H&N Evaluation and management of laryngeal cancer Flashcards

1
Q

What patient demographic is at highest risk for

laryngeal cancer?

A

● Males (3.8:1)
● Associated with tobacco exposure
● Age younger than 40 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the strongest risk factors for laryngeal

carcinoma?

A

● Tobacco smoking (packs per day and years of use)

● Alcohol use (amount consumed and duration of use)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the role of laryngopharyngeal reflux in

laryngeal cancer?

A

Controversial. It is unclear whether it is an independent or

associated risk factor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What percentage of laryngeal cancers have been

associated with high-risk HPV (HPV 16 > HPV 18)?

A

~ 25%. Clinical significance is unclear.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are four primary premalignant laryngeal

lesions as defined by the WHO?

A

● Hyperplasia
● Keratosis
● Dysplasia: Mild, moderate, severe
● Carcinoma in situ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What significance does laryngeal leukoplakia have?

A

Leukoplakia means “white plaque” and without a biopsy

gives no information relevant to management.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the approximate rate of dysplasia in

laryngeal leukoplakia?

A

40%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the approximate rate of malignant trans-
formation of mild dysplasia? Severe dysplasia or

carcinoma in situ?

A

● 11%
● 30%
Note: It may take up to 10 years for malignant conversion
(average 3 years).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What percentage of laryngeal tumors are squamous cell carcinomas?

A

85 to 95%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

According to WHO, what are the possible subtypes

of squamous cell carcinoma found in the larynx?

A

● Verrucous
● Spindle cell carcinoma (also called sarcomatoid carcinoma, carcinosarcoma, pseudosarcoma)
● Adenoid (acantholytic) Basaloid squamous cell carcinoma
● Clear cell carcinoma
● Adenosquamous carcinoma
● Giant cell carcinoma
● Lymphoepithelial carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What laryngeal lesion is characterized by prolifer-
ation of the squamous mucosa, elongated rete

ridges that appear worrisome for carcinoma and
show no evidence of cytologic abnormalities
consistent with malignancy?

A

Pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia. It can be associated with
infection (e.g., tuberculosis, syphilis, blastomycosis), trauma,
granular cell tumor, and chronic irritation. It is easily mistaken
for squamous cell carcinoma and requires proper orientation
of specimens and periodic-acid Schiff stain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What pathology in the larynx is associated with
trauma and infarction of salivary gland tissue
(ducts and acini of seromucinous glands), is often
misdiagnosed as squamous cell carcinoma or
mucoepidermoid carcinoma, and requires immu-
nohistochemistry for diagnosis?

A

Necrotizing sialometaplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What subtype of squamous cell carcinoma results
in largely exophytic growth, pushing margins,
does not metastasize, is associated with HPV-16
and -18, and has an indolent course?

A

Verrucous carcinoma. It is the second most common site in

the head and neck (to oral cavity).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What epithelial laryngeal cancer contains both
basaloid and squamous components (biphasic),
cystic spaces, results in frequent regional and
distant metastases, occurs most commonly in the
supraglottis, and has a worse prognosis than
standard squamous cell carcinoma?

A

Basaloid squamous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What epithelial laryngeal cancer contains malignant squamous epithelium on its surface associated with a deeper malignant spindle cell
carcinoma (biphasic), is associated with tobacco
and alcohol use, results in common regional
metastases, and is relatively radioresistant?

A

Spindle cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the most common location for adenosquamous carcinoma, a biphasic tumor arising
from the basal layer of the epithelium and
demonstrating behavior more aggressive than
conventional squamous cell carcinoma, in the
upper aerodigestive tract?

A

Larynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the key pathologic difference between laryngeal verrucous carcinoma and papillary
squamous cell carcinoma, which demonstrates
exophytic papillary growth with cores of fibrovas-
cular stroma?

A

Significantly abnormal cytology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

According to the WHO, what are the possible
subtypes of malignant salivary gland tumors found
in the larynx, which make up less than 1% of all
laryngeal tumors?

A
● Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
● Adenoid cystic carcinoma
● Adenocarcinoma
● Acinic cell carcinoma
● Carcinoma ex-pleomorphic adenoma
● Epithelial-myoepithelial cell carcinoma
● Salivary duct carcinoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the cells of origin for supraglottic

adenocarcinoma?

A

Minor salivary glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Are salivary gland carcinomas of the larynx more

common in men or women?

A

Men (2:1). However, adenoid cystic carcinoma has no

gender bias.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the two most common laryngeal

malignant salivary gland cancers?

A

Mucoepidermoid carcinoma and adenoid cystic carcinoma,
constituting one-third of malignant laryngeal salivary gland
tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What laryngeal tumor is composed of squamous,

mucin-secreting, and intermediate-type cells and likely forms in the intercalated ducts of seromucinous glands?

A

Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What percentage of supraglottic cancers arising from minor salivary glands will be mucoepidermoid carcinoma on pathological analysis?

A

35%. They are less common than adenoid cystic (46%),

more common than adenocarcinoma (12%).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Adenoid cystic carcinoma is defined by uniform
basaloid cells that grow in what three distinct
patterns?

