Epidemiology/BioStats Flashcards

1
Q

Prevalence?

A

of existing cases in population at a specific moment in time.

(Total number of cases in population at one point in time)/(total population)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Incidence?

A

of new cases in the disease free population that develop over a period of time

(of new cases in the disease free population over a given time period)/(total population at risk during specified time period)

(remember to subtract pre-existing cases of the disease from total population at risk)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Prevalence depends on?

A

Incidence and duration of disease

P = I X D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Incidence can be measured in a ___ study?

A

cohort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Prevelance can be measured in a ____ study?

A

cross-sectional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

As the mortality of a disease decreases, prevalence of the disease ______ because ____ increases?

A

Increases because duration of disease increases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Sensitivity

A

Probability that a patient with a disease will have a + test result
sNOUT- will rarely miss people with the disease so it is good at ruling out those who do not have the disease.
Desirable early in diagnostic work up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Specificity

A

Probability that a patient without the disease will have a negative test result. A specific test will rarely say someone has the disease when they do not so its good at ruling IN.
sPIN - desirable to confirm a diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The higher the prevalence of a disease, the higher the ____

A

positive predictive value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

positive predictive value

A

probability that a patient with a (+) test result truly has the disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

negative predictive value

A

probability that patient with (-) test result truly does not have disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

the lower the prevalence, the higher the?

A

NPV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Likelihood ratio?

A

express extent to which a given test result is likely in diseased people vs people without disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

(+) LR shows?

A

how much the odds of disease are increased if test result is (+)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

(-) LR shows?

A

how much the odds of disease decrease if test result is (-)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Posttest odds?

A

Pretest odds X LR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Absolute risk?

A

Incidence of disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Attributable risk (risk difference)

A

Difference in risk between exposed/unexposed groups

Incidence of disease in exposed - incidence in unexposed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

needed to treat

A

of individuals that need to be treated for 1 patient to benefit

1/attributable risk

1/(incidence of disease in exposed - incidence in unexposed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

relative risk or risk ratio?

A

how much more likely an exposed person is to get the disease in comparison to unexposed

(measures strength of association between exposure and disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

relative risk/risk ratio equation?

A

incidence in exposed/incidence in unexposed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

RR > 1 suggests? RR<1 suggests?

A
>1 = increased risk 
<1 = decreased risk
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Odds ratio definition and equation

A

estimates relative risk in case control studies. the lower the disease incidence, the more closely it approximates RR.

odds that diseased person is exposed / odds that non-diseased person is exposed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Kaplan-Meier curve

A

describes survival in cohort of patients over time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

gold standard study to evaluate diagnosis, treatment, etc?

A

double-blinded randomized control trial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

List types of studies in descending order of quality?

A

RCT, observational study-(used if exposure is therapeutic intervention), case series/case reports.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

double - blinded studies prevent _____ bias?

A

observation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

cross-sectional study?

A

observational study that assesses risk factors and outcomes at snap-shot in time. (measures correlation, not causation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Prevalence study?

A

cross sectional study performed to measure prevalence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
cohort study 
(also known as longitudinal or incidence study)
A

group of people without outcome of interest (disease) are assembled. For each possible risk factor people are categorized as exposed or unexposed and then they are all followed over time. Incidence of outcome is compared in exposure groups.
(Ex: Framingham heart study)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What study is only way to directly determine incidence of disease?

A

cohort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

2 types of cohort studies?

A

prospective or retrospective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

case-control study

A

Two groups are identified (case group) and (control group) and then the frequency of a risk factor is compared between them.

case group- heart disease
control- no heart disease
risk- red meat exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

advantage of case control study?

A

can be used to study rare diseases as they can use smaller groups than cohort studies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

RCT

A

patients randomly assigned to treatment vs control groups.

ability to demonstrate causal relationships.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Cohort studies can measure?

A

RR, OR, Incidence, Prevalence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Cross-sectional studies measure?

A

Prevalence (not incidence) because measurements occur at a specific moment in time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

case control studies measure?

A

Odds Ratio (approximating relative risk)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What type of bias is particularly problematic in retrospective cohort studies?

A

selection bias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What types of bias are common in case control studies?

A

recall bias (since groups with or without disease are selected first and then asked about exposures)

Selection bias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Selection bias

A

samples/participants selected that may differ from rest of population

ex: individuals concerned about breast cancer due to family history may be more likely to enroll in a study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

measurement bias

A

measure or data gathering diff btwn groups (one group measured with CT, other with MRI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Confounding bias

A

3rd variable positively or negatively associated with exposure or outcome (leads to incorrect association)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

effect modification

A

third variable disproportionately affects 2 groups. It shows a meaningful difference (vs confounding which does not)

Ex: new chemo drug shows improved survival for patients undergoing radiation but no effect for patients not undergoing radiation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

lead-time bias

A

results from earlier detection of disease- gives appearance of prolonged survival

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

length bias

A

screening tests detect disproportionate # of slowly progressive disease but miss rapidly progressive ones (leads to overestimation of benefit of the screen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Type I error:

A

concluding that there is a difference in treatment when there is not. (false +)

-rejecting null hypothesis when it should not be

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Type II error:

A

concluding no difference in treatment effects when there is a difference. (false negative)

Failing to reject the null hypothesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

p value

A

estimate of probability that differences in treatment effects in a study could have happened by chance alone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

does p value say anything about direction or size of the effect?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Power

A

probability that a study will find a statistically significant difference when one is truly there

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Increasing ____ will increase power of study?

