Group —> MoA Flashcards

1
Q

Antacids

A

Gastric Acid Neutralisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Antacid + Alginate

A

Gastric Acid Neutralisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

H2 Receptor Antagonist

A

Blockade of gastric H2 histamine receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Proton Pump Inhibitor (PPI)

A

Blockade of Stomach Acid Transporters (H+ Pump)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Pancreatic Enzymes

A

Restoration of Pancreatic Enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Bulk Laxatives

A

Polymers that aren’t broken down by normal digestion bulk up stool.

Water retained in the GI lumen, softening and increasing faecal bulk and promote increased motility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Faecal Softner

A

Lower surface tension at oil-water interface allows water or fats to enter the stool and soften it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Osmotic Laxative

A

Create an osmotic gradient which pulls water into the lumen of the colon leading to distensión of the colon and purgation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Stimulant Laxatives

A

Stimulates rectal mucosa (myenteric plexus) resulting in mass movements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Opioid Anti-Motility Agents

A

u-opioid receptor agonist in myenteric plexus blocking intestinal muscarinic receptors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Loop Diuretics

A

Inhibits Na/K/2Cl transporter in the Loop of Henle which causes less water to be reabsorbed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Thiazides

A

Decreases sodium and chloride reabsorption by inhibiting transporters.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Potassium Sparing Diuretics

A

Mineralocorticoid receptor blockade prevents production of co transporters leading to decreased K secretion and decreased Na reabsorption. (spironolactone, eplerenone)

Blockade of ENaC leads to decreased sodium reabsorption (amiloride)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Osmotic Diuretic

A

Increased plasma osmolarity causing water to leave cells and enter blood stream.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitor

A

Inhibiting carbonic anhydrase prevents the reabsoprtion of Bicarbonate and therefore sodium and water,

H2CO3 reaction in PCT.

Reduces aqueous humour volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

ACEi

A

Inhibits conversion of Angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2. Therefore blocking vasoconstriction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

ARBs

A

Blocks angiotensin 2 receptors and so blocks the renin-angiotensin system.

RAAS aim is to increase BP normally.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Neprilysin Inhibitor

A

Inhibtion of Natriuretic Peptide breakdown means increased concentration and so increased diuresis.

Given with ARBs because they prevent vasoconstriction?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Beta Blockers

A

Antagonism of beta adrenergic receptors leads to negative inotropy and chronotropy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Alpha Blockers

A

Antagonism of Alpha adrenergic receptors leads to Vasodilation and a decrease in TPR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

CCB

A

Antagonism of calcium channels leads to blockage of vascular smooth muscle contraction (decreased vasoconstriction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Nitrates

A

Nitric oxide release leads to smooth muscle relaxation and vasodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Sympathomimetics

A

Adrenergic stimulation leads to increased inotropy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Antiplatelets

A

Inhibition of Thromboxane synthesis (aspirin)

Inhibition of platelet activation by Adenosine Diphosphate (ADP) (clopidogrel)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Anticoagulant - Coumarin

A

Inhibition of Vitamin K epoxide reductase leads to decreased clotting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Anticoagulant - Direct Thrombin Inhibitor

A

Inhibition of Thrombin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Anticoagulants - Direct Factor Xa inhibitors

A

Inhibition of Factor Xa in the coagulation cascade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Anticoagulants - Heparins

A

Inactivation of thrombin and factor Xa via complexing antithrombin III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Thromoblytics/Fibrinolytics

A

Activation of plasminogen for proteolytic breakdown of thrombus fibrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

HMG-CoA Reductase inhibitors

A

Inhibition of mavelonate pathway required for cholesterol synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Class 1 Antiarrythmic

A

Voltage gated sodium channel blockage

Prolongs QT interval leading to increased QRS duration. Decrease chance of arrythmia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Class 2 Antiarrythmic

A

Beta adrenergic receptor blockage

reduction in adrenergic effects on rate and inotropy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Class 3 Antiarrythmic

A

Potassium channel blockage.

Evidence of beta blocker and calcium channel blocker properties

Prolongs QT interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Class 4 Antiarrythmic

A

Cardiac calcium channel blockade

Reduction of action potential and cardiac output.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Cardiac Glycosides

A

Reduces conductivity of AV node.