A

● Cribriform
● Tubular
● Solid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
According to the WHO, what are the possible subtypes of neuroendocrine tumors found in the larynx, which are the second most common tumors of the larynx next to squamous cell carcinoma?
● Atypical carcinoid tumor (54%) ● Small cell carcinoma (28%) ● Malignant paraganglioma (12%) ● (Typical) carcinoid tumor (7%)
26
What is the relative occurrence of supraglottic | neuroendocrine tumors in men and women?
They occur three times more commonly in women than in | men.
27
What is the 5-year survival rate for laryngeal | neuroendocrine carcinoma?
Although it is one of the most common extrapulmonary sites for neuroendocrine carcinoma, laryngeal neuroendocrine carcinoma is extremely rare. It is also most often lethal, with 2- and 5-year survival rates of 16% and 5%, respectively.
28
What subsite of the larynx is most commonly | involved by both typical and atypical carcinoid tumors, which present as submucosal and polypoid masses?
Supraglottis
29
To what unusual locations do atypical carcinoids | commonly metastasize?
Skin and subcutaneous tissue
30
What percentage of patients with laryngeal small | cell carcinoma will develop distant metastases?
90%
31
According to the WHO, what are the possible subtypes of malignant soft tissue tumors found in the larynx?
``` ● Fibrosarcoma ● Malignant fibrous histiocytoma ● Liposarcoma ● Leiomyosarcoma ● Rhabdomyosarcoma ● Angiosarcoma ● Kaposi sarcoma ● Malignant hemangiopericytoma ● Malignant nerve sheath tumor ● Alveolar soft part sarcoma ● Synovial sarcoma ● Ewing sarcoma ```
32
According to the WHO, what are the possible subtypes of malignant bone and cartilage tumors in the larynx?
● Chondrosarcoma (most common) | ● Osteosarcoma
33
What laryngeal tumors arise from ossified hyaline cartilage, most commonly from the cricoid cartilage?
Chondrosarcomas
34
What is the distant metastasis rate in laryngeal | chondrosarcoma?
8.5%
35
According to the WHO, what are the possible subtypes of malignant hematolymphoid tumors found in the larynx?
● Extramedullary plasmacytoma (most common) | ● Lymphoma
36
According to the WHO, what tumors most commonly metastasize from a distant site to the larynx?
``` ● Kidney ● Skin (melanoma) ● Breast ● Lung ● Prostate ● Gastrointestinal tract ```
37
What is the most common site of second | primaries in patients with larynx cancer?
Lung. Consider a pulmonary lesion a second primary tumor | until proven otherwise.
38
What are the clinical risk factors that may increase | the likelihood of stomal recurrence?
● Primary subglottic tumor ● Glottic tumor invading subglottis by > 1 cm ● T4 glottic primary tumor
39
What are the proposed causes of stomal recurrence after total laryngectomy for laryngeal cancer?
● Positive tracheal margin ● Paratracheal nodal metastases ● Thyroid gland invasion ● Seeding of the stoma at initial operation
40
What is the most common initial symptom | associated with supraglottic carcinoma?
Dysphagia. It can also manifest with dysphonia, odynophagia, otalgia, stridor, dyspnea, hemoptysis, and neck mass.
41
What is the most common initial symptom | associated with early versus late glottic carcinoma?
● Early disease: Dysphonia | ● Advanced disease: Stridor, dyspnea
42
What are the most common initial symptoms | associated with subglottic carcinoma?
Dyspnea and stridor
43
Patients with what symptoms may require urgent or emergent management of their laryngeal tumor?
Dyspnea and stridor
44
On endoscopy, which of the following lesions may be suspicious for a laryngeal carcinoma: ulceration, sessile lesion, polypoid lesion, submucosal fullness, or exophytic friable mass?
All should suggest possible malignant process.
45
What laryngoscopy adjunct should be used in the clinic to evaluate a patient in whom you are concerned about a laryngeal malignancy?
Flexible fiberoptic laryngoscopy and/or video stroboscopy
46
To evaluate a patient with laryngeal carcinoma for posterior invasion of the prevertebral fascia, you grasp the larynx and rock it back and forth. Inability to rock the larynx and lack of what sound/tactile feedback suggest invasion?
``` Laryngeal crepitus (movement of laryngopharyngeal framework across the prevertebral and vertebral structures) ```
47
What is the most commonly used imaging modality for the initial workup of laryngeal cancer?
CT with contrast using fine cuts through the larynx | ~ 1 mm
48
Which offers better evaluation of cartilage invasion: CT or MRI?
MRI
49
When using MRI for the evaluation of a patient with laryngeal cancer, what modality or sequences would be most useful to determine invasion of the preepiglottic and/or paraglottic spaces?
T1-weighted gadolinium enhanced MRI with fat suppres- | sion. High negative predictive value. False-positive results are caused by inflammation.
50
During direct endoscopic examination of the upper aerodigestive tract in the operating room for laryngeal cancer, what maneuver should be performed if there is concern for fixation of the larynx or immobility of a vocal cord?
Palpation of the laryngeal structures
51
Describe microflap excision for laryngeal biopsy.