A

of study subjects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Power equation?

A

1 - type II error.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Confidence interval

A

Demonstrates the statistical significance- showing the size of the effect and the statistical power (the narrower the confidence interval- the greater the statistical power)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

If the confidence interval contains the (RR or OR of 1.0 or 0%), the results are?

A

not statistically significant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Live-attenuated vaccines?

A

Measles, mumps, rubella, polio, yellow fever, influenza (nasal spray)

57
Q

Toxoid vaccines

A

Diptheria, tetanus

58
Q

Subunit vaccines

A

HBV, pertussis, strep pneumo, HPV, meningococcus

59
Q

Inactivated (killed) vaccines

A

cholera, HAV, polio (salk), rabies, influenza (injection)

60
Q

conjugate

A

Hib, Spneumoniae

61
Q

Name the stages of change in behavioral counseling from beginning to end

A
Precontemplation
Contemplation
Preparation
Action
Maintenance
62
Q

Precontemplation

A

denial or ignorance of problem

63
Q

contemplation

A

ambivalence or conflicted emotions, assessing benefits and barriers

64
Q

preparation

A

experimenting with small changes. collecting info about change

65
Q

action

A

taking direct action toward a goal

66
Q

maintenance

A

maintaining a new behavior, avoiding temptation

67
Q

Name stage of contemplation.

A heroin addict visits doctor to ask questions about quitting.

A

preparation

68
Q

addict enters rehab facility for treatment of addiction.

A

action

69
Q

a heroin addict has never thought about cessation.

A

precontemplation

70
Q

heroin addict considered treatment for addiction

A

contemplation

71
Q

heroin addict continues to visit recovery meetings to gain support and reinforcement against relapse

A

maintenance

72
Q

What age can you stop mammogram screening?

A

75

73
Q

When can you stop colon cancer screening?

A

75

74
Q

What is difference in cholesterol screening btwn men and women?

A

men: screen at age 20 for patients with increased risk of heart disease. screen all men above age 35.
w: screen for women at increased risk

75
Q

When should AAA screening be performed?

A

One time screening in all men over 65 who have ever smoked.

76
Q

leading cause of cancer mortality in US?

A

lung cancer

77
Q

most prevalent cancers in women? men?

A

breast, prostate

lung, colorectal rank 2nd and 3rd in both

78
Q

If a step 2 question asks you to calculate relative risk from retrospective data, the answer is?

A

cannot be calculated!
none of the above!

(relative risk can only be calculated from prospective or experimental studies)

79
Q

What is a clinically significant value for relative risk?

A

Anything other than 1.

1.5 = 1.5X more likely to develop condition if exposed to the factor in question

.5 = only 1/2 as likely to develop condition (factor is protective)

80
Q

With a normal bell shaped distribution, 1 SD holds ___ % of values, 2 SD holds? 3 SD holds?

A

1 SD = 68% of values
2 SD = 95%
3 SD = 99.7%

81
Q

If the mean score on a test is 80 and standard deviation is 5, what percent of scores will be within 5 points?

what percent of scores will be within 10 points?

15 points?

A

68%

95%

99.7%

82
Q

when do mean = median = mode?

A

in a normal distribution

83
Q

positive skew distribution?

how does this affect mean, median, mode relationship?

A

asymmetric distribution with an excess of high values (tail of curve to the right)
mean > median > mode

84
Q

negative skew?

A

excess of low values (tail to left of curve)

mean < median < mode

85
Q

test reliability?

A

synonymous with test precision. measures reliability and reproducibility of test. (person taking test will get same score with 2 diff people administering it)

86
Q

validity of test?

A

accuracy of test. does test measure what it claims to. when a genius takes IQ test, score should reflect genius status.

87
Q

correlation coefficients?

A

range from -1 to +1. measure the degree to which 2 variables are related.

88
Q

is a correlation of -.6 or .4 stronger?

A

-.6 (stronger negative correlation)

89
Q

Define confidence interval?

A

When you take data from subset of population and calculate its mean, you want to say that its equivalent to the mean of the whole population. A confidence interval of 95% suggests that you are 95% confident that the mean of the whole population falls within 2 SD of your sample mean.

90
Q

retrospective studies are more practical for ____ disease?

A

rare

91
Q

prospective studies are more practical for ____ diseases?

A

common

92
Q

If a disease can only be treated to the point that people can be kept alive longer without being cured, what happens to incidence and prevalence?

A

Incidence- stays the same. same # of people contract the disease every year.

Prevalence- increase because ppl live longer

93
Q

In short term diseases (flu), incidence will be higher or lower than prevalence?

A

higher

94
Q

in long term diseases (diabetes), incidence will be higher or lower?

