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CISSP Dump > Group 1 > Flashcards

Group 1 Flashcards

1
Q

All of the following items should be included in a Business Impact Analysis (BIA) questionnaire EXCEPT questions that

A. determine the risk of a business interruption occurring
B. determine the technological dependence of the business processes
C. Identify the operational impacts of a business interruption
D. Identify the financial impacts of a business interruption

A

Answer: B

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2
Q

Which of the following actions will reduce risk to a laptop before traveling to a high risk area?

A. Examine the device for physical tampering
B. Implement more stringent baseline configurations
C. Purge or re-image the hard disk drive
D. Change access codes

A

Answer: D

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3
Q

Which of the following represents the GREATEST risk to data confidentiality?

A. Network redundancies are not implemented
B. Security awareness training is not completed
C. Backup tapes are generated unencrypted
D. Users have administrative privileges

A

Answer: C

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4
Q

What is the MOST important consideration from a data security perspective when an organization plans to relocate?

A. Ensure the fire prevention and detection systems are sufficient to protect personnel
B. Review the architectural plans to determine how many emergency exits are present
C. Conduct a gap analysis of a new facilities against existing security requirements
D. Revise the Disaster Recovery and Business Continuity (DR/BC) plan

A

Answer: C

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5
Q

A company whose Information Technology (IT) services are being delivered from a Tier 4 data center, is preparing a companywide Business Continuity Planning (BCP). Which of the following failures should the IT manager be concerned with?

A. Application
B. Storage
C. Power
D. Network

A

Answer: C

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6
Q

When assessing an organization’s security policy according to standards established by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 27001 and 27002, when can management responsibilities be defined?

A. Only when assets are clearly defined
B. Only when standards are defined
C. Only when controls are put in place
D. Only procedures are defined

A

Answer: A

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7
Q

Which of the following types of technologies would be the MOST cost-effective method to provide a reactive control for protecting personnel in public areas?

A. Install mantraps at the building entrances
B. Enclose the personnel entry area with polycarbonate plastic
C. Supply a duress alarm for personnel exposed to the public
D. Hire a guard to protect the public area

A

Answer: D

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8
Q

An important principle of defense in depth is that achieving information security requires a balanced focus on which PRIMARY elements?

A. Development, testing, and deployment
B. Prevention, detection, and remediation
C. People, technology, and operations
D. Certification, accreditation, and monitoring

A

Answer: C

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9
Q

Intellectual property rights are PRIMARY concerned with which of the following?

A. Owner’s ability to realize financial gain
B. Owner’s ability to maintain copyright
C. Right of the owner to enjoy their creation
D. Right of the owner to control delivery method

A

Answer: C

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10
Q

Which of the following is MOST important when assigning ownership of an asset to a department?

A. The department should report to the business owner
B. Ownership of the asset should be periodically reviewed
C. Individual accountability should be ensured
D. All members should be trained on their responsibilities

A

Answer: D

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11
Q

Which one of the following affects the classification of data?

A. Assigned security label
B. Multilevel Security (MLS) architecture
C. Minimum query size
D. Passage of time

A

Answer: D

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12
Q

Which of the following BEST describes the responsibilities of a data owner?

A. Ensuring quality and validation through periodic audits for ongoing data integrity
B. Maintaining fundamental data availability, including data storage and archiving
C. Ensuring accessibility to appropriate users, maintaining appropriate levels of data security
D. Determining the impact the information has on the mission of the organization

A

Answer: D

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13
Q

An organization has doubled in size due to a rapid market share increase. The size of the Information Technology (IT) staff has maintained pace with this growth. The organization hires several contractors whose onsite time is limited. The IT department has pushed its limits building servers and rolling out workstations and has a backlog of account management requests.Which contract is BEST in offloading the task from the IT staff?

A. Platform as a Service (PaaS)
B. Identity as a Service (IDaaS)
C. Desktop as a Service (DaaS)
D. Software as a Service (SaaS)

A

Answer: B

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14
Q

When implementing a data classification program, why is it important to avoid too much granularity?

A. The process will require too many resources
B. It will be difficult to apply to both hardware and software
C. It will be difficult to assign ownership to the data
D. The process will be perceived as having value

A

Answer: C

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15
Q

In a data classification scheme, the data is owned by the

A. system security managers
B. business managers
C. Information Technology (IT) managers
D. end users

A

Answer: B

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16
Q

Which of the following is an initial consideration when developing an information security management system?

