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CISSP Dump > Group 2 > Flashcards

Group 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Which one of the following describes granularity?

A. Maximum number of entries available in an Access Control List (ACL)
B. Fineness to which a trusted system can authenticate users
C. Number of violations divided by the number of total accesses
D. Fineness to which an access control system can be adjusted

A

Answer: D

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2
Q

In a basic SYN flood attack, what is the attacker attempting to achieve?

A. Exceed the threshold limit of the connection queue for a given service
B. Set the threshold to zero for a given service
C. Cause the buffer to overflow, allowing root access
D. Flush the register stack, allowing hijacking of the root account

A

Answer: A

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3
Q

The FIRST step in building a firewall is to

A. assign the roles and responsibilities of the firewall administrators.
B. define the intended audience who will read the firewall policy.
C. identify mechanisms to encourage compliance with the policy.
D. perform a risk analysis to identify issues to be addressed.

A

Answer: D

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4
Q

A system has been scanned for vulnerabilities and has been found to contain a number of communication ports that have been opened without authority. To which of the following might this system have been subjected?

A. Trojan horse
B. Denial of Service (DoS)
C. Spoofing
D. Man-in-the-Middle (MITM)

A

Answer: A

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5
Q

Which type of control recognizes that a transaction amount is excessive in accordance with corporate policy?

A. Detection
B. Prevention
C. Investigation
D. Correction

A

Answer: A

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6
Q

Which of the following defines the key exchange for Internet Protocol Security (IPSec)?

A. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) key exchange
B. Internet Key Exchange (IKE)
C. Security Key Exchange (SKE)
D. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)

A

Answer: B

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7
Q

The overall goal of a penetration test is to determine a system’s

A. ability to withstand an attack.
B. capacity management.
C. error recovery capabilities.
D. reliability under stress.

A

Answer: A

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8
Q

When constructing an Information Protection Policy (IPP), it is important that the stated rules are necessary, adequate, and

A. flexible.
B. confidential.
C. focused.
D. achievable.

A

Answer: D

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9
Q

Which of the following is a security limitation of File Transfer Protocol (FTP)?

A. Passive FTP is not compatible with web browsers.
B. Anonymous access is allowed.
C. FTP uses Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) ports 20 and 21.
D. Authentication is not encrypted.

A

Answer: D

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10
Q

In Business Continuity Planning (BCP), what is the importance of documenting business processes?

A. Provides senior management with decision-making tools
B. Establishes and adopts ongoing testing and maintenance strategies
C. Defines who will perform which functions during a disaster or emergency
D. Provides an understanding of the organization’s interdependencies

A

Answer: D

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11
Q

The Structured Query Language (SQL) implements Discretionary Access Controls (DAC) using

A. INSERT and DELETE.
B. GRANT and REVOKE.
C. PUBLIC and PRIVATE.
D. ROLLBACK and TERMINATE.

A

Answer: B

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12
Q

Which layer of the Open Systems Interconnections (OSI) model implementation adds information concerning the logical connection between the sender and receiver?

A. Physical
B. Session
C. Transport
D. Data-Link

A

Answer: C

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13
Q

Which of the following is a network intrusion detection technique?

A. Statistical anomaly
B. Perimeter intrusion
C. Port scanning
D. Network spoofing

A

Answer: C

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14
Q

Internet Protocol (IP) source address spoofing is used to defeat

A. address-based authentication.
B. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP).
C. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP).
D. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) hijacking.

A

Answer: A

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15
Q

Which of the following is an authentication protocol in which a new random number is generated uniquely for each login session?

A. Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
B. Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP)
C. Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)
D. Password Authentication Protocol (PAP)

A

Answer: A

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16
Q

What security management control is MOST often broken by collusion?

A. Job rotation
B. Separation of duties
C. Least privilege model
D. Increased monitoring

A

Answer: B

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17
Q

An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is generating alarms that a user account has over 100 failed login attempts per minute. A sniffer is placed on the network, and a variety of passwords for that user are noted. Which of the following is MOST likely occurring?

