Group 8 Flashcards
An organization implements a Remote Access Server (RAS). Once users correct to the server, digital certificates are used to authenticate their identity. What type of Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) would the organization use dring this authentication?
A. Transport layer security (TLS)
B. Message Digest 5 (MD5)
C. Lightweight Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)
D. Subscriber Identity Module (SIM)
Answer: A
Which of the following MUST a security professional do in order to quantify the value of a security program to organization management?
A. Report using metrics.
B. Rank priorities as high, medium, or low.
C. Communicate compliance obstacles.
D. Report en employee activities
Answer: A
A client has reviewed a vulnerability assessment report and has stated it is Inaccurate. The client states that the vulnerabilities listed are not valid because the host’s Operating System (OS) was not properly detected.
Where in the vulnerability assessment process did the erra MOST likely occur?
A. Detection
B. Enumeration
C. Reporting
D. Discovery
Answer: A
Which of the following objects should be removed FIRST prior to uploading code to public code repositories?
A. Security credentials
B. Known vulnerabilities
C. Inefficient algorithms
D. Coding mistakes
Answer: A
Which of the following is a common measure within a Local Area Network (LAN) to provide en additional level of security through segmentation?
A. Building Virtual Local Area Networks (VLAN)
B. Building Demilitarized Zones (DMZ)
C. Implementing a virus scanner
D. Implementing an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
Answer: A
What Is the FIRST step for a digital investigator to perform when using best practices to collect digital evidence from a potential crime scene?
A. Consult the lead investigate to team the details of the case and required evidence.
B. Assure that grounding procedures have been followed to reduce the loss of digital data due to static electricity discharge.
C. Update the Basic Input Output System (BIOS) and Operating System (OS) of any tools used to assure evidence admissibility.
D. Confirm that the appropriate warrants were issued to the subject of the investigation to eliminate illegal search claims.
Answer: D
How can an attacker exploit overflow to execute arbitrary code?
A. Modify a function’s return address.
B. Alter the address of the stack.
C. Substitute elements in the stack.
D. Move the stack pointer.
Answer: A
Which of the following is TRUE regarding equivalence class testing?
A. It is characterized by the stateless behavior of a process implemented In a function.
B. An entire partition can be covered by considering only one representative value from that partition.
C. Test inputs are obtained from the derived boundaries of the given functional specifications.
D. It is useful for testing communications protocols and graphical user interfaces.
Answer: C
Which of the following is the BEST way to protect against structured Query language (SQL) injection?
A. Enforce boundary checking.
B. Restrict use of SELECT command.
C. Restrict Hyper Text Markup Language (HTNL) source code access.
D. Use stored procedures.
Answer: D
Which of the following BEST describes the responsibilities of data owner?
A. Ensuing Quality and validation trough periodic audits for ongoing data integrity
B. Determining the impact the information has on the mission of the organization
C. Maintaining fundamental data availability, including data storage and archiving
D. Ensuring accessibility to appropriate users, maintaining appropriate levels of data security
Answer: B
Which area of embedded devices are most commonly attacked?
A. Application
B. Firmware
C. Protocol
D. Physical Interface
Answer: A
If virus infection is suspected, which of the following is the FIRST step for the user to take?
A. Unplug the computer from the network.
B. Save the opened files and shutdown the computer.
C. Report the incident to service desk.
D. Update the antivirus to the latest version.
Answer: C
Which of the following MOST applies to session initiation protocal (SIP) security?
A. It leverages Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) over Transport Layer Security (TLS).
B. It requires a Public Key Infrastructure (PKI).
C. It reuses security mechanisms derived from existing protocols.
D. It supports end-to-end security natively.
Answer: C
Which layer of the Open systems Interconnection (OSI) model is being targeted in the event of a Synchronization (SYN) flood attack?
A. Session
B. Transport
C. Network
D. Presentation
Answer: B
What is the document that describes the measures that have been implemented or planned to correct any deficiencies noted during the assessment of the security controls?
A. Business Impact Analysis (BIA)
B. Security Assessment Report (SAR)
C. Plan of Action and Milestones {POA&M)
D. Security Assessment Plan (SAP)
Answer: C
When dealing with shared, privilaged accounts, especially those for emergencies, what is the BEST way to assure non-repudiation of logs?
A. Regularity change the passwords,
B. implement a password vaulting solution.
C. Lock passwords in tamperproof envelopes in a safe.
D. Implement a strict access control policy.
Answer: B
Which of the following actions MUST be performed when using secure multipurpose internet mail Extension (S/MIME) before sending an encrypted message to a recipient?
A. Digitally sign foe message.
B. Obtain the recipients private key.
C. Obtain the recipient’s digital certificate.
D. Encrypt attachments.
Answer: A
Which type of test suite should be run for fast feedback during application develoment?
A. Full recession
B. End-to-end
C. Smoke
D. Specific functionality
Answer: C
What are the roles within a scrum methodoligy?
A. System owner, scrum master, and development team
B. prduct owner, scrum master, and scrum team
C. Scrum master, requirements manager, and development team
D. Scrum master, quality assurance team, and scrum team
Answer: B
What is the FIRST step required in establishing a records retention program?