A. Identify the contractual security obligations that apply to the organizations
B. Understand the value of the information assets
C. Identify the level of residual risk that is tolerable to management
D. Identify relevant legislative and regulatory compliance requirements

A

Answer: D

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17
Q

Which of the following is an effective control in preventing electronic cloning of Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) based access cards?

A. Personal Identity Verification (PIV)
B. Cardholder Unique Identifier (CHUID) authentication
C. Physical Access Control System (PACS) repeated attempt detection
D. Asymmetric Card Authentication Key (CAK) challenge-response

A

Answer: A

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18
Q

Which security service is served by the process of encryption plaintext with the sender’s private key and decrypting cipher text with the sender’s public key?

A. Confidentiality
B. Integrity
C. Identification
D. Availability

A

Answer: A

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19
Q

Which of the following mobile code security models relies only on trust?

A. Code signing
B. Class authentication
C. Sandboxing
D. Type safety

A

Answer: A

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20
Q

Which technique can be used to make an encryption scheme more resistant to a known plaintext attack?

A. Hashing the data before encryption
B. Hashing the data after encryption
C. Compressing the data after encryption
D. Compressing the data before encryption

A

Answer: D

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21
Q

What is the second phase of Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) key/certificate life-cycle management?

A. Implementation Phase
B. Initialization Phase
C. Cancellation Phase
D. Issued Phase

A

Answer: D

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22
Q

Which component of the Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP) specification contains the data required to estimate the severity of vulnerabilities identified automated vulnerability assessments?

A. Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE)
B. Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS)
C. Asset Reporting Format (ARF)
D. Open Vulnerability and Assessment Language (OVAL)

A

Answer: B

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23
Q

Who in the organization is accountable for classification of data information assets?

A. Data owner
B. Data architect
C. Chief Information Security Officer (CISO)
D. Chief Information Officer (CIO)

A

Answer: A

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24
Q

The use of private and public encryption keys is fundamental in the implementation of which of the following?

A. Diffie-Hellman algorithm
B. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
C. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
D. Message Digest 5 (MD5)

A

Answer: B

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25
Q

What is the purpose of an Internet Protocol (IP) spoofing attack?

A. To send excessive amounts of data to a process, making it unpredictable
B. To intercept network traffic without authorization
C. To disguise the destination address from a target’s IP filtering devices
D. To convince a system that it is communicating with a known entity

A

Answer: D

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26
Q

At what level of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model is data at rest on a Storage Area Network (SAN) located?

A. Link layer
B. Physical layer
C. Session layer
D. Application layer

A

Answer: D

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27
Q

In a Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) stack, which layer is responsible for negotiating and establishing a connection with another node?

A. Transport layer
B. Application layer
C. Network layer
D. Session layer

A

Answer: A

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28
Q

Which of the following is used by the Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) to determine packet formats?

A. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)
B. Link Control Protocol (LCP)
C. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
D. Packet Transfer Protocol (PTP)

A

Answer: B

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29
Q

Which of the following operates at the Network Layer of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model?

A. Packet filtering
B. Port services filtering
C. Content filtering
D. Application access control

A

Answer: A

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30
Q

An external attacker has compromised an organization’s network security perimeter and installed a sniffer onto an inside computer. Which of the following is the MOST effective layer of security the organization could have implemented to mitigate the attacker’s ability to gain further information?

A. Implement packet filtering on the network firewalls
B. Install Host Based Intrusion Detection Systems (HIDS)
C. Require strong authentication for administrators
D. Implement logical network segmentation at the switches

A

Answer: D

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31
Q

An input validation and exception handling vulnerability has been discovered on a critical web-based system. Which of the following is MOST suited to quickly implement a control?

A. Add a new rule to the application layer firewall
B. Block access to the service
C. Install an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
D. Patch the application source code

A

Answer: A

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32
Q

Which of the following is the BEST network defense against unknown types of attacks or stealth attacks in progress?
A. Intrusion Prevention Systems (IPS)
B. Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS)
C. Stateful firewalls
D. Network Behavior Analysis (NBA) tools

A

Answer: D

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33
Q

Which of the following factors contributes to the weakness of Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) protocol?