A. A dictionary attack
B. A Denial of Service (DoS) attack
C. A spoofing attack
D. A backdoor installation

A

Answer: A

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18
Q

An engineer in a software company has created a virus creation tool. The tool can generate thousands of polymorphic viruses. The engineer is planning to use the tool in a controlled environment to test the company’s next generation virus scanning software. Which would BEST describe the behavior of the engineer and why?

A. The behavior is ethical because the tool will be used to create a better virus scanner.
B. The behavior is ethical because any experienced programmer could create such a tool.
C. The behavior is not ethical because creating any kind of virus is bad.
D. The behavior is not ethical because such a tool could be leaked on the Internet.

A

Answer: A

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19
Q

Which of the following Disaster Recovery (DR) sites is the MOST difficult to test?

A. Hot site
B. Cold site
C. Warm site
D. Mobile site

A

Answer: B

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20
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE for point-to-point microwave transmissions?

A. They are not subject to interception due to encryption.
B. Interception only depends on signal strength.
C. They are too highly multiplexed for meaningful interception.
D. They are subject to interception by an antenna within proximity.

A

Answer: D

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21
Q

The key benefits of a signed and encrypted e-mail include

A. confidentiality, authentication, and authorization.
B. confidentiality, non-repudiation, and authentication.
C. non-repudiation, authorization, and authentication.
D. non-repudiation, confidentiality, and authorization.

A

Answer: B

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22
Q

Copyright provides protection for which of the following?

A. Ideas expressed in literary works
B. A particular expression of an idea
C. New and non-obvious inventions
D. Discoveries of natural phenomena

A

Answer: B

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23
Q

Which of the following is TRUE about Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) testing?

A. Operational networks are usually shut down during testing.
B. Testing should continue even if components of the test fail.
C. The company is fully prepared for a disaster if all tests pass.
D. Testing should not be done until the entire disaster plan can be tested.

A

Answer: B

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24
Q

Which of the following is the FIRST step of a penetration test plan?

A. Analyzing a network diagram of the target network
B. Notifying the company’s customers
C. Obtaining the approval of the company’s management
D. Scheduling the penetration test during a period of least impact

A

Answer: C

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25
Q

Which of the following actions should be performed when implementing a change to a database schema in a production system?

A. Test in development, determine dates, notify users, and implement in production
B. Apply change to production, run in parallel, finalize change in production, and develop a back-out strategy
C. Perform user acceptance testing in production, have users sign off, and finalize change
D. Change in development, perform user acceptance testing, develop a back-out strategy, and implement change

A

Answer: D

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26
Q

Which of the following is a method used to prevent Structured Query Language (SQL) injection attacks?

A. Data compression
B. Data classification
C. Data warehousing
D. Data validation

A

Answer: D

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27
Q

The BEST method of demonstrating a company’s security level to potential customers is

A. a report from an external auditor.
B. responding to a customer’s security questionnaire.
C. a formal report from an internal auditor.
D. a site visit by a customer’s security team.

A

Answer: A

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28
Q

Which of the following does Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) support?

A. Multicast and broadcast messages
B. Coordination of IEEE 802.11 protocols
C. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) systems
D. Synchronization of multiple devices

A

Answer: C

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29
Q

The stringency of an Information Technology (IT) security assessment will be determined by the

A. system’s past security record.
B. size of the system’s database.
C. sensitivity of the system’s datA.
D. age of the system.

A

Answer: C

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30
Q

What should be the INITIAL response to Intrusion Detection System/Intrusion Prevention System (IDS/IPS) alerts?

A. Ensure that the Incident Response Plan is available and current.
B. Determine the traffic’s initial source and block the appropriate port.
C. Disable or disconnect suspected target and source systems.
D. Verify the threat and determine the scope of the attack.

A

Answer: D

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31
Q

At a MINIMUM, a formal review of any Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) should be conducted

A. monthly.
B. quarterly.
C. annually.
D. bi-annually.

A

Answer: C

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32
Q

Checking routing information on e-mail to determine it is in a valid format and contains valid information is an example of which of the following anti-spam approaches?

A. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) blacklist
B. Reverse Domain Name System (DNS) lookup
C. Hashing algorithm
D. Header analysis

A

Answer: D

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33
Q

During an audit of system management, auditors find that the system administrator has not been trained. What actions need to be taken at once to ensure the integrity of systems?

A. A review of hiring policies and methods of verification of new employees
B. A review of all departmental procedures
C. A review of all training procedures to be undertaken
D. A review of all systems by an experienced administrator

A

Answer: D

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34
Q

An internal Service Level Agreement (SLA) covering security is signed by senior managers and is in place. When should compliance to the SLA be reviewed to ensure that a good security posture is being delivered?

A. As part of the SLA renewal process
B. Prior to a planned security audit
C. Immediately after a security breach
D. At regularly scheduled meetings

A

Answer: D

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35
Q

Which of the following is the best practice for testing a Business Continuity Plan (BCP)?

A. Test before the IT Audit
B. Test when environment changes
C. Test after installation of security patches
D. Test after implementation of system patches

A

Answer: B

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36
Q

Which of the following MUST be done when promoting a security awareness program to senior management?

A. Show the need for security; identify the message and the audience
B. Ensure that the security presentation is designed to be all-inclusive
C. Notify them that their compliance is mandatory
D. Explain how hackers have enhanced information security

A

Answer: D

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37
Q

Which of the following is a security feature of Global Systems for Mobile Communications (GSM)?

A. It uses a Subscriber Identity Module (SIM) for authentication.
B. It uses encrypting techniques for all communications.
C. The radio spectrum is divided with multiple frequency carriers.
D. The signal is difficult to read as it provides end-to-end encryption.

A

Answer: A

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38
Q

A disadvantage of an application filtering firewall is that it can lead to

A. a crash of the network as a result of user activities.
B. performance degradation due to the rules applied.
C. loss of packets on the network due to insufficient bandwidth.
D. Internet Protocol (IP) spoofing by hackers.

A

Answer: B

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39
Q

What is the MOST important purpose of testing the Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP)?

A. Evaluating the efficiency of the plan
B. Identifying the benchmark required for restoration
C. Validating the effectiveness of the plan
D. Determining the Recovery Time Objective (RTO)

A

Answer: C

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40
Q

Following the completion of a network security assessment, which of the following can BEST be demonstrated?

A. The effectiveness of controls can be accurately measured
B. A penetration test of the network will fail
C. The network is compliant to industry standards
D. All unpatched vulnerabilities have been identified

A

Answer: A

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41
Q

Passive Infrared Sensors (PIR) used in a non-climate controlled environment should

A. reduce the detected object temperature in relation to the background temperature.
B. increase the detected object temperature in relation to the background temperature.
C. automatically compensate for variance in background temperature.
D. detect objects of a specific temperature independent of the background temperature.

A

Answer: C

42
Q

The use of strong authentication, the encryption of Personally Identifiable Information (PII) on database servers, application security reviews, and the encryption of data transmitted across networks provide

A. data integrity.
B. defense in depth.
C. data availability.
D. non-repudiation.

A

Answer: B

43
Q

An organization is selecting a service provider to assist in the consolidation of multiple computing sites including development, implementation and ongoing support of various computer systems. Which of the following MUST be verified by the Information Security Department?

A. The service provider’s policies are consistent with ISO/IEC27001 and there is evidence that the service provider is following those policies.
B. The service provider will segregate the data within its systems and ensure that each region’s policies are met.
C. The service provider will impose controls and protections that meet or exceed the current systems controls and produce audit logs as verification.
D. The service provider’s policies can meet the requirements imposed by the new environment even if they differ from the organization’s current policies.

A

Answer: D

44
Q

Which of the following is an appropriate source for test data?

A. Production data that is secured and maintained only in the production environment.
B. Test data that has no similarities to production datA.
C. Test data that is mirrored and kept up-to-date with production datA.
D. Production data that has been sanitized before loading into a test environment.

A

Answer: D

45
Q

What is the FIRST step in developing a security test and its evaluation?

A. Determine testing methods
B. Develop testing procedures
C. Identify all applicable security requirements
D. Identify people, processes, and products not in compliance

A

Answer: C

46
Q

How can a forensic specialist exclude from examination a large percentage of operating system files residing on a copy of the target system?

A. Take another backup of the media in question then delete all irrelevant operating system files.
B. Create a comparison database of cryptographic hashes of the files from a system with the same operating system and patch level.
C. Generate a message digest (MD) or secure hash on the drive image to detect tampering of the media being examined.
D. Discard harmless files for the operating system, and known installed programs.

A

Answer: B

47
Q

Which one of the following is a threat related to the use of web-based client side input validation?

A. Users would be able to alter the input after validation has occurred
B. The web server would not be able to validate the input after transmission
C. The client system could receive invalid input from the web server
D. The web server would not be able to receive invalid input from the client

A

Answer: A

48
Q

To prevent inadvertent disclosure of restricted information, which of the following would be the LEAST effective process for eliminating data prior to the media being discarded?

A. Multiple-pass overwriting
B. Degaussing
C. High-level formatting
D. Physical destruction

A

Answer: C

49
Q

Multi-threaded applications are more at risk than single-threaded applications to

A. race conditions.
B. virus infection.
C. packet sniffing.
D. database injection.

A

Answer: A

50
Q

Which of the following is a potential risk when a program runs in privileged mode?

A. It may serve to create unnecessary code complexity
B. It may not enforce job separation duties
C. It may create unnecessary application hardening
D. It may allow malicious code to be inserted

A

Answer: D

51
Q

The goal of software assurance in application development is to

A. enable the development of High Availability (HA) systems.
B. facilitate the creation of Trusted Computing Base (TCB) systems.
C. prevent the creation of vulnerable applications.
D. encourage the development of open source applications.

A

Answer: C

52
Q

What is the ultimate objective of information classification?

A. To assign responsibility for mitigating the risk to vulnerable systems
B. To ensure that information assets receive an appropriate level of protection
C. To recognize that the value of any item of information may change over time
D. To recognize the optimal number of classification categories and the benefits to be gained from

A

Answer: B

53
Q

In a financial institution, who has the responsibility for assigning the classification to a piece of information?

A. Chief Financial Officer (CFO)
B. Chief Information Security Officer (CISO)
C. Originator or nominated owner of the information
D. Department head responsible for ensuring the protection of the information

A

Answer: C

54
Q

An organization is designing a large enterprise-wide document repository system. They plan to have several different classification level areas with increasing levels of controls. The BEST way to ensure document confidentiality in the repository is to

A. encrypt the contents of the repository and document any exceptions to that requirement.
B. utilize Intrusion Detection System (IDS) set drop connections if too many requests for documents are detected.
C. keep individuals with access to high security areas from saving those documents into lower security areas.
D. require individuals with access to the system to sign Non-Disclosure Agreements (NDA).

A

Answer: A

55
Q

What technique BEST describes antivirus software that detects viruses by watching anomalous behavior?

A. Signature
B. Inference
C. Induction
D. Heuristic

A

Answer: D

56
Q

Contingency plan exercises are intended to do which of the following?

A. Train personnel in roles and responsibilities
B. Validate service level agreements
C. Train maintenance personnel
D. Validate operation metrics

A

Answer: A

57
Q

Two companies wish to share electronic inventory and purchase orders in a supplier and client relationship. What is the BEST security solution for them?

A. Write a Service Level Agreement (SLA) for the two companies.
B. Set up a Virtual Private Network (VPN) between the two companies.
C. Configure a firewall at the perimeter of each of the two companies.
D. Establish a File Transfer Protocol (FTP) connection between the two companies.

A

Answer: B

58
Q

Including a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) in the design of a computer system is an example of a technique to what?

A. Interface with the Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)
B. Improve the quality of security software
C. Prevent Denial of Service (DoS) attacks
D. Establish a secure initial state

A

Answer: D

59
Q

What a patch management program?