A. Identify and inventory all records.
B. Identify and inventory all records storage locations
C. Classify records based on sensitivity.
D. Draft a records retention policy.
Answer: D
Which of the following was developed to support multiple protocols as well as provide as well as provide login, password, and error correction capabilities?
A. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
B. Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP)
C. Password Authentication Protocol (PAP)
D. Post Office Protocol (POP)
Answer: A
An organization discovers that its secure file transfer protocol (SFTP) server has been accessed by an unauthorized person to download an unreleased game. A recent security audit found weaknesses in some of the organization’s general information technology (IT) controls, specifically pertaining to software change control and security patch management, but not in other control areas.
Which of the following is the MOST probable attack vector used in the security breach?
A. Buffer overflow
B. Weak password able to lack of complexity rules
C. Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS)
D. Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
Answer: A
If a content management system (CMC) is implemented, which one of the following would occur?
A. Developers would no longer have access to production systems
B. The applications placed into production would be secure
C. Patching the systems would be completed more quickly
D. The test and production systems would be running the same software
Answer: D
Which of the following is the BEST identity-as-a-service (IDaaS) solution for validating users?
A. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
B. Security Assertion Markup Language (SAM.)
C. Single Sign-on (SSO)
D. Open Authentication (OAuth)
Answer: A
Which layer handle packet fragmentation and reassembly in the Open system interconnection (OSI) Reference model?
A. Session
B. Transport
C. Data Link
D. Network
Answer: B
What is the most effective form of media sanitization to ensure residual data cannot be retrieved?
A. Clearing
B. Destroying
C. Purging
D. Disposal
Answer: B
Why is lexical obfuscation in software development discouraged by many organizations?
A. Problems writing test cases
B. Problems recovering systems after disaster
C. Problems compiling the code
D. Problems maintaining data connections
Answer: C
What steps can be taken to prepare personally identifiable information (PII) for processing by a third party?
A. It is not necessary to protect PII as long as it is in the hands of the provider.
B. A security agreement with a Cloud Service Provider (CSP) was required so there is no concern.
C. The personal information should be maintained separately connected with a one-way reference.
D. The personal information can be hashed and then the data can be sent to an outside processor.
Answer: C
Why are mobile devices something difficult to investigate in a forensic examination?
A. There are no forensics tools available for examination.
B. They may have proprietary software installed to protect them.
C. They may contain cryptographic protection.
D. They have password-based security at logon.
Answer: B
Which of the following is a characteristic of a challenge/response authentication process?
A. Presenting distorted graphics of text for authentication
B. Transmitting a hash based on the user’s password
C. Using a password history blacklist
D. Requiring the use of non-consecutive numeric characters
Answer: A
Which of the following features is MOST effective in mitigating against theft of data on a corporate mobile device Which has stolen?
A. Whole device encryption with key escrow
B. Mobile Device Management (MDMJ with device wipe
C. Mobile device tracking with geolocation
D. Virtual Private Network (VPN) with traffic encryption
Answer: B
Which of the following will help identify the source internet protocol (IP) address of malware being exected on a computer?
A. List of open network connections
B. Display Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) network configuration information.
C. List of running processes
D. Display the Address Resolution Protocol (APP) table.
Answer: A
Which of the following is critical if an empolyee is dismissed due to violation of an organization’s acceptable use policy (Aup) ?
A. Appropriate documentation
B. privilege suspension
C. proxy records
D. Internet access logs
Answer: A
Which of the following findings would MOST likely indicate a high risk in a vulnerability assessment report?
A. Transmission control protocol (TCP) port 443 open
B. Non-standard system naming convention used
C. Unlicensed software installed
D. End of life system detected
Answer: A
Digital certificates used transport Layer security (TLS) support which of the following?
A. Server identify and data confidentially
B. Information input validation
C. Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)
D. Non-reputation controls and data encryption
Answer: A
Which would result in the GREATEST import following a breach to a cloud environment?
A. The hypervisor host Is poorly seared
B. The same Logical Unit Number (LLN) is used for ail VMs
C. Insufficient network segregation
D. Insufficient hardening of Virtual Machines (VM)
Answer: C
Which of the following in the BEST way to reduce the impact of an externally sourced flood attack?
A. Stock the source address at the firewall.
B. Have this service provide block the source address.
C. Block all inbound traffic until the flood ends.
D. Have the source service provider block the address
Answer: A
Which of the following methods MOST efficiently manages user accounts when using a third-party cloud-based application and directory solution?
A. Cloud directory
B. Directory synchronization
C. Assurance framework
D. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
Answer: B
Which of the following will have the MOST influence on the definition and creation of data classification and data ownership policies?
A. Data access control policies
B. Threat modeling
C. Common Criteria (CC)
D. Business Impact Analysis (BIA)
Answer: A
A corporate security policy specifies that all devices on the network must have updated operating system patches and anti-malware software. Which technology should be used to enforce this policy?
A. Network Address Translation (NAT)
B. Stateful Inspection
C. Packet filtering
D. Network Access Control (NAC)
Answer: D