A. WEP uses a small range Initialization Vector (IV)
B. WEP uses Message Digest 5 (MD5)
C. WEP uses Diffie-Hellman
D. WEP does not use any Initialization Vector (IV)

A

Answer: A

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34
Q

A manufacturing organization wants to establish a Federated Identity Management (FIM) system with its 20 different supplier companies. Which of the following is the BEST solution for the manufacturing organization?

A. Trusted third-party certification
B. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
C. Security Assertion Markup language (SAML)
D. Cross-certification

A

Answer: C

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35
Q

Which of the following BEST describes an access control method utilizing cryptographic keys derived from a smart card private key that is embedded within mobile devices?

A. Derived credential
B. Temporary security credential
C. Mobile device credentialing service
D. Digest authentication

A

Answer: A

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36
Q

Users require access rights that allow them to view the average salary of groups of employees. Which control would prevent the users from obtaining an individual employee’s salary?

A. Limit access to predefined queries
B. Segregate the database into a small number of partitions each with a separate security level
C. Implement Role Based Access Control (RBAC)
D. Reduce the number of people who have access to the system for statistical purposes

A

Answer: C

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37
Q

What is the BEST approach for controlling access to highly sensitive information when employees have the same level of security clearance?

A. Audit logs
B. Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)
C. Two-factor authentication
D. Application of least privilege

A

Answer: B

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38
Q

Which of the following is of GREATEST assistance to auditors when reviewing system configurations?

A. Change management processes
B. User administration procedures
C. Operating System (OS) baselines
D. System backup documentation

A

Answer: A

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39
Q

In which of the following programs is it MOST important to include the collection of security process data?

A. Quarterly access reviews
B. Security continuous monitoring
C. Business continuity testing
D. Annual security training

A

Answer: B

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40
Q

A Virtual Machine (VM) environment has five guest Operating Systems (OS) and provides strong isolation. What MUST an administrator review to audit a user’s access to data files?

A. Host VM monitor audit logs
B. Guest OS access controls
C. Host VM access controls
D. Guest OS audit logs

A

Answer: A

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41
Q

Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit of using a formalized security testing report format and structure?

A. Executive audiences will understand the outcomes of testing and most appropriate next steps for corrective actions to be taken
B. Technical teams will understand the testing objectives, testing strategies applied, and business risk associated with each vulnerability
C. Management teams will understand the testing objectives and reputational risk to the organization
D. Technical and management teams will better understand the testing objectives, results of each test phase, and potential impact levels

A

Answer: D

42
Q

Which of the following could cause a Denial of Service (DoS) against an authentication system?

A. Encryption of audit logs
B. No archiving of audit logs
C. Hashing of audit logs
D. Remote access audit logs

A

Answer: D

43
Q

An organization is found lacking the ability to properly establish performance indicators for its Web hosting solution during an audit. What would be the MOST probable cause?

A. Absence of a Business Intelligence (BI) solution
B. Inadequate cost modeling
C. Improper deployment of the Service-Oriented Architecture (SOA)
D. Insufficient Service Level Agreement (SLA)

A

Answer: D

44
Q

Which of the following types of business continuity tests includes assessment of resilience to internal and external risks without endangering live operations?

A. Walkthrough
B. Simulation
C. Parallel
D. White box

A

Answer: C

45
Q

What is the PRIMARY reason for implementing change management?

A. Certify and approve releases to the environment
B. Provide version rollbacks for system changes
C. Ensure that all applications are approved
D. Ensure accountability for changes to the environment

A

Answer: D

46
Q

Which of the following is a PRIMARY advantage of using a third-party identity service?

A. Consolidation of multiple providers
B. Directory synchronization
C. Web based logon
D. Automated account management

A

Answer: D

47
Q

With what frequency should monitoring of a control occur when implementing Information Security Continuous Monitoring (ISCM) solutions?

A. Continuously without exception for all security controls
B. Before and after each change of the control
C. At a rate concurrent with the volatility of the security control
D. Only during system implementation and decommissioning

A

Answer: B

48
Q

What should be the FIRST action to protect the chain of evidence when a desktop computer is involved?

A. Take the computer to a forensic lab
B. Make a copy of the hard drive
C. Start documenting
D. Turn off the computer

A

Answer: C

49
Q

What is the MOST important step during forensic analysis when trying to learn the purpose of an unknown application?