Microflap surgery requires dissection of the superficial lamina propria as opposed to excision. This allows for sparing of the vocal ligament and affords a better postoperative mucosal wave.
52
Why is detection of recurrence after radiation | more difficult in laryngeal cancer?
Persistent edema and fibrosis are common post-treatment sequelae that obscure visualization of (often submucosal) tumor growth.
53
Although deep biopsies are often necessary to diagnose a recurrent laryngeal tumor after radiation therapy, what adverse outcomes are associated with biopsy in this setting?
Increased risk of infection, perichondritis, and chondroradionecrosis
54
Describe the “T” staging system for epithelial | supraglottic malignancies according to the AJCC.
● T1: Tumor limited to one supraglottic subsite, normal vocal cord mobility. ● T2: Tumor invasion of more than one subsite of the supraglottis or glottis or region outside the supraglottis (e.g., mucosa of base of tongue, vallecula, medial wall of pyriform sinus) without fixation of the larynx ● T3: Tumor limited to the larynx with vocal cord fixation and/or invades any of the following: postcricoid area, pre- epiglottic tissues, paraglottic space, and/or minor thyroid cartilage erosion (e.g., inner cortex). ● T4a: Moderately advanced local disease: tumor invades through the thyroid cartilage and/or invades tissue beyond the larynx (e.g., trachea, soft tissues of neck including deep extrinsic muscles of the tongue, strap muscles, thyroid, or esophagus). ● T4b: Very advanced local disease: Tumor invades pre- vertebral space, encases carotid artery, or invades mediastinal structures.
55
What differentiates T2 from T3 supraglottic | tumors?
T2 tumors do not invade the parilaryngeal spaces; T3 | tumors present with vocal cord fixation.
56
What differentiates T1 from T2 supraglottic | tumors?
● T1 tumors are limited to one subsite with normal vocal cord mobility. ● T2 tumors may involve multiple supraglottic subsites or adjacent regions (tongue base, glottis).
57
Describe the “T” staging system for epithelial | glottic malignancies according to the AJCC).
● T1: Tumor is limited to the vocal cord(s); may involve anterior or posterior commissure; normal vocal cord mobility. ● T1a: Tumor is limited to one vocal cord. ● T1b: Tumor involves both vocal cords. ● T2: Tumor extends to supraglottis and/or subglottis or with impaired vocal cord mobility (some authors divide T2 into T2a and T2b; see below). ● T3: Tumor is limited to the larynx with vocal cord fixation and/or invades the paraglottic space, and/or minor thyroid cartilage erosion (e.g., inner cortex). ● T4a: Moderately advanced local disease: Tumor invades through the thyroid cartilage and/or invades tissues beyond the larynx (e.g., trachea, soft tissues of neck including deep extrinsic muscle of the tongue, strap muscles, thyroid or esophagus). ● T4b: Very advanced local disease: Tumor invades pre- vertebral space, encases carotid artery, or invades mediastinal structures.
58
Although the AJCC, (7th edition) does not differentiate T2 into T2a and T2b, some authorities do. How are these stages defined?
Tumor extends to the supraglottis and/or subglottis: ● T2a: Without impaired vocal cord mobility ● T2b: With impaired vocal cord mobility
59
What is the rate of nodal metastases in T1 glottic | carcinoma?
5%
60
What differentiates T3 from T4 glottic tumors?
T3 tumors are confined to the larynx, whereas T4 have spread extralaryngeally (into strap musculature, thyroid gland, trachea, esophagus).
61
Describe the “T” staging system for epithelial | subglottic malignancies according to the AJCC.
● T1: Tumor is limited to the subglottics. ● T2: Tumor extends to vocal cord(s) with normal or impaired mobility. ● T3: Tumor is limited to the larynx with vocal cord fixation. ● T4a: Moderately advanced local disease. Tumor invades cricoid or thyroid cartilage and/or invades tissues beyond the larynx (e.g., trachea, soft tissues of the neck including deep extrinsic muscles of the tongue, strap muscles, thyroid or esophagus) ● T4b: Very advanced local disease: Tumor invades pre- vertebral space, encases carotid artery, or invades mediastinal structures.
62
Describe the stages of stomal recurrence after total laryngectomy for laryngeal cancer (Sisson, 1989).
● Stage I: Superior to the stoma, at 9 to 3 o’clock position. Normal swallowing and esophagoscopy ● Stage II: Above or below the stoma, 9 to 3 o’clock. Most have dysphagia and esophageal invasion. ● Stage III: Below the stoma, at 9 to 3 o’clock. Esophagus is always involved. High risk of upper mediastinal disease ● Stage IV: Lateral extension of the tumor under the clavicle, dysphagia, and esophageal invasion
63
What is the overall 5-year survival rate for | laryngeal cancer, and what subsite has the best overall survival?
● 64% | ● Glottic (79%) > supraglottic (47%) > subglottic (30 to 50%)
64
During the initial workup of a patient with laryngeal cancer, you identify cartilage invasion. How does this impact prognosis and manage- ment?
● Upstages tumor (T3 or T4a) ● Poorer response to radiation therapy ● Decreased local control rates ● Higher risk of chondroradionecrosis
65
What is the incidence of distant metastasis in | glottic carcinoma?
4%
66
What are the most important clinical prognostic | factors in order of importance?
