Group 3 Flashcards

1
Q

With data labeling, which of the following MUST be the key decision maker?

A. Information security
B. Departmental management
C. Data custodian
D. Data owner

A

Answer: D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following is a critical factor for implementing a successful data classification program?

A. Executive sponsorship
B. Information security sponsorship
C. End-user acceptance
D. Internal audit acceptance

A

Answer: A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

An organization’s data policy MUST include a data retention period which is based on

A. application dismissal.
B. business procedures.
C. digital certificates expiration.
D. regulatory compliance.

A

Answer: D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the MOST important reason to configure unique user IDs?

A. Supporting accountability
B. Reducing authentication errors
C. Preventing password compromise
D. Supporting Single Sign On (SSO)

A

Answer: A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the PRIMARY advantage of using automated application security testing tools?

A. The application can be protected in the production environment.
B. Large amounts of code can be tested using fewer resources.
C. The application will fail less when tested using these tools.
D. Detailed testing of code functions can be performed.

A

Answer: B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When using third-party software developers, which of the following is the MOST effective method of providing software development Quality Assurance (QA)?

A. Retain intellectual property rights through contractual wording.
B. Perform overlapping code reviews by both parties.
C. Verify that the contractors attend development planning meetings.
D. Create a separate contractor development environment.

A

Answer: B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What do Capability Maturity Models (CMM) serve as a benchmark for in an organization?

A. Experience in the industry
B. Definition of security profiles
C. Human resource planning efforts
D. Procedures in systems development

A

Answer: D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following is the MOST crucial for a successful audit plan?

A. Defining the scope of the audit to be performed
B. Identifying the security controls to be implemented
C. Working with the system owner on new controls
D. Acquiring evidence of systems that are not compliant

A

Answer: A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

An organization decides to implement a partial Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) with only the servers having digital certificates. What is the security benefit of this implementation?

A. Clients can authenticate themselves to the servers.
B. Mutual authentication is available between the clients and servers.
C. Servers are able to issue digital certificates to the client.
D. Servers can authenticate themselves to the client.

A

Answer: D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of a formalized information classification program?

A. It drives audit processes.
B. It supports risk assessment.
C. It reduces asset vulnerabilities.
D. It minimizes system logging requirements.

A

Answer: B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

If an attacker in a SYN flood attack uses someone else’s valid host address as the source address, the system under attack will send a large number of Synchronize/Acknowledge (SYN/ACK) packets to the

A. default gateway.
B. attacker’s address.
C. local interface being attacked.
D. specified source address.

A

Answer: D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

According to best practice, which of the following is required when implementing third party software in a production environment?

A. Scan the application for vulnerabilities
B. Contract the vendor for patching
C. Negotiate end user application training
D. Escrow a copy of the software

A

Answer: A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following is the BEST solution to provide redundancy for telecommunications links?

A. Provide multiple links from the same telecommunications vendor.
B. Ensure that the telecommunications links connect to the network in one location.
C. Ensure that the telecommunications links connect to the network in multiple locations.
D. Provide multiple links from multiple telecommunications vendors.

A

Answer: D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The amount of data that will be collected during an audit is PRIMARILY determined by the.

A. audit scope.
B. auditor’s experience level.
C. availability of the data.
D. integrity of the data.

A

Answer: A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following are required components for implementing software configuration management systems?

A. Audit control and signoff
B. User training and acceptance
C. Rollback and recovery processes
D. Regression testing and evaluation

A

Answer: C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

For a service provider, which of the following MOST effectively addresses confidentiality concerns for customers using cloud computing?

A. Hash functions
B. Data segregation
C. File system permissions
D. Non-repudiation controls

A

Answer: B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following BEST mitigates a replay attack against a system using identity federation and Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) implementation?

A. Two-factor authentication
B. Digital certificates and hardware tokens
C. Timed sessions and Secure Socket Layer (SSL)
D. Passwords with alpha-numeric and special characters

A

Answer: C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the BEST method to detect the most common improper initialization problems in programming languages?

A. Use and specify a strong character encoding.
B. Use automated static analysis tools that target this type of weakness.
C. Perform input validation on any numeric inputs by assuring that they are within the expected range.
D. Use data flow analysis to minimize the number of false positives.

A

Answer: B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

During the procurement of a new information system, it was determined that some of the security requirements were not addressed in the system specification. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this?

A. The procurement officer lacks technical knowledge.
B. The security requirements have changed during the procurement process.
C. There were no security professionals in the vendor’s bidding team.
D. The description of the security requirements was insufficient.

A

Answer: D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following is required to determine classification and ownership?

A. System and data resources are properly identified
B. Access violations are logged and audited
C. Data file references are identified and linked
D. System security controls are fully integrated

A

Answer: A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A large university needs to enable student access to university resources from their homes. Which of the following provides the BEST option for low maintenance and ease of deployment?

A. Provide students with Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) Virtual Private Network (VPN) client software.
B. Use Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) VPN technology.
C. Use Secure Shell (SSH) with public/private keys.
D. Require students to purchase home router capable of VPN.

A

Answer: B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A risk assessment report recommends upgrading all perimeter firewalls to mitigate a particular finding. Which of the following BEST supports this recommendation?

A. The inherent risk is greater than the residual risk.
B. The Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) approaches zero.
C. The expected loss from the risk exceeds mitigation costs.
D. The infrastructure budget can easily cover the upgrade costs.

A

Answer: C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A system is developed so that its business users can perform business functions but not user administration functions. Application administrators can perform administration functions but not user business functions. These capabilities are BEST described as

A. least privilege.
B. rule based access controls.
C. Mandatory Access Control (MAC).
D. separation of duties.

A

Answer: D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the MOST effective method for gaining unauthorized access to a file protected with a long complex password?

