Gyn Flashcards
3 features of endometrial polyps?
Polypoid shape, altered (often fibrous) stroma, thick-walled blood vessels.
Uterine leiomyomas. Threshold mitoses #s to upgrade to a leiomyosarcoma?
> 5 if atypical-appearing, >10 for usual-appearing, >15 if secretory phase.
Compare and contrast the following characteristics for endocervical microglandular hyperplasia (MGH) and well-differentiated endometrioid adenocarcinoma (EC): age, background, glandular architecture, cytoplasm, nuclei, and mitotic activity.
Age is reproductive for MGH and perimenopausal or postmenopausal for EC. Background is endocervix for MGH and benign or hyperplastic endometrium for EC. Glandular architecture is complex for both MGH and EC. Cytoplasm is mucinous with subnuclear vacuoles for MGH and endometrioid and/or mucinous for EC. Nuclei are bland for MGH and atypical for EC. Mitotic activity is absent or rare for MGH and present for EC.
Compare and contrast the following characteristics for reactive epithelial atypia of the fallopian tube (REA) and serous carcinoma in situ of the fallopian tube (CIS): associated conditions, type of surgery, nuclear atypia, nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio, cilia, and mitotic activity.
Associated conditions are inflammation (sometimes) for REA and BRCA mutation for CIS. Type of surgery is salpingectomy was part of surgery for other reasons for REA and prophylactic salpingo-oophorectomy for CIS. Nuclear atypia is mild to moderate (can be focally severe) for REA and severe for CIS. Nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio is maintained in REA and increased in CIS. Cilia are present in REA and absent in CIS. Mitotic activity is absent in REA and present in CIS.
Cytotrophoblasts and syncytiotrophoblasts predominantly produce ___, while intermediate trophoblasts express large amounts of ___.
Cytotrophoblasts and syncytiotrophoblasts predominantly produce hCG, while intermediate trophoblasts express large amounts of hPL.
Diagnosis of conventional (spindle) leiomyosarcoma of the uterus is established when any 2 of the following 3 criteria are present:
- Diffuse moderate to marked cytologic atypia. 2. Mitotic rate of 10 or more mitoses per 10 HPFs. 3. Tumor cell necrosis.
Diagnosis of myxoid leiomyosarcoma of the uterus is established when 1 of what 2 criteria are found?
- Severe cytologic atypia and/or tumor cell necrosis with any mitotic index, or 2. 2 or more mitoses per 10 HPFs in the absence of atypia or tumor cell necrosis.
Diagnosis of epithelioid leiomyosarcoma of the uterus is established when 1 of what 2 criteria are found?
- Any degree of cytologic atypia and 5 or more mitoses per 10 HPFs in the absence of tumor cell necrosis, or 2. 5 or more mitoses per 10 HPFs and tumor cell necrosis with any degree of cytologic atypia.
Placental mesenchymal dysplasia.
~1/4 of cases are associated with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome. Can also have a completely normal fetus or a growth-restricted fetus. There is increased maternal serum AFP, and normal to slightly elevated bHCG. Large placenta with dilated and tortuous chorionic plate vessels. Can have chorangiomas and cystic vesicles. Absence of: trophoblastic proliferation, stromal trophoblastic inclusions, scalloping of villous surface. Most cases are diploid.
Squamous lesions of the ovary.
Squamous elements are most commonly identified in the ovary as part of a mature cystic teratoma (or dermoid cyst). The mature cystic teratoma is both the most common ovarian tumor and the most common benign ovarian tumor. Although the squamous elements in these tumors are benign the vast majority of the time, squamous cell carcinoma can arise from them, and is the most common malignant component arising from a mature teratoma. Although only 1-2% of mature teratomas harbor a malignant component, up to 80% of those will be of squamous derivation. Metaplasia is likely the next most common cause of squamous differentiation in the ovary. The most frequently encountered nonteratomatous primary tumors showing squamous differentiation are ovarian endometrioid adenocarcinoma of the ovary and the Brenner tumor. Metastases are another common source of squamous elements in the ovary; endometrial endometrioid adenocarcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma of the cervix are 2 likely sources of metastatic ovarian squamous components. Vary rarely, squamous elements are identified in the absence of any of the above senarios; there have been a few cases of de novo squamous cell carcinoma of the ovary, some associated with endometriosis, as well as a few cases of pure epidermoid cysts without teratomatous features. In squamous cell carcinomas that are less differentiated, other epithelioid lesions may enter the DDx, such as epithelioid mesothelioma and epithelioid sarcoma.
Which are the HPV low risk and high risk genotypes? Which are the most common subtypes found in invasive squamous cell carcinoma and adenocarcinoma of the cervix?