● Clinical stage (most important to least: M > N > T) ● Location of the primary (best to worst: glottic > supra- glottic > subglottic)
67
``` Why does involvement of the anterior commissure decrease prognosis (local control rates) for both surgery and radiation therapy? ```
Inadequate recognition of deep extension
68
What factors increase the risk of peristomal | recurrence after laryngectomy for laryngeal cancer?
● T3 or T4 tumors | ● Subglottic tumor extension
69
What histologic characteristics decrease local | control and overall survival?
● Extracapsular spread* ● Positive surgical margins* ● Histologic subtype ● Histologic grade (well, moderate, poor) ● Pattern of invasion (pushing vs infiltrative) ● Perineural invasion* ● Vascular embolus (invasion)* *Considered adverse features impacting management decisions by the NCCN (2013)
70
In addition to primary oncologic management, what behavioral modifications should be recommended to maximize treatment benefit and decrease the risk of recurrence for premalignant and malignant laryngeal cancer?
● Tobacco and alcohol cessation | ● Reflux control
71
What is the wavelength and chromophore of the | CO2 laser?
● Wavelength: 10,600 nm | ● Chromophore: water
72
What is the wavelength and chromophore of the | potassium-titalyl-phosphate (KTP) laser?
● Wavelength: 532 nm | ● Chromophore: Oxyhemoglobin
73
``` What treatment modality makes use of photo- reactive chemicals (5-aminolevulinic acid, Photofrin, hematoporphyrin, foscan), which are preferentially absorbed by premalignant or malignant cells and then subsequently activated by light of a specific frequency? ```
Photodynamic therapy
74
What is the treatment of choice for premalignant | laryngeal lesions?
● Complete excision with pathologic analysis (microflap, vocal cord stripping; higher risk for poor voice outcomes, laser resection) ● Close follow-up ● Can consider laser ablation (pulsed dye laser or KTP) once pathologic diagnosis is established
75
What are the management options for carcinoma | in situ?
Complete surgical excision or radiation therapy. Note: Recurrence is higher after surgical excision than after radiation therapy, but local control is equivalent with repeat excision.
76
For a patient with significant airway obstruction from a laryngeal tumor, should you perform an emergent laryngectomy or tracheostomy?
High tracheostomy. No evidence has been established that tracheostomy increases the risk of peristomal recurrence, and emergent laryngectomy does not allow time for complete workup and counseling.
77
In the Veterans Affairs’ (VA) laryngeal cancer | study, what groups were compared?
● Induction chemotherapy and radiation for responders and surgery followed by postoperative radiation therapy for responders ● Surgery and postoperative radiation
78
What were the laryngeal preservation rates and overall survival figures in the VA laryngeal cancer study?
For patients with advanced resectable laryngeal cancer (stage III or IV, excluding T1N1), induction chemotherapy and radiation allow for laryngeal preservation in 64% of patients and a similar 2-year overall survival (68%) compared with total laryngectomy and postoperative radiation therapy.
79
What proportion of patients in the VA laryngeal cancer study preoperatively had mobile vocal cords? Cartilage invasion?
44% and 9%, respectively
80
In the RTOG 91–11 organ preservation in advanced laryngeal cancer study, what groups were compared?
● Concurrent cisplatin and radiation ● Induction cisplatin/5-FU followed by radiation therapy for complete and partial responders or surgery and adjuvant radiation therapy for non responders ● Radiation alone
81
What was the laryngeal preservation rate for concurrent chemoradiation, induction chemotherapy/radiation, and radiation alone in RTOG 91–11?
● CRT: 88% ● Induction chemotherapy/radiation + radiotherapy: 75% ● Radiotherapy alone: 70%
82
What was the grade 3/4 mucositis rate for concurrent chemoradiation, induction chemotherapy/radiation, and radiation alone in RTOG 91–11?
● CRT: 43% ● Induction chemotherapy + radiotherapy: 24% ● Radiotherapy: 24%
83
What patients with advanced laryngeal cancer | were excluded from RTOG 91–11?
Patients were excluded if they were not eligible for total laryngectomy with curative intent, T1 primary tumors, and large-volume T4 disease (transcartilaginous or > 1-cm tongue base invasion).
84
What are the contraindications to transoral re- | section of laryngeal carcinoma?
● Subglottic extension (> 5 mm) ● Postcricoid extension ● Pyriform sinus invasion ● Cartilage invasion ● Tongue base involvemen Note: Restricted vocal cord mobility and extension onto the arytenoid are relative contraindications.
85
What factors are critical to transoral resection of | laryngeal carcinoma?
Adequate exposure, accurate assessment of tumor extension, complete resection
86
Name the open conservation laryngeal procedure in which one vocal cord or one and a portion of the other vocal cord are removed in continuity with the adjacent paraglottic space and overlying thyroid cartilage.
Vertical partial laryngectomy. The vertical height of the larynx is maintained by the retained contralateral thyroid ala.
87
What contraindicates vertical partial laryngectomy?