A. Brute force attack
B. Frequency analysis
C. Social engineering
D. Dictionary attack

A

Answer: C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
A security manager has noticed an inconsistent application of server security controls resulting in vulnerabilities on critical systems. What is the MOST likely cause of this issue? A. A lack of baseline standards B. Improper documentation of security guidelines C. A poorly designed security policy communication program D. Host-based Intrusion Prevention System (HIPS) policies are ineffective
Answer: A
26
Which of the following is the BEST countermeasure to brute force login attacks? A. Changing all canonical passwords B. Decreasing the number of concurrent user sessions C. Restricting initial password delivery only in person D. Introducing a delay after failed system access attempts
Answer: D
27
A Business Continuity Plan (BCP) is based on A. the policy and procedures manual. B. an existing BCP from a similar organization. C. a review of the business processes and procedures. D. a standard checklist of required items and objectives.
Answer: D
28
When implementing a secure wireless network, which of the following supports authentication and authorization for individual client endpoints? A. Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) B. Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) Pre-Shared Key (PSK) C. Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2) Enterprise D. Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol (CCMP)
Answer: C
29
A thorough review of an organization's audit logs finds that a disgruntled network administrator has intercepted emails meant for the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) and changed them before forwarding them to their intended recipient. What type of attack has MOST likely occurred? A. Spoofing B. Eavesdropping C. Man-in-the-middle D. Denial of service
Answer: C
30
Which of the following is the MOST effective attack against cryptographic hardware modules? A. Plaintext B. Brute force C. Power analysis D. Man-in-the-middle (MITM)
Answer: C
31
Which of the following is the MOST difficult to enforce when using cloud computing? A. Data access B. Data backup C. Data recovery D. Data disposal
Answer: D
32
Which of the following is the BEST way to determine if a particular system is able to identify malicious software without executing it? A. Testing with a Botnet B. Testing with an EICAR file C. Executing a binary shellcode D. Run multiple antivirus programs
Answer: B
33
Which of the following is a BEST practice when traveling internationally with laptops containing Personally Identifiable Information (PII)? A. Use a thumb drive to transfer information from a foreign computer. B. Do not take unnecessary information, including sensitive information. C. Connect the laptop only to well-known networks like the hotel or public Internet cafes. D. Request international points of contact help scan the laptop on arrival to ensure it is protected.
Answer: B
34
Which of the following assures that rules are followed in an identity management architecture? A. Policy database B. Digital signature C. Policy decision point D. Policy enforcement point
Answer: D
35
Which of the following violates identity and access management best practices? A. User accounts B. System accounts C. Generic accounts D. Privileged accounts
Answer: C
36
When dealing with compliance with the Payment Card Industry-Data Security Standard (PCI-DSS), an organization that shares card holder information with a service provider MUST do which of the following? A. Perform a service provider PCI-DSS assessment on a yearly basis. B. Validate the service provider's PCI-DSS compliance status on a regular basis. C. Validate that the service providers security policies are in alignment with those of the organization. D. Ensure that the service provider updates and tests its Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) on a yearly basis.
Answer: B
37
What is the MAIN feature that onion routing networks offer? A. Non-repudiation B. Traceability C. Anonymity D. Resilience
Answer: C
38
Which of the following MUST system and database administrators be aware of and apply when configuring systems used for storing personal employee data? A. Secondary use of the data by business users B. The organization's security policies and standards C. The business purpose for which the data is to be used D. The overall protection of corporate resources and data
Answer: B
39
Which of the following methods provides the MOST protection for user credentials? A. Forms-based authentication B. Digest authentication C. Basic authentication D. Self-registration
Answer: B
40
Which of the following MOST influences the design of the organization's electronic monitoring policies? A. Workplace privacy laws B. Level of organizational trust C. Results of background checks D. Business ethical considerations
Answer: A
41
Without proper signal protection, embedded systems may be prone to which type of attack? A. Brute force B. Tampering C. Information disclosure D. Denial of Service (DoS)
Answer: C
42
Which of the following is a detective access control mechanism? A. Log review B. Least privilege C. Password complexity D. Non-disclosure agreement
Answer: A
43
Which of the following BEST describes Recovery Time Objective (RTO)? A. Time of data validation after disaster B. Time of data restoration from backup after disaster C. Time of application resumption after disaster D. Time of application verification after disaster
Answer: C
44
An organization publishes and periodically updates its employee policies in a file on their intranet. Which of the following is a PRIMARY security concern? A. Availability B. Confidentiality C. Integrity D. Ownership
Answer: A
45
An online retail company has formulated a record retention schedule for customer transactions. Which of the following is a valid reason a customer transaction is kept beyond the retention schedule? A. Pending legal hold B. Long term data mining needs C. Customer makes request to retain D. Useful for future business initiatives
Answer: A
46