Low risk genotypes: 6, 11, 42, 44. High risk genotypes: 16, 18, 31, 33, 45, 58. HPV 16 is the most common subtype found in cervical squamous cell carcinoma. HPV 16 and 18 are detected with equal prevalence in most subtypes of cervical adenocarcinoma (HPV 18 is more common in cervical AIS).
What HPV types (in order of frequency) are seen mostly commonly in the following lesions? Plantar wart, common wart, flat (juvenile) wart, oral squamous papilloma, oral focal epithelial hyperplasia (Heck disease), epidermodysplasia verruciformis, laryngeal papillomas, condyloma acuminatum, cervical LSIL, cervical HSIL, cervical AIS and invasive cervical adenocarcinoma.
Plantar wart: 1, 2. Common wart: 2, 1, 4, (HPV 7 in fish and meat handlers). Flat (juvenile) wart: 3, 10. Oral squamous papilloma: 6, 11. Oral focal epithelial hyperplasia (Heck disease): 13, 32. Epidermodysplasia verruciformis: 2, 3, 10, 5, 8. Laryngeal papillomas: 6, 11. Condyloma acuminatum: 6, 11. Cervical LSIL: 6, 11. Cervical HSIL: 16, 18, 31, 33, 35. Cervical AIS: 18. Invasive cervical adenocarcinoma: HPV 16 and 18 are detected with equal prevalence in most subtypes of cervical adenocarcinoma.
Peritoneal ovarian tumor implants. What types are there?
The two major types are noninvasive and invasive. The noninvasive type is further subdivided into epithelial and desmoplastic subtypes. The epithelial noninvasive implants may be exophytic or buried within invaginations beneath the peritoneal surface; they are characterized by a papillary pattern of growth, mild to moderate aypia, and lack of inflammation or stromal reaction. In desmoplastic noninvasive implants, the epithelial component is more irregular, the cells have a more abundant acidophilic cytoplasm, and there is inflammation (oocasionally severe) and a brisk stromal reaction with a granulation tissue-like appearance. Invasive implants show haphazard destructive infiltration of the stroma. As a general rule, psammoma bodies are less numerous than in noninvasive implants. The nuclear atypia is not necessarily more pronounced. Some implants of either noninvasive or invasive types are composed of papillary cores within clear spaces lined by mesothelial cells or tumor cells, resulting in a glomeruloid appearance.
Lynch syndrome has mutations in what genes?
The hallmark of Lynch syndrome is a genetic mutation in one of the family of DNA mismatch repair (MMR) protein genes (MLH1, MLH3, MSH2, MSH6, PMS2). These proteins function to repair errors in replication of DNA at short repetitive sequences (microsatellites). Lynch syndrome is associated with a high risk of colon and endometrial cancers, as well as increased risk of urothelial, small bowel, hepatobiliary, and pancreatic cancer. Further, 10-15% of sporadic colon, endometrial, and gastric tumors may harbor a somatic, non-germline MMR mutation or loss of expression.
Immunostains for endometrial stromal sarcoma.
ESS is CD10 positive, but other mesenchymal tumors such as smooth muscle tumors (highly cellular leiomyoma, leiomyosarcoma), adenosarcoma, and MMMT can be CD10 positive. Also, CD10 expression can be reduced in endometrial stromal sarcomas with variant histologic features (fibrosis, myxoid change, etc.). Therefore, CD10 is best used with a panel of other stains. Most of the tumors also express vimentin, ER, PR, WT1 (nuclear), bcl-2, and SMA; some express keratin and KIT. There can be scattered staining for desmin in some cases (in areas besides those of smooth muscle differentiation); so, like CD10, it should be used in a panel. Caldesmon is another smooth muscle marker expected to be negative in most ESS and is often included in diagnostic panels. Areas of sex cord differentiation may express inhibin, calretinin, melan-A, CD56, and CD99. EMA, DOG1, and CD34 should be negative in ESTs.
The spectrum of gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD) includes what entities?
The spectrum of gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD) includes hydatidiform molar pregnancies (complete hydatidiform mole, partial hydatidiform mole, and invasive mole), as well as non-molar lesions (placental site nodule, epithelioid trophoblastic tumor, placental site trophoblastic tumor and choriocarcinoma).
What immunostain is useful to distinguish complete hydatidiform mole from partial hydatidiform mole?
Since complete hydatidiform moles are paternally derived, paternally imprinted genes that are normally expressed exclusively from maternally derived chromosomes should be absent. Studies have shown that p57KIP2, a paternally imprinted, maternally expressed gene, is useful in confirming the diagnosis of a complete mole, as the villous mesenchymal cells and villous cytotrophoblast of CHM are negative for this marker. PHM are p57KIP2 positive.
Persistent trophoblastic disease occurs in approximately __% of women with a prior complete hydatidiform mole, and in __% of women with a partial hydatidiform mole.