● Cricoid cartilage involvement (1-cm subglottic extension anteriorly and 5 mm posteriorly) ● Thyroid cartilage involvement (often the case for trans- glottic tumors because mucosal spread from the supra- glottis to glottis across the ventricle brings tumor into close proximity to the inner thyroid perichondrium) ● Poor pulmonary function
88
Name the operation and its subtypes in which the entire superior portion of the thyroid cartilage is removed along with the underlying laryngeal structures, reducing the vertical height of the larynx by the subsequent reconstruction.
``` Horizontal partial laryngectomy: ● Supraglottic ● Extended supraglottic ● Supracricoid (with cricohyoidopexy or cricohyoiodoepi- glottopexy) ```
89
What is the embryologic rationale behind horizontal hemilaryngectomy?
An embryologic boundary exists between the false and true vocal folds, resulting in independent lymphatic drainage from each. Therefore, in select (T1/T2) supraglottic tumors that do not extend into neighboring structures, horizontal supraglottic hemilaryngectomy may be considered an oncologically sound resection strategy.
90
What are the contraindications for supracricoid | horizontal partial laryngectomy?
``` ● Arytenoid fixation ● Cricoid/thyroid cartilage involvement ● Hyoid involvement ● Significant pre-epiglottic space disease ● Poor pulmonary function ```
91
What patient factors are critical to conservation | laryngeal operations?
Excellent cardiopulmonary reserve and motivation to retain | larynx
92
What tumor factors contraindicate conservation | laryngeal surgery?
``` ● Cartilage invasion ● Extralaryngeal spread ● Interarytenoid involvement ● Postcricoid spread ● Invasion to pyriform apex ```
93
What factors reduce the efficacy of radiation in | laryngeal cancer?
● Cartilage invasion ● T4 stage ● Extralaryngeal spread
94
``` What site(s) are most commonly involved by distant metastases from the larynx? ```
Lung and mediastinum (not including level VII)
95
What subsite of the larynx has the highest risk for | distant metastasis?
Supraglottis (up to 15%)
96
What factors increase the risk of distant metastasis | for laryngeal cancer?
History of nodal metastasis
97
What is the management of choice for supra- glottic carcinoma not requiring a total laryngec- tomy (mostly cT1–2, N0) according to the NCCN (2011)?
● Endoscopic resection → neck dissection ● Open partial supraglottic laryngectomy → neck dissec- tion ● Definitive radiation therapy
98
For patients undergoing primary surgical man- agement of cT1–2N0 supraglottic carcinoma not requiring a total laryngectomy, what are the adjuvant treatment recommendations according to the NCCN (2011)?
● N0 → observation ● One positive node, no adverse features → consider radiation therapy ● N + , positive margin → re-excision, radiation therapy, or chemoradiation therapy ● N + , extracapsular spread → chemoradiation therapy or radiation alone
99
What is the treatment of choice for cT1–2N + and select cT3N1 supraglottic carcinomas not requir- ing a total laryngectomy according to the NCCN (2011)?
● Concurrent chemoradiation therapy with cisplatin (pre- ferred) → additional therapy dictated by response to therapy ● Definitive radiation therapy → additional therapy dictated by response to therapy ● Partial supraglottic laryngectomy and neck dissection(s) → adjuvant therapy as dictated by pathologic findings ● Induction chemotherapy
100
What is the treatment of choice for a cT3N0 supraglottic carcinoma requiring a total laryngec- tomy according to the NCCN (2011)?
● Concurrent chemoradiation therapy with cisplatin (pre- ferred) ● Laryngectomy, ipsilateral thyroidectomy, with ipsilateral or bilateral neck dissection ● Radiation therapy (if not a candidate for concurrent chemotherapy) ● Induction chemotherapy
101
For patients undergoing primary surgical man- agement of cT3N0 supraglottic carcinoma, what are the adjuvant treatment recommendations according to the NCCN (2011)?
● N0 or 1 positive node without adverse features → consider radiation therapy ● Extracapsular spread or positive margin → chemoradiation ● Other risk features → radiation therapy with or without chemotherapy
102
What is the management of choice for a cT3N2–3 supraglottic carcinoma requiring a total laryngec- tomy according to the NCCN (2011)?
● Concurrent chemoradiation therapy with cisplatin (pre- ferred) → surgical salvage based on response to therapy ● Laryngectomy, ipsilateral thyroidectomy with neck dis- section(s) → radiation therapy → chemotherapy based on the presence of pathologic adverse features ● Induction chemotherapy followed by chemoradiation therapy
103
What is the management of choice for a cT4aN0– 3 supraglottic carcinoma requiring according to the NCCN (2011)?
● Laryngectomy, ipsilateral thyroidectomy, with ipsilateral or bilateral neck dissection: ● N0, no risk features → radiation therapy ● Extracapsular spread and/or positive margin → hcemo- radiation therapy ● Other risk features → radiation therapy → chemotherapy ● Note: For those who decline surgery, concurrent chemo- radiation therapy, enrollment in a clinical trial, or induction chemotherapy followed by primary chemo- radiation therapy can be considered.
104