A

lower

95
Q

epidemic

A

observed incidence greatly exceeds expected incidence

96
Q

When do you use chi-squared test?

A

compare percentages or proportions (non-numeric/nominal or ordinal data)

97
Q

t-test?

A

compares 2 means

98
Q

analysis of variance (ANOVA)

A

compares 3 or more means

99
Q

What is the difference between nominal, ordinal and continuous types of data?

A

nominal- no numeric value (day of week)
ordinal- give ranking but no quantity (clas rank- does not specify how far ahead 1 is from 2)
continuous- most numerical measurements (weight, BP, age)

100
Q

Chi-square test must be used to compare what kind of data?

A

nominal - non numeric

ordinal- ranking (no quantity)

101
Q

t-test and ANOVA are used to compare?

A

continous data

102
Q

What does it mean if P is less than .05?

A

there is less than a 5% change that data were obtained by random error or chance

103
Q

If P is less than .01?

A

there is less than a 1% chance that data were obtained by random error/chance

104
Q

3 important points to remember about P values for Step 2:

A
  1. A study with a P-value less than .05 can still have serious flaws
  2. a low P value does not imply causation
  3. A study that has statistical significance does not necessarily have clinical significance.
105
Q

What is the relationship of the p-value to the null hypothesis?

A

When P is less than .05 I can confidently reject the null hypothesis. There is less than a 5% chance that the null hypothesis is correct.

106
Q

The p-value represents the chance of making what type of error?

A

Type I error (saying there is an effect when in fact there is not)

107
Q

best way to increase power?

A

increase sample size

108
Q

unacceptability bias?

A

people do not admit to embarrassing behavior. claim to exercise more than they do. claim to take experimental meds then they are actually spitting them out.

109
Q

Interventions targeting which group have been shown to have a significant effect in improving quality of patient care when it comes to managing medications?

A

Interventions targeting pharmacists and high risk patients

110
Q

Receiver operating characteristic curve

A

plot true positive rate (sensitivity) against 1- true negative rate (specificity)

111
Q

Area under a receiver operating characteristic curve?

A

= Accuracy

112
Q

Accuracy of a test equals?

A

proportion of true results (true positive and true negative out of all the results. depends on specificity, sensitivity, prevalence of disease

113
Q

What is the rare disease assumption?

A

If a disease is rare- low prevalence and low incidence, then the Odds ratio can generally approximate the RR.

114
Q

When can the odds ratio more reliably approximate relative risk?

A
  1. When incidence of disease is low

2. When cases and controls used in a study are representative of indv with and without disease in gen population

115
Q

Hawthorne effect

A

tendency of a study population to affect outcome because the people are aware that they are being studied.

116
Q

sample distortion bias

A

estimate of exposure and outcome is biased because study sample is not representative of target population

117
Q

information bias

A

due to imperfect assessment of association between exposure and outcome measurements

118
Q

Typically, lowering a cutoff value will ______ sensitivity?

A

Increase

119
Q

When a disease has few false negatives, this means it has a high

A

sensitivity

120
Q

when a disease has few false positives, this means it has a high

A

specificity.

121
Q

if the PPV of a test is 25% and a patient is found to have a positive result, is their post-test probability of having the disease high or low?

A

low

122
Q

False positive ratio =

A

1 - specificity

123
Q

False negative ratio =

A

1 - sensitivity

124
Q

When the cut off level of a diagnostic test is raised, the ____ rate with consequently increase

A

false negative rate

125
Q

observer bias

A

occurs when investigators decision is adversely affected by knowledge of the exposure status

126
Q

respondent bias

A

outcomes are obtained by patient response and not by objective diagnostic measurements (blood pressure)

127
Q

Factorial design study exhibit

A

involves 2 or more experimental interventions. each with 2 or more variables that are studied independently.

128
Q

cluster analysis

A

grouping of different data point into similar categories

129
Q

cross-over study

A

group participants assigned to 1 treatment for a period of time and then switch treatments for another set period of time.

130
Q

parallel study

A

randomizes one treatment to 1 group and a different treatment to the other group

131
Q

effect modification

A

external variable positively or negatively impacts the effect of risk factor on disease (example venous thrombosis increases with estrogen therapy and this is further augmented by smoking)

132
Q

post-hoc analysis

A

refers to performing unplanned statistical tests on patterns that were identified after the fact

133
Q

selective survival bias

A

occurs in case control studies when cases are selected from entire disease population rather than newly diagnosed cases.

134
Q

A relative risk of .71 for a new drug measuring outcomes on heart failure says?

A

The new drug decreased heart failure risk by .29 or 29%

135
Q

measurement bias occurs from?

A

poor data collection with innaccurate results

136
Q

Form of selection bias known as susceptibility bias

A

when treatment regimen selected for a patient depends on severity of their condition and not on the group they were assigned to

137
Q

Cholesterol levels are measured for a test 3 times and come back as 200, 190, 184. This means the test is not?

A

reliable

138
Q

How do you determine validity of a test?

A

tests ability to measure what its actually supposed to measure. So you compare results to the gold standard.

139
Q

generalizability or external validity

A

pertains to applicability of study results to other populations