Decreased HR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Adenosine

A

Activates adenosine receptors

Causes hyperpolarisation

Slows conduction through AV node.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Antimuscarinic (Anticholinergic)

A

Blockage of vagal muscarinic ACh receptors

Increases HR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Magnesium

A

Unclear

Possibly alters Na K Ca ion balance via channels and transporters.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Beta-2-Adrenergic Agonist

A

Dilation of bronchial smooth muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Antimuscarinics

A

Blocks muscarinic receptors to promote bronchial dilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Methylxanthines

A

Bronchodilator by increasing cAMP in smooth muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Glucocorticoids

A

Reduction of inflammation and mucus production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Leukotriene Antagonist

A

Blockage of leukotriene receptors to reduce inflammation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Mucolytic

A

Synthetic DNAse 1 - breakdown of extracellular DNA to reduce sputum viscosity. (dornase alfa)

Cleavage of mucous glycoproteins to reduce viscosity (Carbocisteine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Dopaminergics

A

Increased dopamine synthesis and dopaminergic function. (Basal Ganglia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Dopa-decarboxylase inhibitor

A

Stops breakdown of Levodopa in the periphery by inhibiting dopa-decarboxylase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Monoamine Oxidase B Inhibitors (MAOI)

A

Inhibit the breakdown of dopamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Catechol-O-methyl transferase inhibitor (COMT)

A

Blockade of dopamine precursor breakdown by inhibition of COMT.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Anticholinergics

A

Muscarinic cholinergic receptor antagonist.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Dopamine-depleting drugs

A

Blocks VMAT (vesicular monoamine transporter) preventing uptake of DA into vesicles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Selective Serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)

A

Inhibition of serotonin (5HT) reuptake pump in synaptic cleft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Reversible inhibitor of monoamine oxidase type A (RIMA)

A

Inhibits monoamine oxidase A, preferentially decreases breakdown of serotonin and noradrenaline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Tricylic Antidepressants (TCA)

A

Inhibition of noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake in synaptic cleft.

H1 antagonist
M1 antagonist
Adrenergic Antagonist.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Atypical Antidepressants Venlafaxine and Reboxetine

A

Noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Atypical Antidepressant Buproprion

A

Noradrenaline and Dopamine reuptake inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Atypical Antidepressant Agomelatine

A

Melatonin agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Atypical Antidepressant Mirtazepine

A

Alpha-2-antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Antipsychotic 1st Generation

A

Selective D2 dopamine receptor blockade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Antipsychotic 2nd Generation

A

Selective D2 doapmine receptor blockade

5-HT receptor blockade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Mood Stabiliser

A

Unclear - possible neuronal calcium channel blockade.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Cholinesterase Inhibitor

A

Inhibition of Acetylcholinesterase (reversible)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

NMDA receptor antagonist

A

VD blocker of NDMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Anxiolytics

A

GABA Positive Allosteric Modulator (PAM) (y-subunit) increase GABA receptor acitivity.

5HT partial Agonist (buspirone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Non-Benzodiazepine Hypnotic

A

GABA Positive Allosteric Modulator (PAM) (y-subunit) increase GABA receptor acitivity. (y-subunit)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Anti-Epilepsy Drugs (AEDs)

A

Sodium channel blockers.

Ethosuximide = Calcium channel blocker

Slows down action potentials to make seizures less likely.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Benzodiazepines

A

GABA positive allosteric modulator (PAM) (y-subunit) causing increased activity of GABA receptors to enhance GABA effects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Benzodiazepine Antagonist

A

Antagonises GABA receptors and signalling.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Barbiturates

A

GABA Positive Allosteric Modulate (B-subunit) –> enhanced effect of GABA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Weak Analgesic / Antipyretic

A

Unclear - Possible COX inhibitor in CNS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

NSAID

A

Non-selective COX inhibitors, blockade of prostaglandin (healing proteins) synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

COX2-selective NSAIDs

A

COX-2 inhibition, localised prostaglandin (healing proteins) blockade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Weak Opioid Analgesics

A

Stimulation of analgesic opioid receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Strong Opioid Analgesics

A

Stimulation of analgesic opioid receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Partial/mixed agonist opioid analgesics

A

Modulation of analgesic opioid receptors (u and k)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Opioid Antagonist

A

Opioid Receptor Antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Opioid Addiction Management

A

Narcotic opioid replacement, opioid receptor agonist/modulator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Drugs for Neuropathic Pain

A

Voltage dependant calcium channel antagonist (gabapentin, pregabalin)

Tri-cyclic antidepressant (amitryptiline)

78
Q

Inhaled Analgesics

A

Unclear Mechanism

79
Q

General Anaesthetics

A

Unclear - possible enhancement of GABA function

Ketamine - NMDA receptor blockade.