A. Disable all unnecessary services
B. Ensure chain of custody
C. Prepare another backup of the system
D. Isolate the system from the network

A

Answer: D

50
Q

A Business Continuity Plan/Disaster Recovery Plan (BCP/DRP) will provide which of the following?

A. Guaranteed recovery of all business functions
B. Minimization of the need decision making during a crisis
C. Insurance against litigation following a disaster
D. Protection from loss of organization resources

A

Answer: D

51
Q

When is a Business Continuity Plan (BCP) considered to be valid?

A. When it has been validated by the Business Continuity (BC) manager
B. When it has been validated by the board of directors
C. When it has been validated by all threat scenarios
D. When it has been validated by realistic exercises

A

Answer: D

52
Q

Recovery strategies of a Disaster Recovery planning (DRIP) MUST be aligned with which of the following?

A. Hardware and software compatibility issues
B. Applications’ critically and downtime tolerance
C. Budget constraints and requirements
D. Cost/benefit analysis and business objectives

A

Answer: D

53
Q

Which of the following is the FIRST step in the incident response process?

A. Determine the cause of the incident
B. Disconnect the system involved from the network
C. Isolate and contain the system involved
D. Investigate all symptoms to confirm the incident

A

Answer: D

54
Q

A continuous information security monitoring program can BEST reduce risk through which of the following?

A. Collecting security events and correlating them to identify anomalies
B. Facilitating system-wide visibility into the activities of critical user accounts
C. Encompassing people, process, and technology
D. Logging both scheduled and unscheduled system changes

A

Answer: B

55
Q

What would be the MOST cost effective solution for a Disaster Recovery (DR) site given that the organization’s systems cannot be unavailable for more than 24 hours?

A. Warm site
B. Hot site
C. Mirror site
D. Cold site

A

Answer: A

56
Q

A Java program is being developed to read a file from computer A and write it to computer B, using a third computer C. The program is not working as expected. What is the MOST probable security feature of Java preventing the program from operating as intended?

A. Least privilege
B. Privilege escalation
C. Defense in depth
D. Privilege bracketing

A

Answer: A

57
Q

Which of the following is the PRIMARY risk with using open source software in a commercial software construction?

A. Lack of software documentation
B. License agreements requiring release of modified code
C. Expiration of the license agreement
D. Costs associated with support of the software

A

Answer: D

58
Q

When in the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) MUST software security functional requirements be defined?

A. After the system preliminary design has been developed and the data security categorization has been performed
B. After the vulnerability analysis has been performed and before the system detailed design begins
C. After the system preliminary design has been developed and before the data security categorization begins
D. After the business functional analysis and the data security categorization have been performed

A

Answer: D

59
Q

Which of the following is the BEST method to prevent malware from being introduced into a production environment?

A. Purchase software from a limited list of retailers
B. Verify the hash key or certificate key of all updates
C. Do not permit programs, patches, or updates from the Internet
D. Test all new software in a segregated environment

A

Answer: D

60
Q

The configuration management and control task of the certification and accreditation process is incorporated in which phase of the System Development Life Cycle (SDLC)?

A. System acquisition and development
B. System operations and maintenance
C. System initiation
D. System implementation

A

Answer: A

61
Q

What is the BEST approach to addressing security issues in legacy web applications?

A. Debug the security issues
B. Migrate to newer, supported applications where possible
C. Conduct a security assessment
D. Protect the legacy application with a web application firewall

A

Answer: D

62
Q

Which of the following is a web application control that should be put into place to prevent exploitation of Operating System (OS) bugs?

A. Check arguments in function calls
B. Test for the security patch level of the environment
C. Include logging functions
D. Digitally sign each application module

A

Answer: B

63
Q

Which of the following methods protects Personally Identifiable Information (PII) by use of a full replacement of the data element?

A. Transparent Database Encryption (TDE)
B. Column level database encryption
C. Volume encryption
D. Data tokenization

A

Answer: D

64
Q

Which of the following elements MUST a compliant EU-US Safe Harbor Privacy Policy contain?

A. An of how long the data subject’s collected information will be retained for and how it will be eventually disposed.
B. An of who can be contacted at the organization collecting the information if corrections are required by the data subject.
C. An of the regulatory frameworks and compliance standards the information collecting organization adheres to.
D. An of all the technologies employed by the collecting organization in gathering information on the data subject.

