Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Step 2 CK > Gynecology > Flashcards

Gynecology Flashcards

1
Q

OCPs decrease risk of what type of cancer?

A

ovarian, endometrial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what causes labial fusion?

A

excess androgens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

most common enzymatic cause of labial fusion?

A

21-B hydroxylase deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

marsupialization of bartholin gland cyst?

A

suture gland to keep open and prevent from forming another cyst in patients where this has become a recurrent problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

treatment for bacterial vaginosis?

A

metronidazole or clinda

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

if trichomonas is diagnosed….who needs treatment?

A

both partners

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

red unilateral vulvar lesion with superficial white coating in a postmenopausal caucasian female

A

paget disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

squamous cell carcinoma of the vulva presents as?

A

Itching, bloody vaginal discharge, postmenopausal bleeding. small ulcerated lesion to large cauliflower like lesion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

invasion of endometrial glands into the myometrium? risk factors? presents as?

A

adenomyosis: endometriosis and uterine fibroids are risk factor. presents with dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia with a large, globular, boggy uterus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the most accurate test for adenomyosis? only definitive way to diagnose?

A

MRI; laporoscopic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the definitive treatment for adenomyosis?

A

hysterectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

dysadvantage of implanon (progestin only implant)

A

irregular periods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

First step in work up of primary or secondary amenorrhea is always a?

A

pregnancy test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Asherman syndrome

A

adhesions or fibrosis of endometrium. particularly associated with D+C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

medical therapy for prolactinoma

A

bromocriptine

cabergoline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Causes of abnormal uterine bleeding:

PALM-COEIN-

A

P: polyp
A: adenomyosis
L: leiomyoma
M: malignancy/hyperplasia

C: coagulopathy
O: ovulatory
E: Endometrial
I: iatrogenic
N: not classified
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When should you do an endometrial biopsy on premenopausal women?

A

> 35, risk factors for endometrial carcinoma like obesity, diabetes and AUB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Treatment of acute-heavy bleeding of uterus? What if that treatment is contraindicated?

A

high dose estrogen IV and then transition to OCP or progestin when stable

Give progestin alone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

If acute uterine blood loss has not stopped in 12-24 hours - what is management?

A

D+C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Firstline treatment of abnormal uterine bleeding during ovulation?

A

NSAIDS- reduce blood loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Treatment for anovulatory bleeding?

A

progestin X 10 days to stimulate withdrawal bleeds
OCPS
Projestin IUD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

which CAH presents with hypotension?

A

21-hydroxylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

which CAH presents with hypertension?

A

11Bhydroxylase and 17-hydroxylase due to accumulation of deoxycorticosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Treatment for CAH

A

glucocorticoids

Add mineralocorticoid if salt wasting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Rotterdam criteria

A

2/3 needed to diagnose PCOS

  • PC ovaries on US
  • oligo/anovulation
  • clinical or biochem evidence of hyperandrogens
26
Q

woman says that 2 weeks after her period she has intense sharp lower quad abd pain that lasts a few hours and alternates sides with each cycle. what is this?

A

mittelschmirz- pain at ovulation due to progesterone production.

27
Q

+ chandelier sign =

A

cervical motion tenderness

28
Q

patient has cervical motion tenderness and fever. you start abx. what is next step in management?

A

pelvic ultrasound to rule out out tubo-ovarian abscess

29
Q

definition of infertility

A

inability to conceive after 12 months of nml reg sex

30
Q

Is bacterial vaginosis an infection?

A

NO- its a shift in flora

31
Q

“strawberry petechia” on upper vagina/cervix?

A

trichomonas

32
Q

If there are many WBCs and no organisms on smear of vaginal fluid- suspect?

A

chlamydia

33
Q

Criteria for diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis?

A

3/4 needed:

  • abnml white/grey discharge
  • vaginal pH >4.5
    • whiff test
  • clue cells > 20% of slide
34
Q

multiple shallow painful ulcers on genitals?

A

HSV

35
Q

deep painful ulcers with irregular borders?

A

chancroid. hemophylus ducrey

36
Q

important side effect of metronidazole?

A

disulfuram reaction when you drink alcohol with it. (flushing, n/v)

37
Q

why are blood cultures negative in TSS?

A

caused by preformed toxin

38
Q

empiric abx for TSS?

A

clinda and vanc

39
Q

If a uterine mass continue to grow after menopause…suspect?

A

malignancy (fibroids shrink after menopause)

40
Q

guardisil vaccine protects against which types of HPV?

A

6+11 (90% of warts) and 16+18 ( 70% of cerv cancer)

41
Q 
Give the recommendations for cervical cancer screening for the following ages: 
21-29
30-65
65 >
DES exposure/immunocompromised
A

21-29: pap every 3 years
30-65: pap every 3 years or pap/HPV cotest every 5
65: stop if prior tests were negative.
DES/ImmunoC- continue to screen

42
Q

What do you do for women 21-24 with ASC-US or LSIL?

ASC-H, HSIL, atypical glandular cells?

A

repeat cytology at 12 months (preferred). If (-), repeat again at 12 months. If (-)X2- resume normal screening.

If ASC-US >, colposcopy.

OR reflux HPV test. If (-) -> normal screening. If (+) resume algorithm above.

If ever ASC-H, HSIL, atypical glandular cells -> colposcopy right away

43
Q

If >24 with ASC-US what do you do?

A

Reflex HPV test. If (-) cotest in 3 years. If (+)-> colpo (preferred)

OR retest in 12 months and if (-) routine screen

44
Q

HSIL and > 24 years old?

A

immediate LEEP excision (not if pregnant)

45
Q

HPV types for vulvar cancer?

A

16,18,31

46
Q

frequency of female genital tract cancers in order?

A

endometrial > ovarian > cervical

47
Q

deaths of female genital tract cancer?

A

ovarian > endometrial > cervical

48
Q

marker for dysgerminoma

A

LDH

49
Q

marker for granulosa cell tumor

A

inhibin

50
Q

marker for embryonal carcinoma

A

AFP, B-hcg

51
Q

marker for endodermal sinus

A

AFP

52
Q

most common infectious cause of vulvovaginitis in kids?

A

GAS

53
Q

differential diagnosis of breast mass?

A

fibrocystic disease, fibroadenoma, mastitis/abscess, fat necrosis, breast cancer

54
Q

most common breast lesion in women < 30?

A

fibroadenoma

55
Q

Phylodes tumor

A

difficult to distinguish from fibroadenoma. however usually larger and on histology will see classic “leaflike appearance) - papillary projections

56
Q

Common cancers that met to bone? BLT with Pickle on top

A

breast, lung, thyroid, prostate

57
Q

first step of mass in women > 30? women < 30?

A

> 30- mammogram

<30, US

58
Q

All ER/PR + patients should receive ____ for therapy if premenopausal OR _____ if postmenopausal?

A

tamoxifen; aromatase inhibitor

59
Q

All Her2/neu cancers should receive?

A

Trastuzumab

60
Q

ER + and PR + is assocaited with _____ prognosis?

A

favorable

61
Q

mimicker of breast cancer that occurs after trauma? what will biopsy show?

A

fat necrosis. coarse (not micro) calcifications and foamy macrophages

Step 2 CK (26 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions