H&N tumor biology and carcinogenesis Flashcards

1
Q

What are the five basic phases of the cell cycle,

and what occurs during each phase?

A

● Quiescent phase (G0): Resting state
● Gap 1 (G1): Preparation for cell division; increase in transcription/translation and ~ doubling of macromolecules
● Synthesis phase (S): Replication of chromosomes
● Gap 2 (G2): Continued cellular growth
● Mitosis phase (M): Chromosomes are separated, and two
daughter cells result

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2
Q

What is the term given to cells in permanent cell-

cycle arrest?

A

Senescent

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3
Q

What are the key checkpoints within the cell cycle?

A

● G1/S checkpoint (“restriction point”): Prevent entry into
S-phase, rate-limiting step
● Intra-S phase checkpoint: Halt progression of S-phase if
damaged DNA is detected
● G2/M checkpoint: Prevent entry into M phase
● M checkpoint: Ensure correct replication of DNA and avoid
mitotic exit if errors exist

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4
Q

If a lesion (i.e., partially replicated DNA, strand
breaks, or other errors) is identified at a check-
point, what processes can be activated?

A

● Recruitment of DNA repair effector complexes
● Temporary cell-cycle arrest, which can lead to senescence
or apoptosis, depending on the cell and the lesion

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5
Q

What key tumor suppressor protein controls pro-

gression through the G1/S checkpoint (restriction point) and the G2/M checkpoint?

A

p53 (activates p21 → inhibits cyclin and cyclin-dependent

kinase (Cdk) complexes)

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6
Q

What two key classes of molecules regulate a cell’s

progress through the cell cycle?

A

● Cdks: Catalytic subunit; require cyclin for activation; result
in phosphorylation (activates/inactivates molecules nec-
essary for progression through the cell cycle)
● Cyclins: Regulatory subunit that activates Cdk molecules
when bound to form a heterodimer

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7
Q

Although more than 15 Cdks have been identified,
four have key biologic functions within the cell
cycle. What are they, and what do they do?

A

● Cdk 1: Controls G2 phase and M phase (prophase) →
Cyclin A dependent
● Cdk 2: Controls G1 to S transition and S phase → cyclin E
(and A) dependent
● Cdk 4: G0 to G1 transition → cyclin D dependent
● Cdk 6: G0 to G1 transition → cyclin D dependent

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8
Q

Specific families of activators and inhibitors regulate functional activities of the Cdk com-
plexes. Identify the primary activators and inhibitors.

A

● Activators: Cdk-activating kinase (CAK) and Cdc-25
● Inhibitors: Cdk inhibitors (CKI) → Inhibitor of kinase 4
(INK4a), Cdk Interacting protein/kinase inhibitory protein
(Cip/Kip)

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9
Q

What type of gene helps to control cell growth or

progression through the cell cycle?

A

Tumor suppressor gene (also called antioncogenes)

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10
Q

What type of gene promotes cell growth and

progression through the cell cycle?

A

Proto-oncogenes. Once a proto-oncogene is mutated, it is

known as an oncogene.

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11
Q

The classic retinoblastoma tumor suppressor protein (pRb) functions to inhibit what key transcription factors, effectively preventing formation of cell cycle–related proteins and arresting the cell
in G0 phase?

A

E2F factors

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12
Q
Phosphorylation of pRb by what important cyclin-
Cdk complex(es) results in dissociation of pRb from E2F and subsequent entrance into the cell cycle?
A

Cyclin D-Cdk4 and cyclin D-Cdk6

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13
Q

Release of E2F from pRb inhibition results in the
transcription of multiple genes necessary for the
function of the cell cycle. Transcription of what key cyclin protein results in activation of Cdk2, progression from G1 to S phase, additional pRb inactivation, and p27 degradation?

A

Cyclin E

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14
Q

What genes are considered members of the Cip/
Kip family of tumor suppressor genes, and in what
phase of the cell cycle do they inhibit cyclin-Cdk
complexes?

A

● p21, p27, and p57

● G1 phase

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15
Q

DNA damage results in activation of what key tumor-
suppressor gene and proapoptotic factor, which in turn activates p21 (a Cip/Kip Cdk complex inhibitor)
and results in arrest of the cell cycle in G1 phase?

A

p53

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16
Q

Transforming growth factor-β is a growth inhibitor,
which results in activation of which INK4 tumor
suppressor gene causing subsequent cell-cycle
arrest in G1 phase?

A

p27

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17
Q

What genes are considered members of the INK4a
family of tumor-suppressor genes, and in what
phase of the cell cycle do they inhibit cyclin-Cdk
complexes?

A

● p16 and p19

● G1 phase

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18
Q

Name the tumor suppressor gene that is a
member of the INK4a family that prevents p53
degradation and therefore results in cell-cycle
arrest at the G1-checkpoint.

A

p19

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19
Q

Name the tumor suppressor gene that is a member of the INK4a family that inhibits cyclin D-Cdk4/6 complexes and therefore results cell cycle arrest during the G1 phase.

A

p16

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20
Q

What important enzymes function to dephos-

phorylate the targets of cyclin-Cdk complexes, such as pRb?