A

Answer: B

65
Q

What is the MOST effective countermeasure to a malicious code attack against a mobile system?

A. Sandbox
B. Change control
C. Memory management
D. Public-Key Infrastructure (PKI)

A

Answer: A

66
Q

Which of the following is the BEST mitigation from phishing attacks?

A. Network activity monitoring
B. Security awareness training
C. Corporate policy and procedures
D. Strong file and directory permissions

A

Answer: B

67
Q

Which of the following is a physical security control that protects Automated Teller Machines (ATM) from skimming?

A. Anti-tampering
B. Secure card reader
C. Radio Frequency (RF) scanner
D. Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)

A

Answer: A

68
Q

Which of the following is an essential element of a privileged identity lifecycle management?

A. Regularly perform account re-validation and approval
B. Account provisioning based on multi-factor authentication
C. Frequently review performed activities and request justification
D. Account information to be provided by supervisor or line manager

A

Answer: A

69
Q

Which of the following is ensured when hashing files during chain of custody handling?

A. Availability
B. Accountability
C. Integrity
D. Non-repudiation

A

Answer: C

70
Q

Which Hyper Text Markup Language 5 (HTML5) option presents a security challenge for network data leakage prevention and/or monitoring?

A. Cross Origin Resource Sharing (CORS)
B. WebSockets
C. Document Object Model (DOM) trees
D. Web Interface Definition Language (IDL)

A

Answer: B

71
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE of black box testing?

A. Only the functional specifications are known to the test planner.
B. Only the source code and the design documents are known to the test planner.
C. Only the source code and functional specifications are known to the test planner.
D. Only the design documents and the functional specifications are known to the test planner.

A

Answer: A

72
Q

A software scanner identifies a region within a binary image having high entropy. What does this MOST likely indicate?

A. Encryption routines
B. Random number generator
C. Obfuscated code
D. Botnet command and control

A

Answer: C

73
Q

Which of the following is a limitation of the Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) as it relates to conducting code review?

A. It has normalized severity ratings.
B. It has many worksheets and practices to implement.
C. It aims to calculate the risk of published vulnerabilities.
D. It requires a robust risk management framework to be put in place.

A

Answer: C

74
Q

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when storing and processing Personally Identifiable Information (PII)?

A. Encrypt and hash all PII to avoid disclosure and tampering.
B. Store PII for no more than one year.
C. Avoid storing PII in a Cloud Service Provider.
D. Adherence to collection limitation laws and regulations.

A

Answer: D

75
Q

Which of the following assessment metrics is BEST used to understand a system’s vulnerability to potential exploits?

A. Determining the probability that the system functions safely during any time period
B. Quantifying the system’s available services
C. Identifying the number of security flaws within the system
D. Measuring the system’s integrity in the presence of failure

A

Answer: C

76
Q

Which of the following is an effective method for avoiding magnetic media data remanence?

A. Degaussing
B. Encryption
C. Data Loss Prevention (DLP)
D. Authentication

A

Answer: A

77
Q

Which of the following MUST be part of a contract to support electronic discovery of data stored in a cloud environment?

A. Integration with organizational directory services for authentication
B. Tokenization of data
C. Accommodation of hybrid deployment models
D. Identification of data location

A

Answer: D

78
Q

When transmitting information over public networks, the decision to encrypt it should be based on

A. the estimated monetary value of the information.
B. whether there are transient nodes relaying the transmission.
C. the level of confidentiality of the information.
D. the volume of the information.

A

Answer: C

79
Q

Logical access control programs are MOST effective when they are

A. approved by external auditors.
B. combined with security token technology.
C. maintained by computer security officers.
D. made part of the operating system.

A

Answer: D

80
Q

Which one of the following considerations has the LEAST impact when considering transmission security?

A. Network availability
B. Data integrity
C. Network bandwidth
D. Node locations

A

Answer: C

81
Q

What principle requires that changes to the plaintext affect many parts of the ciphertext?

A. Diffusion
B. Encapsulation
C. Obfuscation
D. Permutation

A

Answer: A

82
Q

Which one of these risk factors would be the LEAST important consideration in choosing a building site for a new computer facility?

A. Vulnerability to crime
B. Adjacent buildings and businesses
C. Proximity to an airline flight path
D. Vulnerability to natural disasters

A

Answer: C

83
Q

Which one of the following transmission media is MOST effective in preventing data interception?

