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Gross & Developmental Anatomy > Gross Block B > Flashcards

Gross Block B Flashcards

1
Q

enteric nervous system is involved with

A

the gut

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2
Q

Cerebrum is composed of 3 parts

A

cortex, basal ganglia, and thalamus

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3
Q

basal ganglia is associated with

A

movement

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4
Q

thalamus is aka

A

diencephalon

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5
Q

thalamus is a relay to

A

the senses

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6
Q

4 basic parts of the CNS

A

cerebrum, brainstem, cerebellum, and spinal cord

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7
Q

3 parts of brainstem

A

midbrain, pons, medulla

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8
Q

optic chiasm-

A

bridge between 2 optic nerves before they separate

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9
Q

CN 1 =

A

olfactory nerve

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10
Q

CN 1 exit

A

cribiform plate

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11
Q

CN 1 components

A

SVA

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12
Q

main action of CN1

A

smell

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13
Q

CN2 =

A

optic nerve

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14
Q

CN2 exit

A

optic canal

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15
Q

CN2 components

A

SSA

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16
Q

main action of CN2

A

vision

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17
Q

CN3 =

A

occulomotor nerve

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18
Q

CN3 exit

A

superior orbital fissure

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19
Q

cn3 components

A

GSE, GVE

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20
Q

main function of cn3

A

eye movements, accomodation

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21
Q

cn4 =

A

trochlear nerve

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22
Q

cn4 exit

A

superior orbital fissure

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23
Q

cn4 components

A

GSE

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24
Q

cn4 main function

A

eye movements and accomodation

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25
Q

cn5 =

A

trigeminal nerve

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26
Q

cn5 exits

A

V1- superior orbital fissure
V2- foramen rotundum
V3- Foramen Ovale

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27
Q

cn5 components

A

GSA, SVE

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28
Q

cn5 main actions

A

sensor of head, dura, jaw movement

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29
Q

cn6 =

A

abducens nerve

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30
Q

cn6 exit

A

superior orbital fissure

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31
Q

cn6 components

A

GSE`

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32
Q

cn6 main function

A

eye movements, accomodation

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33
Q

cn7 =

A

facial nerve

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34
Q

cn7 exit

A

internal acoustic meatus

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35
Q

cn7 components

A

SVA, GVE, SVE, GSA

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36
Q

cn7 main actions

A

muscles of facial expression, taste, saliva, tearing

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37
Q

cn8 =

A

vestibulocochlear nerve

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38
Q

cn8 components

A

SSA

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39
Q

cn8 main actions

A

hearing and balance

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40
Q

cn9 =

A

glossopharyngeal nerve

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41
Q

cn9 exit

A

jugular foramen

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42
Q

cn9 components

A

SVE, SVA, GVA, GVE

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43
Q

cn9 main actions

A

taste, saliva, visceral sensor

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44
Q

cn10 =

A

vagus nerve

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45
Q

cn10 exit

A

jugular foramen

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46
Q

cn10 components

A

SVE, GVA, GVE

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47
Q

cn10 main actions

A

swallowing, speaking, visceral sensor, main component of parasympathetic

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48
Q

cn11 =

A

spinal accessory nerve

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49
Q

cn11 exit

A

jugular foramen

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50
Q

cn11 components

A

GSE

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51
Q

cn11 main actions

A

motor to trapezius and sternocleidomastoid

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52
Q

cn12 =

A

hypoglossal

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53
Q

cn12 exit

A

hypoglossal canal

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54
Q

cn12 components

A

GSE

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55
Q

cn12 actions

A

motor to tongue

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56
Q

cn13 =

A

spinal cord

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57
Q

epidural space of skull is _____ space

A

potential

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58
Q

______ is pushed up against dura mater in skull

A

arachnoid

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59
Q

subdural space is _____ space

A

potential

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60
Q

subarachnoid space contains

A

CSF and blood vessels held between arachnoid and pia

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61
Q

what meningeal layer is intimate with the brain

A

pia mater

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62
Q

brain is suspended by

A

arachnoid trabecula

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63
Q

dura is very sensitive, well innervated by what nerves?

A

CN 5, CN 10, C2, C3

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64
Q

the nerve supplying dura mater generally follow

A

arteries

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65
Q

dura has own blood supply via

A

middle meningeal artery

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66
Q

dura has what 2 layers

A

periosteal and meningeal

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67
Q

periosteal/meningeal layers split in what 4 places

A

falx cerebri, dural sinuses, tentorium cerebelli, and tentorial incisura

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68
Q

falx cerebri-

A

sickle-shaped double layer of dura mater lying between the cerebral hemispheres. divides the two hemispheres

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69
Q

dural sinuses-

A

spaces between the periosteal and meningeal layers of dura

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70
Q

large veins from surface of the brain empty into _______ and most of the blood from teh brain ultimately drains through them into the _______

A
  • dural sinuses

- internal jugular veins

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71
Q

tentorium cerebelli-

A

separates cerebrum from cerebellum

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72
Q

tentorium cerebelli divides the cranial cavity into

A

supratentorial and infratentorial spaces

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73
Q

supratentorial space contains

A

cerebrum, telencephalon, and diencephalon

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74
Q

infratentorial space contains

A

cerebellum and brainstem

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75
Q

most pediatric brain tumors are in the ______ space

A

infratentorial

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76
Q

most adult brain tumors are in the ______ space

A

supratentorial

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77
Q

tentorial incisura/tentorial notch-

A

opening in the tentorium cerebelli for the passage of brainstem

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78
Q

CSF is produced in

A

choroid plexuses of ventricles

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79
Q

choroid plexuses are ______ cells that line all 4 ventricles of brain

A

epithelial (modified ependymal)

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80
Q

We produce ___ cc of CSF/hour

A

20

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81
Q

CSF is absorbed by _____ and goes back into venous circulation

A

arachnoid villi

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82
Q

which ventricles are largest

A

lateral ventricles

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83
Q

each lateral ventricle opens through an ______ into the 3rd ventricle

A

interventricular foramen (foramen of Monro)

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84
Q

which ventricle is located between the 2 halves of the thalamus

A

3rd ventricle

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85
Q

3rd ventricle is connected to the 4th ventricle via the

A

cerebral aqueduct

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86
Q

4th ventricle is ____ shaped

A

pyramid

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87
Q

4th ventricle is located within

A

pons/upper medulla

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88
Q

4th ventricle is where CSF leaves the ventricular system via ________ to enter subarachnoid space

A

median and lateral apertures

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89
Q

arachnoid granulations/villi-

A

small projections of arachnoid mater into the superior sagittal sinus

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90
Q

what is the main site of CSF absorption into the venous system

A

arachnoid villi/granulations

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91
Q

CSF goes pathway:

A

ventricles–>subarachnoid space–>arachnoid granules–> superior saggital sinus–> internal jugular veins

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92
Q

brain is __ % body mass but takes up ___% of blood supply, ___% of glucose, and ___% of O2

A
  • 2
  • 20
  • 25
  • 20
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93
Q

85% of strokes are

15% are

A
  • occlusive

- hemorrhagic

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94
Q

circle of willis consists of what arteries (5)

A

posterior cerebral artery (PCA), Posterior communicating artery (PComA), Internal carotid artery (ICA), Anterior cerebral artery (ACA), and Anterior communicating artery (AComA)

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95
Q

Circle of willis isnt always complete. Most often missing artery is

A

anterior communicating artery

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96
Q

basic layout of venous drainage in the brain is brain–>?

A

–>dural venous sinuses–>internal jugular veins

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97
Q

dural venus sinuses are located

A

between the 2 layers of dura

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98
Q

superior saggital sinus-

A

dural venous sinus that lies in convex attached border of teh falx cerebri. Major sinus along superior medial portion of the brain

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99
Q

5 dural venous sinuses to know

A

superior saggital sinus, straight sinus, transverse sinus, sigmoid sinus, inferior and superior petrosal sinus.

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100
Q

confluence of sinuses-

A

point where superior saggital, straight, occipital and transverse sinuses meet

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101
Q

blood collected in the confluence of sinuses is drained by

A

the transverse sinus

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102
Q

the transverse sinus becomes the

A

sigmoid sinus

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103
Q

sigmoid sinus drains into the

A

internal jugular vein

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104
Q

cavernous sinus-

A

large venous plexus located on each side of the sella turcica on the upper surface of the body of the sphenoid

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105
Q

a lot of traffic comes through the cavernous sinus, including what 6 things

A

internal carotid artery, CN 6, 3, 4, 5(V1 and 2)

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106
Q

name the only place in the body where a major artery passes through a pool of venous blood

A

cavernous sinus

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107
Q

danger zone-

A

cavernous sinus. if infection enters it, it can easily be transferred to the brain

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108
Q

cavernous sinus allows for heat exchange between

A

venous blood in cavernous sinus and ICA

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109
Q

non communicating hydrocephalus-

A

occlusion of CSF through ventricles

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110
Q

communicating hydrocephalus

A

normal pressure hydrocephalus. arachnoid villi arent taking up CSF, resulting in too much volume

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111
Q

communicating hydrocephalus has acute/chronic onset?