A. Perform automatic deployment of patches.
B. Monitor for vulnerabilities and threats.
C. Prioritize vulnerability remediation.
D. Create a system inventory.

A

Answer: D

60
Q

Which of the following is an open standard for exchanging authentication and authorization data between parties?

A. Wired markup language
B. Hypertext Markup Language (HTML)
C. Extensible Markup Language (XML)
D. Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML)

A

Answer: D

61
Q

When designing a networked Information System (IS) where there will be several different types of individual access, what is the FIRST step that should be taken to ensure all access control requirements are addressed?

A. Create a user profile.
B. Create a user access matrix.
C. Develop an Access Control List (ACL).
D. Develop a Role Based Access Control (RBAC) list.

A

Answer: B

62
Q

Which of the following is the BEST way to verify the integrity of a software patch?

A. Cryptographic checksums
B. Version numbering
C. Automatic updates
D. Vendor assurance

A

Answer: A

63
Q

Which of the following is considered best practice for preventing e-mail spoofing?

A. Spam filtering
B. Cryptographic signature
C. Uniform Resource Locator (URL) filtering
D. Reverse Domain Name Service (DNS) lookup

A

Answer: B

64
Q

Alternate encoding such as hexadecimal representations is MOST often observed in which of the following forms of attack?

A. Smurf
B. Rootkit exploit
C. Denial of Service (DoS)
D. Cross site scripting (XSS)

A

Answer: D

65
Q

What would be the PRIMARY concern when designing and coordinating a security assessment for an Automatic Teller Machine (ATM) system?

A. Physical access to the electronic hardware
B. Regularly scheduled maintenance process
C. Availability of the network connection
D. Processing delays

A

Answer: A

66
Q

The Hardware Abstraction Layer (HAL) is implemented in the

A. system software.
B. system hardware.
C. application software.
D. network hardware.

A

Answer: A

67
Q

A security professional has just completed their organization’s Business Impact Analysis (BIA). Following Business Continuity Plan/Disaster Recovery Plan (BCP/DRP) best practices, what would be the professional’s NEXT step?

A. Identify and select recovery strategies.
B. Present the findings to management for funding.
C. Select members for the organization’s recovery teams.
D. Prepare a plan to test the organization’s ability to recover its operations.

A

Answer: A

68
Q

A vulnerability test on an Information System (IS) is conducted to

A. exploit security weaknesses in the IS.
B. measure system performance on systems with weak security controls.
C. evaluate the effectiveness of security controls.
D. prepare for Disaster Recovery (DR) planning.

A

Answer: C

69
Q

Who must approve modifications to an organization’s production infrastructure configuration?

A. Technical management
B. Change control board
C. System operations
D. System users

A

Answer: B

70
Q

When implementing controls in a heterogeneous end-point network for an organization, it is critical that

A. hosts are able to establish network communications.
B. users can make modifications to their security software configurations.
C. common software security components be implemented across all hosts.
D. firewalls running on each host are fully customizable by the user.

A

Answer: C

71
Q

Which of the following is the FIRST action that a system administrator should take when it is revealed during a penetration test that everyone in an organization has unauthorized access to a server holding sensitive data?

A. Immediately document the finding and report to senior management.
B. Use system privileges to alter the permissions to secure the server
C. Continue the testing to its completion and then inform IT management
D. Terminate the penetration test and pass the finding to the server management team

A

Answer: A

72
Q

Which of the following wraps the decryption key of a full disk encryption implementation and ties the hard disk drive to a particular device?

A. Trusted Platform Module (TPM)
B. Preboot eXecution Environment (PXE)
C. Key Distribution Center (KDC)
D. Simple Key-Management for Internet Protocol (SKIP)

A

Answer: A

73
Q

The three PRIMARY requirements for a penetration test are

A. A defined goal, limited time period, and approval of management
B. A general objective, unlimited time, and approval of the network administrator
C. An objective statement, disclosed methodology, and fixed cost
D. A stated objective, liability waiver, and disclosed methodology

A

Answer: A

74
Q

Which of the following is an attacker MOST likely to target to gain privileged access to a system?