Which of the following is the MAIN goal of a data retention policy? A. Ensure that data is destroyed properly. B. Ensure that data recovery can be done on the datA. C. Ensure the integrity and availability of data for a predetermined amount of time. D. Ensure the integrity and confidentiality of data for a predetermined amount of time.
Answer: C
47
Given the various means to protect physical and logical assets, match the access management area to the technology.
Facilities - Window Devices - Encryption Information - Authentircaiton Systems - Firewall
48
Which of the following problems is not addressed by using OAuth (Open Standard to Authorization) 2.0 to integrate a third-party identity provider for a service? A. Resource Servers are required to use passwords to authenticate end users. B. Revocation of access of some users of the third party instead of all the users from the third party. C. Compromise of the third party means compromise of all the users in the service. D. Guest users need to authenticate with the third party identity provider.
Answer: A
49
The use of proximity card to gain access to a building is an example of what type of security control? A. Legal B. Logical C. Physical D. Procedural
Answer: C
50
Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) is necessary in many systems given common types of password attacks. Which of the following is a correct list of password attacks? A. Masquerading, salami, malware, polymorphism B. Brute force, dictionary, phishing, keylogger C. Zeus, netbus, rabbit, turtle D. Token, biometrics, IDS, DLP
Answer: B
51
Which of the following is an example of two-factor authentication? A. Retina scan and a palm print B. Fingerprint and a smart card C. Magnetic stripe card and an ID badge D. Password and Completely Automated Public Turing test to tell Computers and Humans Apart (CAPTCHA)
Answer: B
52
Which item below is a federated identity standard? A. 802.11i B. Kerberos C. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) D. Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML)
Answer: D
53
What is a common challenge when implementing Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) for identity integration between on-premise environment and an external identity provider service? A. Some users are not provisioned into the service. B. SAML tokens are provided by the on-premise identity provider. C. Single users cannot be revoked from the service. D. SAML tokens contain user information.
Answer: A
54
A new employee is given a laptop computer with full administrator access. This employee does not have a personal computer at home and has a child that uses the computer to send and receive e- mail, search the web, and use instant messaging. The organization’s Information Technology (IT) department discovers that a peer-to-peer program has been installed on the computer using the employee's access. Which of the following solutions would have MOST likely detected the use of peer-to-peer programs when the computer was connected to the office network? A. Anti-virus software B. Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) C. Anti-spyware software D. Integrity checking software
Answer: B
54
A new employee is given a laptop computer with full administrator access. This employee does not have a personal computer at home and has a child that uses the computer to send and receive e- mail, search the web, and use instant messaging. The organization’s Information Technology (IT) department discovers that a peer-to-peer program has been installed on the computer using the employee's access. Which of the following could have MOST likely prevented the Peer-to-Peer (P2P) program from being installed on the computer? A. Removing employee's full access to the computer B. Supervising their child's use of the computer C. Limiting computer's access to only the employee D. Ensuring employee understands their business conduct guidelines
Answer: A
55
A new employee is given a laptop computer with full administrator access. This employee does not have a personal computer at home and has a child that uses the computer to send and receive e- mail, search the web, and use instant messaging. The organization’s Information Technology (IT) department discovers that a peer-to-peer program has been installed on the computer using the employee's access. Which of the following methods is the MOST effective way of removing the Peer-to-Peer (P2P) program from the computer? A. Run software uninstall B. Re-image the computer C. Find and remove all installation files D. Delete all cookies stored in the web browser cache
Answer: B
56
A new employee is given a laptop computer with full administrator access. This employee does not have a personal computer at home and has a child that uses the computer to send and receive e- mail, search the web, and use instant messaging. The organization’s Information Technology (IT) department discovers that a peer-to-peer program has been installed on the computer using the employee's access. Which of the following documents explains the proper use of the organization's assets? A. Human resources policy B. Acceptable use policy C. Code of ethics D. Access control policy
Answer: B
57
A security practitioner detects client-based attacks on the organization’s network. A plan will be necessary to address these concerns. In the plan, what is the BEST approach to mitigate future internal client-based attacks? A. Block all client side web exploits at the perimeter. B. Remove all non-essential client-side web services from the network. C. Screen for harmful exploits of client-side services before implementation. D. Harden the client image before deployment.
Answer: D
58
A security practitioner detects client-based attacks on the organization’s network. A plan will be necessary to address these concerns. In addition to web browsers, what PRIMARY areas need to be addressed concerning mobile code used for malicious purposes? A. Text editors, database, and Internet phone applications B. Email, presentation, and database applications C. Image libraries, presentation and spreadsheet applications D. Email, media players, and instant messaging applications
Answer: D
59
A security practitioner detects client-based attacks on the organization’s network. A plan will be necessary to address these concerns. What MUST the plan include in order to reduce client-side exploitation? A. Approved web browsers B. Network firewall procedures C. Proxy configuration D. Employee education
Answer: D
60
A security practitioner detects client-based attacks on the organization’s network. A plan will be necessary to address these concerns. What is the BEST reason for the organization to pursue a plan to mitigate client-based attacks? A. Client privilege administration is inherently weaker than server privilege administration. B. Client hardening and management is easier on clients than on servers. C. Client-based attacks are more common and easier to exploit than server and network based attacks. D. Client-based attacks have higher financial impact.
Answer: C
61
A large organization uses unique identifiers and requires them at the start of every system session. Application access is based on job classification. The organization is subject to periodic independent reviews of access controls and violations. The organization uses wired and wireless networks and remote access. The organization also uses secure connections to branch offices and secure backup and recovery strategies for selected information and processes. Which of the following BEST describes the access control methodology used? A. Least privilege B. Lattice Based Access Control (LBAC) C. Role Based Access Control (RBAC) D. Lightweight Directory Access Control (LDAP)
Answer: C
62
A large organization uses unique identifiers and requires them at the start of every system session. Application access is based on job classification. The organization is subject to periodic independent reviews of access controls and violations. The organization uses wired and wireless networks and remote access. The organization also uses secure connections to branch offices and secure backup and recovery strategies for selected information and processes. In addition to authentication at the start of the user session, best practice would require re- authentication A. periodically during a session. B. for each business process. C. at system sign-off. D. after a period of inactivity.
Answer: D
63
A large organization uses unique identifiers and requires them at the start of every system session. Application access is based on job classification. The organization is subject to periodic independent reviews of access controls and violations. The organization uses wired and wireless networks and remote access. The organization also uses secure connections to branch offices and secure backup and recovery strategies for selected information and processes. Following best practice, where should the permitted access for each department and job classification combination be specified? A. Security procedures B. Security standards C. Human resource policy D. Human resource standards
Answer: B
64
A large organization uses unique identifiers and requires them at the start of every system session. Application access is based on job classification. The organization is subject to periodic independent reviews of access controls and violations. The organization uses wired and wireless networks and remote access. The organization also uses secure connections to branch offices and secure backup and recovery strategies for selected information and processes. What MUST the access control logs contain in addition to the identifier? A. Time of the access B. Security classification C. Denied access attempts D. Associated clearance
Answer: A
65
An organization has hired an information security officer to lead their security department. The officer has adequate people resources but is lacking the other necessary components to have an effective security program. There are numerous initiatives requiring security involvement. Which of the following is considered the MOST important priority for the information security officer? A. Formal acceptance of the security strategy B. Disciplinary actions taken against unethical behavior C. Development of an awareness program for new employees D. Audit of all organization system configurations for faults
Answer: A
66
An organization has hired an information security officer to lead their security department. The officer has adequate people resources but is lacking the other necessary components to have an effective security program. There are numerous initiatives requiring security involvement. The effectiveness of the security program can PRIMARILY be measured through A. audit findings. B. risk elimination. C. audit requirements. D. customer satisfaction.
Answer: A
67
An organization has hired an information security officer to lead their security department. The officer has adequate people resources but is lacking the other necessary components to have an effective security program. There are numerous initiatives requiring security involvement. Given the number of priorities, which of the following will MOST likely influence the selection of top initiatives? A. Severity of risk B. Complexity of strategy C. Frequency of incidents D. Ongoing awareness
Answer: A
68
An organization has hired an information security officer to lead their security department. The officer has adequate people resources but is lacking the other necessary components to have an effective security program. There are numerous initiatives requiring security involvement. The security program can be considered effective when A. vulnerabilities are proactively identified. B. audits are regularly performed and reviewed. C. backups are regularly performed and validated. D. risk is lowered to an acceptable level.
Answer: D
69
During the investigation of a security incident, it is determined that an unauthorized individual accessed a system which hosts a database containing financial information. Aside from the potential records which may have been viewed, which of the following should be the PRIMARY concern regarding the database information? A. Unauthorized database changes B. Integrity of security logs C. Availability of the database D. Confidentiality of the incident
Answer: A
70
During the investigation of a security incident, it is determined that an unauthorized individual accessed a system which hosts a database containing financial information. If it is discovered that large quantities of information have been copied by the unauthorized individual, what attribute of the data has been compromised? A. Availability B. Integrity C. Accountability D. Confidentiality