80
Q

Local Anaesthetic

A

Voltage-gated sodium channel blockade

81
Q

Neuromuscular Blockers

A

Competitive antagonist at ACh receptor

Initially depolarisations and desensitisation of ACh receptor

82
Q

Drugs for reversing neuromuscular block

A

Oligosaccharide that forms a complex with NMBs removing them from Neuromuscular Junction (Sugammadex)

Peripheral Acetylcholinesterase Inhibitor (Neostigmine)

83
Q

Muscle Relaxants and Sedatives

A

BDZ - GABA Positive allosteric modulator to increase GABA receptor activity. (Temazepam)

Alpha-2-agonists inhibit sympathetic activity (Dexmedetomidine)

opiod receptors lead to muscle relaxation and sedation (fentanils)

84
Q

Anti-Emetic Cyclizine

A

Histamine H1 receptor blockade

85
Q

Anti-Emetic Domperidone and Metoclopramide

A

Dopamine D2 receptor blockade in the Chemoreceptor trigger zone

86
Q

Penicillins (Beta Lactam)

A

Beta-Lactam: Inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis.

87
Q

Carbapenems (Beta Lactam)

A

Meropenem

Beta-Lactam: Inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis.

88
Q

Cephalosporins (Beta Lactam)

A

Ceftriaxone

Beta-Lactam: Inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis

89
Q

Antifolate Antibiotic

A

Trimethoprim

Inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase

90
Q

Fluroquinolones

A

Ciprofloxacin

Inhibition of bacterial DNA gyrase

91
Q

Marcolide Antibiotic

A

Erthromycin, Azithromycin

Inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis

92
Q

Tetracycline Antibiotic

A

Doxycycline

Inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis

93
Q

Nitrofuran

A

Nitrofurantoin

Bacterial DNA interference

94
Q

Aminoglycoside

A

Gentamycin

Inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis

95
Q

Glycopeptide

A

Vancomycin

Inhibition of cell wall synthesis in Gram-Positive Bacteria

96
Q

Nitroimidazole (anti-anaerobe)

A

Metronidazole

Inhibition of bacterial DNA synthesis

97
Q

Anti-TB Drugs

A

Isoniazid, Ethambutol
- Inhibition of mycobacterium cell wall synthesis

Rifampicin
- Inhibition of mycobacterial RNA synthesis

98
Q

Therapeutic Cytokines

A

Interferon Alpha

- Activation of antiviral intracellular and immune responses

99
Q

DNA Polymerase Inhibitors

A

Aciclovir, Ganciclovir

- Virus Replication Blockade

100
Q

Neuraminidase Inhibitors

A

Oseltamivir

- Prevention of viral budding and infectivity

101
Q

Nucleoside Analogues

A

Ribavarin

- Disrupts viral RNA synthesis

102
Q

Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI)

A

Tenofovir

- Blockade of viral reverse transcriptase function for viral genetic replication.

103
Q

Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTI)

A

Efavirenz

- Blockade of viral reverse transcriptase function for viral genetic replication.

104
Q

Viral Protease Inhibitor

A

Lopinavir

- Blockade of viral protease required for virus particle assembly

105
Q

Integrase Inhibitor

A

Dolutegravir

- Disrupts integration of HIV genome into host chromosomes.

106
Q

Viral Fusion Inhibitors

A

Enfuvirtide

- Blockade of virus fusion to target cell membrane

107
Q

Chemokine receptor/CCR5 Antagonist

A

Maraviroc

- Blockade of HIV binding to co-factor for cell entry

108
Q

Triazole anti-fungal agent

A

Fluconazole

- Disruption of fungal membrane function.

109
Q

Blood glucose-reducing hormones

A

Insulin

- Stimulation of glucose uptake by cells (GLUT-2)

110
Q

Oral Biguanide

A

Metformin

  • Increases insulin sensitivity
  • Inhibits hepatic gluconeogenesis
111
Q

Sulphonylurea

A

Gliclazide

- Stimulates pancreatic insulin secretion

112
Q

Thiazolidinedione

A

Pioglitazone

- Increases insulin sensitivity in muscle and adipose tissue

113
Q

Glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor (GLP-1) agonist

A

Exenatide

  • Incretin (decreased blood glucose) analogue - improves glucose control.
  • Acts on the glucagon receptors to increase cell uptake of glucose.
114
Q

Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitor

A

Sitagliptin

- Reduces inactivation of incretins (hormones that reduce blood glucose)

115
Q

Lipase Inhibitor

A

Orlistat

- Inhibition of GI uptake of dietary fat

116
Q

Thyroid Hormones

A

T4, T3

- Sythetic hormones that act on thyroid hormone receptors.

