervical vertebrae are there?

A

7

687
Q

How many cervical nerves are there?

A

8

688
Q

Which 5 nerves supply sensory innervation to the neck?

A
lesser occipital
great auricular
transverse cervical
supraclavicular
greater occipital
689
Q

Which nerves supply motor innervation to the neck?

A

ansa cervicalis

690
Q

Where does the phrenic nerve supply sensory and motor innervation to?

A

diaphragm

691
Q

What nerve supplies the geniohyoid muscle?

A

C1 spinal

692
Q

What nerve supplies the mylohyoid and anterior digastric muscles?

A

V3 branch of trigeminal

693
Q

Which nerve supplies the posterior digastric and stylohyoid muscles?

A

facial nerve

694
Q

Which nerve supplies the thyrohyoid muscle?

A

C1 spinal

695
Q

Which nerve supplies the sternohyoid, sternothyroid and omohyoid muscles?

A

ansa cervicalis

696
Q

Which fascia of the neck is being described?

- encloses the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius, splits to enclose parotid

A

investing layer

697
Q

Which fascia is being described?

  • encloses the vascular region of the neck
  • runs from base of the skull to first rib
A

carotid sheath

698
Q

Which fascia is being described?

- encloses the visceral region of the neck (thyroid gland, oesophagus, pharynx, larynx)

A

pretracheal fascia

699
Q

Which fascia is being described?

- encloses vertebral region of the neck

A

prevertebral fascia

700
Q

What is being described?
thin casing of connective tissue that surrounds and holds every organ, blood vessel, bone, nerve fiber and muscle in place. The tissue does more than provide internal structure;

A

fascia

701
Q

What are the 2 ligaments that strengthen the TMJ and limit movement to prevent sliding too far forward and reduce injury?

A

sphenomandibular and stylomandibular ligament

702
Q

The TMJ is a joint between which 2 bones?

A

temporal and mandible

703
Q

What type of tissue attaches to the anterior and posterior crinoid processes of the sphenoid bone?

A

sheets of connective tissue that covers the cranial cavity and the hemispheres of the brain

704
Q

What bone does the optic chasm run through?

A

sphenoid bone

705
Q

What bony feature of the sphenoid bone is palpebral from the inside of the oral cavity?

A

the hamulus of the medial pterygoid plate

706
Q

What are the condyles of the occipital bone attachment for?

A

the first cervical vertebrae (Atlanto-occipital joint)

707
Q

What bony feature of the temporal bone is the inner ear, ear canal, vestibular system for balance and hearing held?

A

petrous part, due to its irregular shape to hold the above structures

708
Q

What bony feature of the temporal bone is the opening of the ear canal?

A

tympanic plate

709
Q

What bony feature is being described?

forms the superior articular part of the temporomandibular joint and lodges the condyle of mandible

A

mandibular fossa

710
Q

What is the defining line between the middle and posterior cranial fossae?

A

petrous portion of the temporal bone

711
Q

Which important artery runs through the pterion?

A

middle meningeal artery

712
Q

Impact to the pterion and therefore a rupture to the middle meningeal artery can cause a serious bleed called a …?

A

epidural haemorrhage which can be life threatening if not treated rapidly

713
Q

What structure is being described?
… sinuses are also paired sinuses known for their S-shape sinus found in the base of the cranial fossa posteriorly. Left and right … sinuses collectively drain venous blood into the internal jugular vein, which exits at the jugular foramen

A

sigmoid sinus

714
Q

Which cranial nerve runs through the cribriform plate?

A

olfactory

715
Q

What leaves base of the skull to the neck through foramen magnum?

A

spinal cord

716
Q

Obstruction to the jugular foramen due to tumours, trauma, infection etc. can result in dysphasia (problems swallowing), soft palate dropping, loss of sensory function from posterior 1/3 of the tongue etc. What is this syndrome called?

A

Vernets syndrome

717
Q

Where does the facial enter and exit the cranial cavity?

A

enters via internal acoustic meatus

exits via stylomastoid foramen

718
Q

Which gland does the facial nerve originate from before it branches off?

A

parotid gland

719
Q

What 3 main structures travel through the parotid gland?

A
  1. facial nerve and its 5 branches
  2. retromandibular vein
  3. external carotid artery
720
Q

What is the function of the articular tubercle of the TMJ?

A

limits movement to prevent mandible moving too far forward and dislocating

721
Q

What muscles form the ‘mandibular sling’ (a ring of muscle) around the mandible?

A

medial pterygoid muscle and the masseter muscle

722
Q

What artery supplies structures inside the cranial cavity?

A

internal carotid artery

723
Q

What artery supplies structures external of the cranial cavity?

A

external carotid artery

724
Q

Which branch of external carotid artery supplies muscles of mastication?

A

maxillary artery

725
Q

What are the 2 terminal branches of the external carotid artery?

A

superficial temporal and maxillary arteries

726
Q

The union of the superficial temporal vein and the maxillary vein, descending from the parotid gland also with the facial nerve is called the…?

A

retromandibular vein

727
Q

What part of the brainstem is the motor and sensory root of trigeminal?

A

pons