Answer: D
71
During the investigation of a security incident, it is determined that an unauthorized individual accessed a system which hosts a database containing financial information. If the intrusion causes the system processes to hang, which of the following has been affected? A. System integrity B. System availability C. System confidentiality D. System auditability
Answer: B
72
An organization experiencing a negative financial impact is forced to reduce budgets and the number of Information Technology (IT) operations staff performing basic logical access security administration functions. Security processes have been tightly integrated into normal IT operations and are not separate and distinct roles. Which of the following will be the PRIMARY security concern as staff is released from the organization? A. Inadequate IT support B. Loss of data and separation of duties C. Undocumented security controls D. Additional responsibilities for remaining staff
Answer: B
73
An organization experiencing a negative financial impact is forced to reduce budgets and the number of Information Technology (IT) operations staff performing basic logical access security administration functions. Security processes have been tightly integrated into normal IT operations and are not separate and distinct roles. Which of the following will MOST likely allow the organization to keep risk at an acceptable level? A. Increasing the amount of audits performed by third parties B. Removing privileged accounts from operational staff C. Assigning privileged functions to appropriate staff D. Separating the security function into distinct roles
Answer: C
74
An organization experiencing a negative financial impact is forced to reduce budgets and the number of Information Technology (IT) operations staff performing basic logical access security administration functions. Security processes have been tightly integrated into normal IT operations and are not separate and distinct roles. Which of the following will indicate where the IT budget is BEST allocated during this time? A. Policies B. Frameworks C. Metrics D. Guidelines
Answer: C
75
An organization experiencing a negative financial impact is forced to reduce budgets and the number of Information Technology (IT) operations staff performing basic logical access security administration functions. Security processes have been tightly integrated into normal IT operations and are not separate and distinct roles. When determining appropriate resource allocation, which of the following is MOST important to monitor? A. Number of system compromises B. Number of audit findings C. Number of staff reductions D. Number of additional assets
Answer: B
76
In a Multilevel Security (MLS) system, the following sensitivity labels are used in increasing levels of sensitivity: restricted, confidential, secret, top secret. Table A lists the clearance levels for four users, while Table B lists the security classes of four different files. Which of the following is true according to the star property (*property)? A. User D can write to File 1 B. User B can write to File 1 C. User A can write to File 1 D. User C can write to File 1
Answer: C
77
In a Multilevel Security (MLS) system, the following sensitivity labels are used in increasing levels of sensitivity: restricted, confidential, secret, top secret. Table A lists the clearance levels for four users, while Table B lists the security classes of four different files. In a Bell-LaPadula system, which user cannot write to File 3? A. User A B. User B C. User C D. User D
Answer: D
78
In a Multilevel Security (MLS) system, the following sensitivity labels are used in increasing levels of sensitivity: restricted, confidential, secret, top secret. Table A lists the clearance levels for four users, while Table B lists the security classes of four different files. In a Bell-LaPadula system, which user has the MOST restrictions when writing data to any of the four files? A. User A B. User B C. User C D. User D
Answer: D
79
Desktop computers in an organization were sanitized for re-use in an equivalent security environment. The data was destroyed in accordance with organizational policy and all marking and other external indications of the sensitivity of the data that was formerly stored on the magnetic drives were removed. After magnetic drives were degaussed twice according to the product manufacturer's directions, what is the MOST LIKELY security issue with degaussing? A. Commercial products often have serious weaknesses of the magnetic force available in the degausser product. B. Degausser products may not be properly maintained and operated. C. The inability to turn the drive around in the chamber for the second pass due to human error. D. Inadequate record keeping when sanitizing mediA.
Answer: B
80
Desktop computers in an organization were sanitized for re-use in an equivalent security environment. The data was destroyed in accordance with organizational policy and all marking and other external indications of the sensitivity of the data that was formerly stored on the magnetic drives were removed. Organizational policy requires the deletion of user data from Personal Digital Assistant (PDA) devices before disposal. It may not be possible to delete the user data if the device is malfunctioning. Which destruction method below provides the BEST assurance that the data has been removed? A. Knurling B. Grinding C. Shredding D. Degaussing
Answer: C
81
A large, multinational organization has decided to outsource a portion of their Information Technology (IT) organization to a third-party provider’s facility. This provider will be responsible for the design, development, testing, and support of several critical, customer-based applications used by the organization. The third party needs to have A. processes that are identical to that of the organization doing the outsourcing. B. access to the original personnel that were on staff at the organization. C. the ability to maintain all of the applications in languages they are familiar with. D. access to the skill sets consistent with the programming languages used by the organization.