For patients undergoing primary induction che- motherapy for supraglottic carcinoma, what are the treatment recommendations based on response to induction according to the NCCN (2011)?
● Primary site: Complete response → radiation therapy with or without chemotherapy ● Primary site: Partial response → chemoradiation therapy → if partial response → salvage surgery ● Primary site < partial response → surgery → radiation therapy with or without chemotherapy based on presence of pathological adverse features
105
What dose of definitive radiation therapy is recommended by the NCCN (2011) for patients with T1–2N0 supraglottic squamous cell carcino- ma?
● ≥ 66 Gy
106
What dose of definitive radiation therapy is recommended by the NCCN (2011) for patients with T2–3N0–1 supraglottic squamous cell carcinoma?
● Primary and cN + ≥ 70 Gy, conventional fractionation (Monday through Friday for 7 weeks), high-risk nodal basins 44 to 64 Gy ● Accelerated fractionation: 66 to 74 Gy to gross disease, 44 to 64 Gy to high-risk regions for 6 weeks ● Concomitant boost accelerated radiation therapy: 72 Gy/ 6 weeks, second daily dose for the last 12 days ● Hyperfractionation: 81.6 Gy for 7 weeks
107
What dose of radiation therapy is recommended by the NCCN (2011) for patients undergoing concomitant chemoradiation therapy for supraglottic squamous cell carcinoma?
70 Gy for 7 weeks, conventional fractionation
108
What dose of radiation therapy is recommended by the NCCN (2011) for patients undergoing postoperative radiation therapy for supraglottic squamous cell carcinoma?
● Primary 60 to 66 Gy, conventional fractionation (Monday through Friday for 7 weeks), high-risk nodal basins 44 to 64 Gy ● N + neck: 60 to 66 Gy ● N0, high-risk neck: 44 to 64 Gy
109
What chemotherapeutic agent and dose are recommended by the NCCN (2011) for patients undergoing concomitant chemoradiation therapy for supraglottic squamous cell carcinoma?
Cisplatin 100 mg/m2 every 3 weeks during radiation
110
What levels of the neck should be addressed during an elective neck dissection for an N0 supraglottic cancer according to the NCCN (2011)?
Level II-IV, level VI when appropriate
111
What is the initial local control achieved by | radiation alone for T1 and T2 supraglottic carcinoma?
92 to 100%
112
What percentage of patients who undergo supracricoid partial laryngectomy with cricohyoidopexy for supraglottic cancer will never achieve decannulation?
1.5%
113
Which of the following has more influence on survival in supraglottic malignancies: histology of tumor (squamous vs. nonsquamous) or T/N- staging?
T and N staging
114
What is the management of choice for glottic carcinoma not requiring a total laryngectomy according to the NCCN (2011)?
● Radiation therapy ● Partial laryngectomy/open or endoscopic resection as indicated ● N0 → observe
115
What is the management of choice for T3 glottic carcinoma requiring total laryngectomy (N0–1) according to the NCCN (2011)?
● Concurrent chemoradiation therapy with cisplatin (pre- ferred) ● Radiation (if not a candidate for surgery) ● Surgery
116
If a patient with T3 glottic cancer requiring a total laryngectomy (N0–1) undergoes concurrent chemoradiation therapy with cisplatin or primary radiation therapy alone, what are the recom- mended management steps based on the pa- tient’s response to therapy at the primary site?
● Complete response (N0 at initial staging) → observe ● Complete response (N + at initial staging) ● Residual nodal disease → neck dissection ● Complete clinical response in neck → evaluation → if N + → neck dissection, if N0 → observe ● Residual tumor at the primary site → salvage surgery + neck dissection as indicated
117
If a patient with T3 glottic cancer requiring a total laryngectomy (N0–1) elects to undergo primary surgical intervention, what are the recommended management steps based on the patient’s nodal status?
● N0 → Laryngectomy with ipsilateral thyroidectomy ● N1 → Laryngectomy with ipsilateral thyroidectomy, ipsilateral or bilateral neck dissection ● No adverse features → observe ● Extracapsular spread or positive margins → chemoradiation therapy ● Other risk features → radiation therapy → chemotherapy
118
What is the treatment of choice for T3 glottic carcinoma requiring total laryngectomy (N2–3) according to the NCCN (2011)?
● Concurrent chemoradiation therapy with cisplatin (pre- ferred) ● Laryngectomy with ipsilateral thyroidectomy and ipsilateral or bilateral neck dissection ● Induction chemotherapy
119
If a patient with T3N2–3 glottic carcinoma requiring a total laryngectomy undergoes concurrent chemoradiation therapy with cisplatin, what are the treatment options based on response to therapy?
● Primary site: complete response ● Residual tumor in neck → neck dissection ● Complete clinical response in neck → evaluation → if N0, observe, if N + then neck dissection ● Primary site: residual tumor ● Salvage surgery + neck dissection as indicated
120
If a patient with T3N2–3 glottic carcinoma requiring a total laryngectomy undergoes primary surgical treatment, what are the treatment options based on pathologic analysis?
● No adverse features → observe ● Extracapsular spread and/or positive margins → chemo- radiation therapy ● Other risk features → radiation therapy → chemotherapy