A. Programs that write to system resources
B. Programs that write to user directories
C. Log files containing sensitive information
D. Log files containing system calls

A

Answer: A

75
Q

Why is a system’s criticality classification important in large organizations?

A. It provides for proper prioritization and scheduling of security and maintenance tasks.
B. It reduces critical system support workload and reduces the time required to apply patches.
C. It allows for clear systems status communications to executive management.
D. It provides for easier determination of ownership, reducing confusion as to the status of the asset.

A

Answer: A

76
Q

By allowing storage communications to run on top of Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) with a Storage Area Network (SAN), the

A. confidentiality of the traffic is protected.
B. opportunity to sniff network traffic exists.
C. opportunity for device identity spoofing is eliminated.
D. storage devices are protected against availability attacks.

A

Answer: B

77
Q

In Disaster Recovery (DR) and business continuity training, which BEST describes a functional drill?

A. A full-scale simulation of an emergency and the subsequent response functions
B. A specific test by response teams of individual emergency response functions
C. A functional evacuation of personnel
D. An activation of the backup site

A

Answer: C

78
Q

Which of the following does the Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) provide?

A. Authorization and integrity
B. Availability and integrity
C. Integrity and confidentiality
D. Authorization and confidentiality

A

Answer: C

79
Q

Which one of the following security mechanisms provides the BEST way to restrict the execution of privileged procedures?

A. Role Based Access Control (RBAC)
B. Biometric access control
C. Federated Identity Management (IdM)
D. Application hardening

A

Answer: A

80
Q

What is an effective practice when returning electronic storage media to third parties for repair?

A. Ensuring the media is not labeled in any way that indicates the organization’s name.
B. Disassembling the media and removing parts that may contain sensitive datA.
C. Physically breaking parts of the media that may contain sensitive datA.
D. Establishing a contract with the third party regarding the secure handling of the mediA.

A

Answer: D

81
Q

Which of the following BEST represents the principle of open design?

A. Disassembly, analysis, or reverse engineering will reveal the security functionality of the computer system.
B. Algorithms must be protected to ensure the security and interoperability of the designed system.
C. A knowledgeable user should have limited privileges on the system to prevent their ability to compromise security capabilities.
D. The security of a mechanism should not depend on the secrecy of its design or implementation.

A

Answer: D

82
Q

The BEST way to check for good security programming practices, as well as auditing for possible backdoors, is to conduct

A. log auditing.
B. code reviews.
C. impact assessments.
D. static analysis.

A

Answer: B

83
Q

An auditor carrying out a compliance audit requests passwords that are encrypted in the system to verify that the passwords are compliant with policy. Which of the following is the BEST response to the auditor?

A. Provide the encrypted passwords and analysis tools to the auditor for analysis.
B. Analyze the encrypted passwords for the auditor and show them the results.
C. Demonstrate that non-compliant passwords cannot be created in the system.
D. Demonstrate that non-compliant passwords cannot be encrypted in the system.

A

Answer: C

84
Q

When building a data center, site location and construction factors that increase the level of vulnerability to physical threats include

A. hardened building construction with consideration of seismic factors.
B. adequate distance from and lack of access to adjacent buildings.
C. curved roads approaching the data center.
D. proximity to high crime areas of the city.

A

Answer: D

85
Q

An organization allows ping traffic into and out of their network. An attacker has installed a program on the network that uses the payload portion of the ping packet to move data into and out of the network. What type of attack has the organization experienced?

A. Data leakage
B. Unfiltered channel
C. Data emanation
D. Covert channel

A

Answer: A

86
Q

Which of the following can BEST prevent security flaws occurring in outsourced software development?

A. Contractual requirements for code quality
B. Licensing, code ownership and intellectual property rights
C. Certification of the quality and accuracy of the work done
D. Delivery dates, change management control and budgetary control

A

Answer: C

87
Q

Which of the following is the MAIN reason that system re-certification and re-accreditation are needed?