117
Q

Antifolate Antiproliferative

A

Methotrexate

- Inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase and DNA synthesis for lymphocyte proliferation (decreased immune response)

118
Q

Antimetabolite Immunosuppressant

A

Azathioprine

- Unclear, possible inhibition of DNA synthesis and lymphocyte proliferation (decreased immune response)

119
Q

Cytokine Modulators

A

Adalimumab, Etanercept, Infliximab

- TNF-alpha blockade (decreased immune response)

120
Q

Aminosalicylates

A

Sulfasalazine, Mesalazine

  • Unclear, possible COX inhibition
  • Possible free radical scavenging, T cell suppression.
121
Q

Oral combination pill contraceptives

A

Mimics ovulation, reduces LH and FSH

122
Q

Oral mini-pill contraceptives Progestogen-only

A

Mimics ovulation, reduces LH and FSH, endometrial changes, thickening of cervical mucous

123
Q

Implants/Injectable Contraceptives

A

Mimics ovulation, reduces LH and FSH

124
Q

Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT)

A

Restores decreased hormone level and function via oestrogen to lessen symptoms of the menopause

Progesterone is added to prevent the thickening of the endometrium via oestrogen, and so reduce the cancer risk

125
Q

Induction of Labour

A

Prostaglandin E2 - stimulates cervical ripening

126
Q

Augmentation Agents

A

Stimulation of uterine contractions

127
Q

Antiprogestogen/Prostaglandin for medical termination

A

Steroidal antiprogestogen in combination with synthetic prostaglandin

  • Mifepristone blocks progesterone –> thinning of the uterine lining and preventing embryo implantation
  • Mesoprostol, synthetic prostaglandin, causes the uterus to contract and expel the embryo through the vagina
128
Q

Antifibrinolytic for Menorrhagia

A

Inhibits fibrin clot breakdown by plasmin

129
Q

NSAID (for dysmenorrhoea)

A

Inhibition of Prostaglandin Synthesis

130
Q

Alpha-1-blocker

- Tamsulosin

A

Smooth muscle relaxant acting on bladder neck

131
Q

Urinary Antispasmodic (Antimuscarinic)

A

Blockade of acetylcholine receptors leading to bladder smooth muscle relaxation

132
Q

Beta-3-Agonist

- Mirabegron

A

Stimulation of Beta-3 adrenergic receptors, leading to detrusor smooth muscle relaxation.

133
Q

Anti-Androgen

- Finasteride

A

Inhibition of synthesis of dihydrotestosterone which leads to prostatic growth.

134
Q

Anti-Histamine

A

H1 histamine receptor blockade

135
Q

Glucocorticoids

A

Intracellular transcription factor interactions, gene expression

136
Q

Calcineurin Inhibitors

  • Cyclosporin
  • Tacrolimus
A

Inhibition of T cell signalling

137
Q

Classical Alkylating Agent

- Cyclophosphamide

A

DNA crosslinking that changes the conformation of DNA strands

138
Q

Taxanes

A

Inhibition of microtubule assembly in mitotic spindle

139
Q

Vinca Alkaloids

A

Inhibition of microtubule assembly in mitotic spindle

140
Q

Antifolates

- Methotrexate

A

Inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase and DNA synthesis

141
Q

Antipyramidines

A

Inhibition of RNA and DNA synthesis

142
Q

Antipurines

A

Inhibition of RNA and DNA synthesis

143
Q

Anthracycline Antibiotics

- Doxorubicin

A

DNA intercalation

Inhibition of RNA and DNA synthesis

144
Q

Antineoplastic Monoclonal antibodies

- Trastuzumab

A

Targetting of cells overexpressing Human Epidermal Growth Factor Receptor-2 (HER-2) for tumour reduction and destruction

145
Q

Antineoplastic Monoclonal Antibodies

- Rituximab

A

Targeted destruction of CD20+ B cells

146
Q

Antineoplastic Monoclonal Antibodies

- Nivolumab

A

Stimulation of anti-tumour responses via blocking PD-1

147
Q

Immunomodulator

- Lenolidamide

A

Stimulation of T cell responses

148
Q

Selective oestrogen receptor modulator (SERM)

- Tamoxifen

A

Inhibition of oestrogen receptor function and cell proliferation in the breast

149
Q

Luteinising hormone releasing hormone (LHRH) receptor agonist
- Goserelin

A

Synthetic analogue of LHRH

Activates LHRH receptor funcction leading to sustained reduction in testosterone.