121
If a patient with T3N2–3 glottic carcinoma requiring a total laryngectomy undergoes induction chemotherapy, what are the treatment options based on clinical response of the primary site?
● Complete response → definitive radiation therapy or chemoradiation therapy ● N + → neck dissection ● N0 → evaluation, if N + → neck dissection ● Partial response → chemoradiation therapy ● Complete response → observe ● Residual disease → Salvage surgery ● < Partial/no response → surgery ● No adverse features → radiation therapy ● Extracapsular spread and/or positive margin →chemo- radiation therapy ● Other risk features → radiation therapy → chemotherapy
122
What is the treatment of choice for T4aN0 glottic | carcinoma according to the NCCN (2011)?
Laryngectomy with ipsilateral thyroidectomy → unilateral/ | bilateral neck dissection → chemoradiation therapy
123
What is the treatment of choice for T4aN1 glottic | carcinoma according to the NCCN (2011)?
Laryngectomy with ipsilateral thyroidectomy and ipsilateral neck dissection → contralateral neck dissection → chemo- radiation therapy
124
What is the treatment of choice for T4aN2–3 | glottic carcinoma according to the NCCN (2011)?
Laryngectomy with ipsilateral thyroidectomy and ipsilateral | or bilateral neck dissection → chemoradiation therapy
125
What is the definitive radiation therapy for T1N0 glottic carcinoma recommended by the NCCN (2011)?
63 to 66 Gy, conventional fractionation
126
What is the definitive radiation therapy for T1–2 glottic carcinoma recommended by the NCCN (2011)?
> 66 Gy, conventional fractionation
127
What is the definitive radiation therapy for > T2N + glottic carcinoma recommended by the NCCN (2011)?
66 to 74 Gy, conventional fractionation (accelerated frac- | tionation schedules may be considered)Nodal levels at risk for disease: 44 to 64 Gy
128
What is the radiation dose for primary concurrent chemoradiation therapy for glottic carcinoma recommended by the NCCN (2011)?
● Primary and N + disease: ≥ 70 Gy | ● Nodal levels at high risk: 44 to 64 Gy
129
``` What is the radiation dose for adjuvant radiation therapy for glottic carcinoma recommended by the NCCN (2011)? ```
● Primary: 60 to 66 Gy ● N + : 60 to 66 Gy ● N0: 44 to 64 Gy
130
What is the chemotherapeutic agent and dose of choice for chemoradiation therapy for glottic carcinoma recommended by the NCCN (2013)?
Cisplatin 100 mg/m2 every 3 weeks (generally for three | cycles)
131
Describe vestibulotomy as a component of trans- | oral laser resection of glottic carcinoma.
Vestibulotomy refers to removing those portions of the false cord that overlie the tumor. It affords lateral exposure and may facilitate postoperative surveillance.
132
What is the initial treatment of an airway fire?
``` First remove the endotracheal tube because it is providing the fuel (oxygen) for the fire. Irrigate with water, reintubate, and perform bronchoscopy to survey the injury. ```
133
What is the point of entrance into the larynx | during laryngofissure?
The larynx is divided in the midline, with entry at the | anterior commissure.
134
What are the benefits of transoral approach for | cordectomy?
Avoidance of initial tracheostomy and external scar. The | main disadvantage, of course, is poorer access.
135
What are the indications for cordectomy via | transoral access or laryngofissure?
● Cordectomy can be considered for T1 tumors limited to the middle third of the vocal fold. ● Contraindications include extension of tumor to vocal process or anterior commissure, subglottis, ventricle, or false cord.
136
What is the standard treatment for subglottic | carcinoma?
Total laryngectomy with paratracheal node dissection followed by radiation therapy (including the mediastinum) ± chemotherapy
137
For carcinoma with unilateral subglottic extension, what additional surgery should be considered during total laryngectomy?
Ipsilateral thyroid lobectomy and paratracheal node dis- | section
138
What are the surgical options for primary sub- | glottic squamous cell carcinoma?
When treated surgically, all require total laryngectomy with | paratracheal node dissection.
139
What proportion of patients for whom radiation for advanced larynx cancer fails would be suitable candidates for salvage surgery?
Two-thirds
140
What are some of the common indications for | salvage surgery after nonoperative primary management of laryngeal cancer?
``` ● Residual or recurrent locoregional disease ● Chondroradionecrosis ● Severe aspiration ● Laryngeal stenosis ● Pharyngoesophageal stenosis ```
141
What are the contraindications to partial laryngectomy in the salvage situation for patients with recurrent laryngeal cancer (Biller et al, 1970)?
● Subglottic extension > 5 mm ● Cartilage invasion ● Contralateral vocal cord invasion ● Arytenoid cartilage invasion (other than vocal process) ● Vocal cord fixation ● Recurrence not associated with the primary lesion
142
What complications are frequently associated with | management of stomal recurrences?
● Vascular injury ● Hypocalcaemia ● Mediastinitis ● Fistula
143
What laryngeal reconstructive technique used for supracricoid partial laryngectomy preserves the epiglottis?
Cricohyoidoepiglottopexy
144