A

PP1 and PP2A (phosphatases)

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21
Q

To promote an orderly progression through the
cell cycle, cyclin-Cdk complexes must be degraded
to allow the next phase of the cell cycle to
progress uninterrupted. For example, S-phase
complexes cannot be active during M phase and so forth. What important enzymatic process selectively targets these complexes for degradation?

A

Ubiquitin-dependent protein degradation (ubiquitylation)

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22
Q

The phases G1, S, and G2 are collectively referred

to as what?

A

Interphase

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23
Q

What are the five stages of mitosis (M phase)?

A

● Prophase: Preparatory; cyclin A-Cdk1 active; condensation
of chromatin, polarization of centrosomes, and initiation
of mitotic spindle formation
● Prometaphase: Nuclear envelope breaks down, mitotic
spindle microtubules attach to chromosomes
● Metaphase: Alignment of chromosomes at metaphase
plate
● Anaphase: Separation of sister chromatids
● Telophase: Cytoplasmic division (cytokinesis) into two
daughter cells; chromatid decondensation (expansion)

24
Q

Describe the “two-hit” hypothesis (Knudson,

1971) for carcinogenesis.

A

Loss of two alleles for a tumor-suppressor gene is necessary
to result in loss of function and tumorigenesis. This
hypothesis is not applicable to proto-oncogenes and
dominant negative tumor suppressor genes (e.g., p53).