Persistent trophoblastic disease occurs in approximately 20% of women with a prior CHM. Persistent trophoblastic disease may represent persistent mole with no myometrial invasion, an invasive mole, or a choriocarcinoma (occurring in approximately 2 – 3% of women with prior CHM). Persistent trophoblastic disease is treated with chemotherapy with a cure rate approaching 100%. PHM are rarely associated with persistent trophoblastic disease.
How does a hydropic abortus differ from a complete hydatidiform mole?
Hydropic abortus differs from CHM as (1) it typically is not associated with a markedly elevated ß-HCG level, (2) the volume of tissue removed is typically much less than that with CHM, (3) the villi appear swollen but lack true cistern formation, (4) the villi typically have a degenerative appearance in keeping with early embryonic demise, (5) the trophoblastic proliferation has a polar distribution with the formation of trophoblastic columns at one end of the villous and (6) are p57KIP2 positive.
Twin-twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS) is a serious condition that affects __% to __% of twin pregnancies with monochorionic diamniotic placentation.
Twin-twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS) is a serious condition that affects 10% to 15% of twin pregnancies with monochorionic diamniotic placentation. It occurs due to intrauterine blood transfusion from one twin (donor) to another twin (recipient) through placental vascular anastomoses from shared placental cotyledons. This results in increased fetal and neonatal mortality, premature delivery and neurologic complications in the surviving twin(s).
Juvenile granulosa cell tumor comprises __% of granulosa cell tumors as a whole, and represents __% of ovarian tumors in patients younger than 20 years of age. __% of JGCTs present in patients less than 30 years of age, with an average age of __ years at presentation.
Juvenile granulosa cell tumor comprises 5-15% of granulosa cell tumors as a whole, and represents 10% of ovarian tumors in patients younger than 20 years of age. 97% of JGCTs present in patients less than 30 years of age, with an average age of 13 years at presentation. These tumors frequently produce estrogen and are associated with isosexual pseudoprecocity in most prepubertal patients. JGCTs presenting after puberty may be detected secondary to abdominal swelling, pain, a pelvis mass or menstrual irregularities.
Histologic appearance of juvenile granulosa cell tumor.
JGCTs are composed of a nodular to diffuse proliferation of granulosa cells, with a fibrothecomatous stroma that can be myxoid or edematous. Characteristic follicular spaces are found within the nodules or scattered in the solid areas. The folicular spaces vary in shape from round to irregular and in size from small to macrofollicular, but microfollicles (Call-Exner bodies) are rare. Eosinophilic or basophilic fluid is present in the spaces, and the fluid is mucicarmine positive in two-thirds of the cases. The granulosa cells of JGCT are generally larger than those of AGCT and often have luteinized, moderate to abundant, pale or eosinophilic cytoplasm. The nuclei are round or oval and hyperchromatic; grooves are rarely present. Most of the tumors have at least some foci or moderate to marked nuclear atypia. Mitotic activity is variable, ranging from 1 to 32 per 10 HPF, with a median of 6-8 per 10 HPF. Theca cells can be seen in JGCTs. They may surround nodules of granulosa cells or intermix with them in solid areas.
Stains for juvenile granulosa cell tumor.
Reticulin staining demonstrates fibers around groups and nodules of granulosa cells, and fibers that surround individual theca cells. JGCT is characteristically positive for inhibin and/or calretinin. Vimentin, keratin, and CD56 are positive in most cases, and WT-1 (nuclear) and S-100 are also frequently expressed. In contrast to other sex cord-stromal tumors, focal staining for EMA (<25% of tumor cells in most cases) can be seen in 25-50% of JGCTs. Most cases are positive for SMA, but desmin is negative.
What entities are in the differential diagnosis of juvenile granulosa cell tumor, and how can they be distinguished?
The diffuse and nodular pattern with follicular spaces, round to oval hyperchromatic nuclei without grooves, and frequent luteinized cells distinguish JGCT from the adult counterpart. Because of the luteinization, JGCTs may be mistaken for thecomas. Thecomas, however, lack the follicular spaces and generally the mitotic activity seen in JGCTs; the reticulin fiber pattern is also different in these tumors. Because of the young age of most patients with JGCT, germ cell tumors, such as yolk sac tumor or dysgerminoma, may be considered. However, follicular spaces and inhibin expression are not features of those tumors. Small cell carcinoma of the hypercalcemic type is also characteristically seen in young patients and has follicle-like spaces, but it lacks the estrogenic manifestations, theca cells, and inhibin expression of JGCT. The luteinized cells with pale to clear cytoplasm in some JGCTs may resemble clear cell carcinoma. But clear cell carcinoma is rare in patients of the age that is typical for JGCT; additionally, clear cell carcinoma lacks inhibin expression and is diffusely positive for EMA.