What laryngeal reconstructive technique is used after horizontal partial laryngectomy and requires resection of the epiglottis?
Cricohyoidopexy
145
In a patient undergoing laryngopharyngectomy with primary closure, what additional procedure should be performed to decrease postoperative dysphagia?
Cricopharyngeal myotomy
146
What type of stitch is most frequently used for | closure of laryngopharyngectomy?
Running modified Connell stitch, followed by one or two layers of interrupted 3–0 Vicryl to imbricate overlying layers. Flood the mouth to ensure closure is water tight.
147
What are the benefits of the artificial larynx for | speech after total laryngectomy?
Inexpensive, relatively easy to learn, provides loud voice
148
After laryngectomy, what type of speech is being used if a patient injects (swallows) air into the esophagus, which acts as a reservoir for the expelled air used for voicing?
Esophageal speech. This produces a characteristic belching sound. Patients are usually limited to soft volume and short duration of utterance.
149
Name the one-way valve placed across the wall between the trachea and esophagus that allows exhaled air to pass through the neopharynx for voicing.
Tracheoesophageal prosthesis
150
Describe primary tracheoesophageal puncture (pri- | mary TEP).
Before closing the pharyngeal defect, a hemostat is passed into the esophagus to the posterior tracheal wall, where a blade is used to create a small fistula. A catheter is placed through this to maintain patency until a prosthesis is fitted.
151
Describe the esophageal insufflation test in | evaluating candidates for secondary TEP.
A catheter is placed transnasally into the esophagus, air is | insufflated, and the patient is asked to count.
152
Describe two anatomical relative contraindications | to TEP voice rehabilitation.
● Microstomia (< 1 cm) | ● Pharyngeal stricture
153
Why is a cricopharyngeal myotomy critical to total | laryngectomy voice rehabilitation?
Cricopharyngeal muscle spasm diverts air passing through the TEP into the distal esophagus (instead of through the mouth), which prevents acquisition of alaryngeal speech.
154
What is the most common reason for TEP valve | failure?
Candida fungal colonization
155
What is the definitive treatment for aspiration through the TEP site in the setting of a properly- functioning TEP valve?
A SCM flap or pectoralis major myofascial flap interposition (between the trachealis and esophagus) to reconstruct the party wall
156
How should a dislodged TEP temporary catheter | be triaged?
Urgently. If not replaced within 24 hours, the fistula is likely to close, and the TEP would require surgical revision.
157
When factors imply that a patient has a functional | larynx?
● Intelligible voice ● Able to take in adequate calories by mouth with no/ minimal aspiration ● Avoidance of a stoma
158
What tumor factors most notably influence voice | outcomes after surgery or radiation therapy?
Tumor extent and depth of invasion
159
What patient factors affect the functional out- | come of total laryngectomy?
● Motivation for alaryngeal speech ● Ability to communicate by writing ● Manual dexterity for using voice prostheses ● Family and social support
160
What are the functional effects after total laryn- | gectomy?
● Loss of normal speech (not aphonia) ● Inability to develop positive airway pressure (straining, coughing) ● Loss of nasal airflow (anosmia, air filtration) ● Presence of stoma (water precautions, body image)
161
True or False. Aggressive tumor surveillance with imaging and examinations improves the detection of asymptomatic recurrences and second primaries and therefore improves oncologic outcomes after primary management of laryngeal cancer.
False
162
What are the early complications of conservation | laryngectomy?
● Tracheotomy tube obstruction ● Hemorrhage ● Aspiration pneumonia ● Subcutaneous emphysema
163
What is the long-term incidence of hypothyroid- | ism in patients treated primarily with radiation for laryngeal cancer?
70%
164
What is the appropriate sequence of actions in the | event of an airway fire?
Extubation, then removal of supplemental oxygen and instillation of saline into the airway, then reintubation
165
What are the main risk factors for developing a pharyngocutaneous fistula after laryngectomy? Comment: Does history of neck radiation need to be included in the risk factors for fistula formation (or at least should we specify in patients who are not undergoing salvage)?
● Postoperative hemoglobin < 12.5 ● Congestive heart failure ● Extended laryngectomy ● History of head and neck radiation
166
What is the best initial treatment for pharyngo- | cutaneous fistula?
● Debridement ● Wound dressing with antiseptic packing material ● Nothing taken orally (NPO) ● Antibiotics (if infected) ● Consideration of hyperbaric oxygen therapy if initial measures are not successful
167
What complications are associated with tracheot- | omy placement during total laryngectomy?
● Pneumothorax ● Hemorrhage via tracheoinnominate fistula ● Subcutaneous emphysema.
168
What medical therapy would be most effective for a patient with persistent gastric inflation when attempting to use a transesophageal prosthesis?
Botulinum toxin injections to the cricopharyngeus muscle