150
Q

Therapeutic Hormones for Calcium Homeostasis

- Calcitonin

A

Inhibits mobilisation of calcium from bones

151
Q

Bisphosphonates

A

Inhibits osteoclast function and bone resorption via osteoclast apoptosis

152
Q

Drugs for Hypocalcaemia

A

Restoration of calcium levels and metabolism

153
Q

Vitamin D

A

Restores Vitamin D levels

154
Q

Selective oestrogen receptor modulator (SERM) for Osteoporosis
- Raloxifene

A

Stimulation of oestrogen function in bone

155
Q

Denosumab

A

Inhibition of osteoclast function and bone resorption

156
Q

Ferrous Sulphate

A

Iron Provision

157
Q

Folic Acid

A

Supports nucleic acid synthesis

158
Q

Vitamin B12 (parenteral)

A

Enzyme Co-Factor

159
Q

N-Acetylcysteine Paracetamol Antidote

A

Restoring and maintaining hepatic intracellular glutathione required for paracetamol detoxification

160
Q

Chlordiazepoxide BDZ for alcohol withdrawal

A

Potentiation of GABAa receptor agonist

161
Q

Clomethiazole Non-BDZ hypnotic for alcohol withdrawal

A

GABA mimetic - GABAa receptor agonist

162
Q

Acamprostate for treatment of alcohol abuse

A

GABA mimetic - GABAa receptor agonist, possible NMDA receptor antagnosit

163
Q

Aliskiren (direct renin inhibitor)

A

Direct inhibition of renin enzymatic function and of angiotensin 1 generation

164
Q

Doxazosin (alpha 1 adrenergic antagonist)

A

Vasodilator, decreases TPR

165
Q

Clonidine (alpha 2 adrenergic agonist)

A

Stimulation of alpha 2 receptors driving vasodilation

166
Q

Ivabradine

A

Inhibition of cardiac l(funny) current in the SA node

167
Q

Antiplatelets Prasugrel and Ticagrelor

A

Purinergic receptor blockers

168
Q

Lithium Carbonate

A

Neuronal Calcium channel blockage

169
Q

Sumatriptan (Migraine treatment)

A

Stimulation of 5-HT receptors

170
Q

Topiramate (Migraine Prophylaxis)

A

Blockade of voltage-gated sodium and calcium channels

171
Q

Anti-emetic Ondansetron

A

Serotonin type 3 (5-HT3) receptor blockade

172
Q

Lincosamide

A

Clindamycin

Inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis

173
Q

Viral Entry inhibitor (Maraviroc)

A

Blockade of HIV binding to co-factor for cell entry

174
Q

Anti-helmintic (Mebendazole)

A

Disruption of microtubule assembly in helminth cells

175
Q

Pyrethrine anti-infestation (Permethrin)

A

Inhibits invertebrate neural sodium channels, causing paralysis of pests

176
Q

GLP-1 Agonist

A

Incretin analogue - improves glucose control

177
Q

SGLT-2 inhibitor

A

Blockade of renal glucose-sodium co-transporter

178
Q

PPAR-alpha activator (Fenofibrate)

A

Activation of PPAR-alpha transcription factor.

179
Q

Vasopressin Analogue (Desmopressin)

A

Agonist for ADH receptors

180
Q

Dopamine receptor agonists for endocrinology

A

Stimulation of D2 receptors in the pituitary gland for prolactin secretion

181
Q

Anti-thyroid drugs

A

Inhibition of Thyroid peroxidase (TPO) enzyme

182
Q

Thiopurine Antiproliferative

A

Inhibitor of purine synthesis- possible inhibition of DNA synthesis and lymphocyte proliferation

183
Q

Antimetabolite Antiproliferative Leflunomide

A

Inhibitor of pyrimidine synthesis, reducing DNA and RNA synthesis and lymphocyte proliferation

184
Q

Anti Gout agent Colchicine

A

Possible inhibition of inflammatory cell motility

185
Q

Xanthase oxidase inhibitor

A

Inhibition of uric acid synthesis

186
Q

NSAID for gout Indometacin

A

COX enzyme inhibition

187
Q

Progesterone receptor modulator Ulipristal

A

Stimulation of progesterone-like responses in pituitary and endometrium

188
Q

Inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase inhibitor (Mycophenolate)

A

Inhibition of purine synthesis; anti-proliferative

189
Q

Synthetic G-CSF (Filgrastim)

A

Stimulation of neutrophil production in bone marrow

190
Q

Hydroxocobalamin (paraenteral)

A

Vitamin B12 - Enzyme co-factor