A. To assist data owners in making future sensitivity and criticality determinations
B. To assure the software development team that all security issues have been addressed
C. To verify that security protection remains acceptable to the organizational security policy
D. To help the security team accept or reject new systems for implementation and production

A

Answer: C

88
Q

An external attacker has compromised an organization’s network security perimeter and installed a sniffer onto an inside computer. Which of the following is the MOST effective layer of security the organization could have implemented to mitigate the attacker’s ability to gain further information?

A. Implement packet filtering on the network firewalls
B. Require strong authentication for administrators
C. Install Host Based Intrusion Detection Systems (HIDS)
D. Implement logical network segmentation at the switches

A

Answer: D

89
Q

A security consultant has been asked to research an organization’s legal obligations to protect privacy-related information. What kind of reading material is MOST relevant to this project?

A. The organization’s current security policies concerning privacy issues
B. Privacy-related regulations enforced by governing bodies applicable to the organization
C. Privacy best practices published by recognized security standards organizations
D. Organizational procedures designed to protect privacy information

A

Answer: B

90
Q

According to best practice, which of the following groups is the MOST effective in performing an information security compliance audit?

A. In-house security administrators
B. In-house Network Team
C. Disaster Recovery (DR) Team
D. External consultants

A

Answer: D

91
Q

When is security personnel involvement in the Systems Development Life Cycle (SDLC) process MOST beneficial?

A. Testing phase
B. Development phase
C. Requirements definition phase
D. Operations and maintenance phase

A

Answer: C

92
Q

A large bank deploys hardware tokens to all customers that use their online banking system. The token generates and displays a six digit numeric password every 60 seconds. The customers must log into their bank accounts using this numeric password. This is an example of

A. asynchronous token.
B. Single Sign-On (SSO) token.
C. single factor authentication token.
D. synchronous token.

A

Answer: D

93
Q

Which of the following is the BEST reason to review audit logs periodically?

A. Verify they are operating properly
B. Monitor employee productivity
C. Identify anomalies in use patterns
D. Meet compliance regulations

A

Answer: C

94
Q

What is the PRIMARY reason for ethics awareness and related policy implementation?

A. It affects the workflow of an organization.
B. It affects the reputation of an organization.
C. It affects the retention rate of employees.
D. It affects the morale of the employees.

A

Answer: B

95
Q

Which of the following is critical for establishing an initial baseline for software components in the operation and maintenance of applications?

A. Application monitoring procedures
B. Configuration control procedures
C. Security audit procedures
D. Software patching procedures

A

Answer: B

96
Q

Which of the following actions MUST be taken if a vulnerability is discovered during the maintenance stage in a System Development Life Cycle (SDLC)?

A. Make changes following principle and design guidelines.
B. Stop the application until the vulnerability is fixed.
C. Report the vulnerability to product owner.
D. Monitor the application and review code.

A

Answer: C

97
Q

Which of the following provides effective management assurance for a Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN)?

A. Maintaining an inventory of authorized Access Points (AP) and connecting devices
B. Setting the radio frequency to the minimum range required
C. Establishing a Virtual Private Network (VPN) tunnel between the WLAN client device and a VPN concentrator
D. Verifying that all default passwords have been changed

A

Answer: A

98
Q

From a security perspective, which of the following is a best practice to configure a Domain Name Service (DNS) system?

A. Configure secondary servers to use the primary server as a zone forwarder.
B. Block all Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) connections.
C. Disable all recursive queries on the name servers.
D. Limit zone transfers to authorized devices.

A

Answer: D

99
Q

Which of the following is the MOST beneficial to review when performing an IT audit?

A. Audit policy
B. Security log
C. Security policies
D. Configuration settings

A

Answer: C

100
Q

During an investigation of database theft from an organization’s web site, it was determined that the Structured Query Language (SQL) injection technique was used despite input validation with client - side scripting. Which of the following provides the GREATEST protection against the same attack occurring again?

A. Encrypt communications between the servers
B. Encrypt the web server traffic
C. Implement server-side filtering
D. Filter outgoing traffic at the perimeter firewall

A

Answer: C

CISSP Dump (12 decks)

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