Answer: D
82
A large, multinational organization has decided to outsource a portion of their Information Technology (IT) organization to a third-party provider’s facility. This provider will be responsible for the design, development, testing, and support of several critical, customer-based applications used by the organization. The organization should ensure that the third party's physical security controls are in place so that they A. are more rigorous than the original controls. B. are able to limit access to sensitive information. C. allow access by the organization staff at any time. D. cannot be accessed by subcontractors of the third party.
Answer: B
83
A large, multinational organization has decided to outsource a portion of their Information Technology (IT) organization to a third-party provider’s facility. This provider will be responsible for the design, development, testing, and support of several critical, customer-based applications used by the organization. What additional considerations are there if the third party is located in a different country? A. The organizational structure of the third party and how it may impact timelines within the organization B. The ability of the third party to respond to the organization in a timely manner and with accurate information C. The effects of transborder data flows and customer expectations regarding the storage or processing of their data D. The quantity of data that must be provided to the third party and how it is to be used
Answer: C
84
What is the MOST critical factor to achieve the goals of a security program? A. Capabilities of security resources B. Executive management support C. Effectiveness of security management D. Budget approved for security resources
Answer: B
85
A business has implemented Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI-DSS) compliant handheld credit card processing on their Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN) topology. The network team partitioned the WLAN to create a private segment for credit card processing using a firewall to control device access and route traffic to the card processor on the Internet. What components are in the scope of PCI-DSS? A. The entire enterprise network infrastructure. B. The handheld devices, wireless access points and border gateway. C. The end devices, wireless access points, WLAN, switches, management console, and firewall. D. The end devices, wireless access points, WLAN, switches, management console, and Internet
Answer: C
86
Identify the component that MOST likely lacks digital accountability related to information access.
??
87
During an audit, the auditor finds evidence of potentially illegal activity. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action to take? A. Immediately call the police B. Work with the client to resolve the issue internally C. Advise the person performing the illegal activity to cease and desist D. Work with the client to report the activity to the appropriate authority
Answer: D
88
Place the following information classification steps in sequential order.
89
Which of the following secure startup mechanisms are PRIMARILY designed to thwart attacks? A. Timing B. Cold boot C. Side channel D. Acoustic cryptanalysis
Answer: B
90
What is the BEST first step for determining if the appropriate security controls are in place for protecting data at rest? A. Identify regulatory requirements B. Conduct a risk assessment C. Determine business drivers D. Review the security baseline configuration
Answer: B
91
Which of the following provides the MOST protection against data theft of sensitive information when a laptop is stolen? A. Set up a BIOS and operating system password B. Encrypt the virtual drive where confidential files can be stored C. Implement a mandatory policy in which sensitive data cannot be stored on laptops, but only on the corporate network D. Encrypt the entire disk and delete contents after a set number of failed access attempts
Answer: D
92
Which of the following is a process within a Systems Engineering Life Cycle (SELC) stage? A. Requirements Analysis B. Development and Deployment C. Production Operations D. Utilization Support
Answer: A
93
What component of a web application that stores the session state in a cookie can be bypassed by an attacker? A. An initialization check B. An identification check C. An authentication check D. An authorization check
Answer: C
94
Which of the following is a MAJOR consideration in implementing a Voice over IP (VoIP) network? A. Use of a unified messaging. B. Use of separation for the voice network. C. Use of Network Access Control (NAC) on switches. D. Use of Request for Comments (RFC) 1918 addressing.
Answer: A
95
Host-Based Intrusion Protection (HIPS) systems are often deployed in monitoring or learning mode during their initial implementation. What is the objective of starting in this mode? A. Automatically create exceptions for specific actions or files B. Determine which files are unsafe to access and blacklist them C. Automatically whitelist actions or files known to the system D. Build a baseline of normal or safe system events for review
Answer: D
96
Which of the following describes the concept of a Single Sign -On (SSO) system? A. Users are authenticated to one system at a time. B. Users are identified to multiple systems with several credentials. C. Users are authenticated to multiple systems with one login. D. Only one user is using the system at a time.
Answer: C
97
What physical characteristic does a retinal scan biometric device measure? A. The amount of light reflected by the retina B. The size, curvature, and shape of the retina C. The pattern of blood vessels at the back of the eye D. The pattern of light receptors at the back of the eye
Answer: C
98
What does secure authentication with logging provide? A. Data integrity B. Access accountability C. Encryption logging format D. Segregation of duties
Answer: B
99
Which of the following provides the minimum set of privileges required to perform a job function and restricts the user to a domain with the required privileges? A. Access based on rules B. Access based on user's role C. Access determined by the system D. Access based on data sensitivity
Answer: B