A. Microwave
B. Twisted-pair
C. Fiber optic
D. Coaxial cable

A

Answer: C

84
Q

Which security action should be taken FIRST when computer personnel are terminated from their jobs?

A. Remove their computer access
B. Require them to turn in their badge
C. Conduct an exit interview
D. Reduce their physical access level to the facility

A

Answer: A

85
Q

A practice that permits the owner of a data object to grant other users access to that object would usually provide

A. Mandatory Access Control (MAC).
B. owner-administered control.
C. owner-dependent access control.
D. Discretionary Access Control (DAC).

A

Answer: D

86
Q

The type of authorized interactions a subject can have with an object is

A. control.
B. permission.
C. procedure.
D. protocol.

A

Answer: B

87
Q

Why MUST a Kerberos server be well protected from unauthorized access?

A. It contains the keys of all clients.
B. It always operates at root privilege.
C. It contains all the tickets for services.
D. It contains the Internet Protocol (IP) address of all network entities.

A

Answer: A

88
Q

Which one of the following effectively obscures network addresses from external exposure when implemented on a firewall or router?

A. Network Address Translation (NAT)
B. Application Proxy
C. Routing Information Protocol (RIP) Version 2
D. Address Masking

A

Answer: A

89
Q

While impersonating an Information Security Officer (ISO), an attacker obtains information from company employees about their User IDs and passwords. Which method of information gathering has the attacker used?

A. Trusted path
B. Malicious logic
C. Social engineering
D. Passive misuse

A

Answer: C

90
Q

Why must all users be positively identified prior to using multi-user computers?

A. To provide access to system privileges
B. To provide access to the operating system
C. To ensure that unauthorized persons cannot access the computers
D. To ensure that management knows what users are currently logged on

A

Answer: C

91
Q

The birthday attack is MOST effective against which one of the following cipher technologies?

A. Chaining block encryption
B. Asymmetric cryptography
C. Cryptographic hash
D. Streaming cryptography

A

Answer: C

92
Q

An advantage of link encryption in a communications network is that it

A. makes key management and distribution easier.
B. protects data from start to finish through the entire network.
C. improves the efficiency of the transmission.
D. encrypts all information, including headers and routing information.

A

Answer: D

93
Q

Which one of the following is the MOST important in designing a biometric access system if it is essential that no one other than authorized individuals are admitted?

A. False Acceptance Rate (FAR)
B. False Rejection Rate (FRR)
C. Crossover Error Rate (CER)
D. Rejection Error Rate

A

Answer: A

94
Q

What is the term commonly used to refer to a technique of authenticating one machine to another by forging packets from a trusted source?

A. Man-in-the-Middle (MITM) attack
B. Smurfing
C. Session redirect
D. Spoofing

A

Answer: D

95
Q

The PRIMARY purpose of a security awareness program is to

A. ensure that everyone understands the organization’s policies and procedures.
B. communicate that access to information will be granted on a need-to-know basis.
C. warn all users that access to all systems will be monitored on a daily basis.
D. comply with regulations related to data and information protection.

A

Answer: A

96
Q

As one component of a physical security system, an Electronic Access Control (EAC) token is BEST known for its ability to

A. overcome the problems of key assignments.
B. monitor the opening of windows and doors.
C. trigger alarms when intruders are detected.
D. lock down a facility during an emergency.

A

Answer: A

97
Q

Which one of the following is a fundamental objective in handling an incident?

A. To restore control of the affected systems
B. To confiscate the suspect’s computers
C. To prosecute the attacker
D. To perform full backups of the system

A

Answer: A

98
Q

In the area of disaster planning and recovery, what strategy entails the presentation of information about the plan?

A. Communication
B. Planning
C. Recovery
D. Escalation

A

Answer: A

99
Q

The process of mutual authentication involves a computer system authenticating a user and authenticating the

A. user to the audit process.
B. computer system to the user.
C. user’s access to all authorized objects.
D. computer system to the audit process.

A

Answer: B

100
Q

What maintenance activity is responsible for defining, implementing, and testing updates to application systems?

A. Program change control
B. Regression testing
C. Export exception control
D. User acceptance testing

A

Answer: A

CISSP Dump (12 decks)

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