25
In an effort to understand carcinogenesis, Fearon and Vogelstein (Cell, 1990) presented a model of tumor progression that involved which three hypotheses?
● Inactivation of tumor suppressor genes or activation of proto-oncogenes results in the formation of cancer. ● A series of defined genetic events lead to the develop- ment of cancer. ● This linear progression may vary, but ultimately it is the accumulation of genetic events that results in the development of a malignant phenotype.
26
What is the estimated average of time required for the accumulation of enough genetic alterations to produce traditional head and neck squamous cell carcinoma (Renan, 1993)?
20 to 25 years
27
Carcinogenesis models describe a linear progres- sion from precancerous lesions to overtly malignant tumors. Describe the steps involved for each of the following models: 1. Genetic progression model for head and neck cancer 2. Multistep carcinogenesis
1. Hyperplasia → dysplasia (mild, moderate, severe) → carcinoma in situ → invasive carcinoma 2. Initiation → promotion → progression
28
In upper aerodigestive tract tumors, what term describes the histopathologic changes seen in mucosa surrounding invasive carcinoma and result in an increased incidence of second primary tumors?
Field cancerization (Slaughter, 1953)
29
What hypotheses focusing on the clonal abnor- | mality required for tumor growth have been put forth to explain field cancerization?
● Abnormal, and genetically unique, clones form inde- pendently at multiple sites due to exposure to similar environmental carcinogens. ● A single tumoral clone forms and subsequently migrates via lateral movement through the mucosa (shown in several studies to be accurate).
30
``` What are the two predominant environmental carcinogens that have been associated with head and neck cancer, show a dose response, and can function synergistically? ```
● Tobacco | ● Alcohol
31
Why might alcohol, in particular, function as a synergistic carcinogen with other environmental carcinogens?
``` It may decrease the effectiveness of both local and systemic detoxification enzymes (e.g., cytochrome P450 system). ```
32
Does cessation of smoking and alcohol consumption reduce the risk of head and neck cancer development? If so, how long does it take for the risk to reach the level of never-smokers?
Yes. Some studies have shown 20 years or longer.
33
How does diet impact the development of cancer | of the upper aerodigestive tract?
A high intake of fruits and vegetables and low intake of red meat or processed meats has been associated with a decreased risk of head and neck cancer (INHANCE Consortium, 2012).
34
Describe the cell-cycle dysregulation that is commonly seen in patients with environmentally related head and neck cancer.
(Posner, Goldman’s Cecil Medicine, 24th ed., Chp196) ● Loss of p16 (normally inhibits cyclin D) ● Upregulation of cyclin D ● Loss of p53 (normally inhibits cell cycle progression and promotes apoptosis) ● Upregulation of EGFR (enhances mitogenic signaling) ● Upregulation of COX-2 (increased angiogenesis, de- creased apoptosis) ● Increased chromosomal instability (increased aneuploidy)
35
What genetic conditions are related to an in- | creased risk of head and neck cancer?
● Fanconi anemia (AR; DNA repair gene mutation) ● Cowden syndrome (AD: PTEN hematoma tumor syndro- me; PTEN is a tumor suppressor gene) ● Mutations in the cytochrome P450 enzymes (CYP1A1 mutations in Asian populations)
36
What circular, double-stranded DNA virus com- monly infects the basal layer of cutaneous of mucosal squamous epithelium and is spread by sexual contact?
Human papilloma virus (HPV)
37
What two HPV strains are considered “low-risk” for the development of cancer and are frequently associated with papillomas and warts?
HPV 6 and 11
38
What two HPV strains are considered “high-risk” for the development of cancer and have been associated with cervical, anogenital, and head and neck (predominantly oropharyngeal) carcinomas?
HPV 16* and 18 | *90% of HPV(+) head and neck carcinomas
39
The HPV DNA encodes nine open reading frames (genes) on a single strand of its double-stranded circular DNA. Seven of these are considered early phase genes (E), and two are considered late- phase genes (L). What are the general functions of the E and L genes, respectively?
● E genes: Regulate the transcription viral DNA | ● L genes: Encode capsid proteins involved in viral spread
40
Name the two viral onco-proteins in HPV-related tumorigenesis, and identify the two genes, that control the transcription of these viral proteins.
● E6/E7: Onco-genes | ● E1/E2: Transcriptional regulators
41
When HPV DNA integrates into host DNA, the process can result in deletion or loss of function of the E1 and E2 viral genes. This in turn results in what?
Loss of regulation of E6 and E7and subsequent increased | transcription of these viral genes
42
What HPV protein functions to inhibit the function of p53 by targeting it for ubiquitin-dependent degradation? What is the result?
● E6 ● Progression through G1 checkpoint and inhibition of apoptosis
43
What HPV protein phosphorylates pRb and thus targets it for ubiquitin-dependent degradation? What is the primary result?
● E7 ● Release of pRb inhibition of E2F, activation of cell cycle- related transcription, progression through the G1 check- point
44
In addition to E2F-related transcription, the degradation of p53 results in over expression of what important protein? What impact does this have on cell-cycle progression?
● p16 ● Normally inhibits Cdk4/6, but with the los of p53 and pRb, does not meaningfully result in cell cycle control. Can be used as a biomarker of HPV activity.
45
In addition to HPV, what viruses have been | associated with head and neck cancer?
● Epstein-barr virus (EBV): Nasopharyngeal carcinoma ● Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV): Increased risk of head and neck cancers ● Merkel cell polyomavirus: Merkel cell carcinoma ● Human T-lymphotrophic virus (HTLV-1): Human T-Cell lymphoma/leukemia ● Kaposi sarcoma associated herpesvirus (KSHV): Kaposi sarcoma
46
Whereas the epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR) is normally expressed in the epithelium of several organ systems (dermis, gastrointestinal tract, kidney), it has been found to be dysfunc- tional in what percentage of head and neck (squamous cell) cancers?
80 to 90%
47
EGFR is a transmembrane glycoprotein that, when activated by binding an extracellular ligand, results in dimerization, tyrosine kinase activation, and a complex downstream pathway that ultimately results in what major outcomes?
``` ● Cellular growth and proliferation ● Apoptosis ● Angiogenesis ● Invasion ● Metastasis ```
48
How does EGFR expression relate to prognosis in | head and neck squamous cell carcinoma?
Increased expression and amplification are related to decreased recurrence-free survival and cancer-specific survival rates.
49
What strategies have been used to target aberrant signaling in head and neck squamous cell carcinoma based on a better understanding of EGFR signaling?
● Tyrosine kinase inhibitors (geftinib) ● Monoclonal antibodies inhibiting dimerization (cetuxi- mab) ● Antisense oligodeoxynucleotide or small interfering mRNA inhibition of mRNA expression
50
What immune cell is primarily responsible for identifying normal cells that have been altered by viral or tumor activity? What is the general function of these cells in patients with head and neck cancer?
T cells Decreased: T cells demonstrate increased apoptosis, decreased recruitment from the thymus, and poor proliferation. Overall immunosuppression
51
What important normal immune system function is designed to prevent the recognition of “self” through processes such as anergy, suppression, and ignorance, which makes stimulating the immune system to target self-derived tumor cells challenging?
Tolerance
52
What cell-based therapeutic model has been studied in head and neck cancer with promising (although early) results that focuses on using the immune system to target cancer cells specifically?
Immunotherapy focused on manipulation of the following: ● Cell signaling (i.e., cytokines such as interleukin-2) ● Vaccination (i.e., Gardasil, whole-cell vaccines, dendritic- cell vaccines, etc.) ● T cells, dendritic cells, or antibodies
53
What type of therapy has the potential to prevent head and neck cancer from occurring, recurring, or progressing?
Chemoprevention
54
What prominent chemopreventive agents have | been studied for use in patients with head and neck cancer?
``` ● Retinoids and vitamin A (betacarotene) ● COX-2 inhibitors ● Aspirin ● Selenium ● Vitamin D ● Interpheron-α2a ● α-tocopherol (Vitamin E) Many others are being studied. There is great controversy surrounding most of these agents as studies have demonstrated conflicting results. ```
55
What chemopreventive effects are retinoids purported to have on head and neck cancer?
They can retard progression of premalignant oral lesions (leukoplakia and erythroplakia) and have also been asso- ciated with lower rates of second primary tumors. Subsequent studies have called these results into question.
56
True or False. The risk of head and neck cancer | increases in the setting of vitamin A toxicity.
False. The risk increases with vitamin A deficiency.
57
What inflammatory mediator is elevated in head | and neck cancer cells?
Prostaglandins as a result of the upregulation of COX-1 and -2