A

acute

112
Q

common solution to communicating hydrocephalus

A

use a shunt: run a tube from ventricle to peritoneal cavity

113
Q

communicating hydrocephalus is common in what age group

A

elderly

114
Q

The communicating hydrocephalus triad

A

mental decline, urinary incontinence, and magnetic gait

115
Q

5 major parts of the brain:

A

telencephalon, diencephalon, brain stem, cranial nerves, ventricles

116
Q

telencephalon structures

A

neocortex, limbic, basal ganglia

117
Q

telencephalon is responsible for

A

perception, thinking, emotion, memory, drives

118
Q

diencephalon structures

A

thalamus and hypothalamus

119
Q

diencephalon is responsible for

A

filtering of senses, motor relay, visceral ‘brain’ (hypothalamus)

120
Q

brain stem structures

A

midbrain, pons, medulla

121
Q

midbrain is home to what CNs

A

3 and 4

122
Q

pons is home to what CNs

A

5, 6, 7, 8

123
Q

medulla is home to what CNs

A

9, 10, 11, 12

124
Q

surgeons avoid sulci because

A

that is where veins and arteries tend to cozy up

125
Q

glial cells outnumber neurons in what ratio

A

10:1

126
Q

2 major types of glial cells

A

oligodendroglia and astroglia

127
Q

oligodendroglia

A

responsible for CNS myelination

128
Q

astroglia

A

support cells, establish BBB

129
Q

what chemical is injected in blood to show efficacy of BBB

A

horseradish peroxidase

130
Q

where are your superciliary arches

A

above the eyebrows

131
Q

what 2 processes lie on the temporal bone

A

mastoid process and styloid process

132
Q

pterion-

A

area formed by the frontal bone, parietal bone, greater wing of sphenoid bone, and the temporal bone

133
Q

what is just inside the pterion

A

middle meningeal artery

134
Q

lambda-

A

point where the lambdoid suture joins the superior saggital suture

135
Q

bregma-

A

point where the coronal suture joins the sagittal suture

136
Q

asterion-

A

junction of three sutures (parietomastoid, occipitomastoid, and lambdoid)

137
Q

inion-

A

most prominent point of external occipital protuberance

138
Q

glabella-

A

smooth prominence above the nasion

139
Q

SCALP covers the

A

calvaria

140
Q

SCALP stands for-

A

skin, connective tissue, aponeurosis, loose connective tissue, and periosteum

141
Q

superficial infections of the scalp tend to remain superficial because

A

the fibrous tissue is dense

142
Q

the 2 main arteries contributing blood to the scalp

A

external and internal carotid arteries

143
Q

branches of the external carotid artery that supply the scalp(3)

A

occipital artery, posterior auricular artery, and superficial temporal artery

144
Q

internal carotid branches of the scalp (2)

A

supratrochlear and supraorbital arteries (which branch from the opthalmic artery that branched from the internal carotid)

145
Q

2 dorsal rami that supply the scalp

A

greater occipital nerve (C2) and Third occipital nerve (C3)

146
Q

2 ventral rami that supply the scalp

A

greater auricular nerve (C2, C3) and lesser occipital nerve (C2, C3)

147
Q

4 divisions of CN 5 that supply the scalp

A

auriculotemporal nerve (V3), zygomaticotemporal nerve (V2), supratrochlear nerve (V1), supra-orbital nerve (V1)

148
Q

galea aponeurotica-

A

aponeurosis + epicranius muscle

149
Q

epicranius muscle-

A

muscles of facial expression

150
Q

Danger area of scalp-

A

loose connective tissue layer, especially near the frontalis muscle. Infection can enter the skull via emissary veins

151
Q

emissary veins-

A

go from the outside to inside of skull

152
Q

diploic veins-

A

veins in between the outer and inner layer of the skull

153
Q

diploic veins can make connections with _______ veins

A

emissary

154
Q

where is the pericranium continuous with the endocranium?

A

at the sutures and foramina

155
Q

SMAS stands for

A

superficial musculo-aponeurotic system

156
Q

SMAS extends from where to where?

A

platysma muscle to galea aponeurotica

157
Q

SMAS is continuous with ______ and _______

A

temporoparietal fascia and galea aponeurotica

158
Q

what is risorious m. for?

A

smiling

159
Q

buccinator muscle is found in

A

the cheek

160
Q

Facial nerve sends out a _________ branch which supplies some of the posterior muscles and occipitalis muscle

A

posterior auricular branch

161
Q

posterior auricular nerve innervates

A

posterior auricular muscle and occipitalis muscle

162
Q

4 motor branches of facial nerve

A

temporal, zygomatic, buccal, marginal mandibular, cervical

163
Q

marginal mandibular branches of facial nerve go towards

A

the mouth

164
Q

if facial nerve is damaged immediately after the stylomastoid foramen, what will happen?

A

all the muscles of facial expression will be knocked out

165
Q

if damage to facial nerve is immediately after the genticulate ganglion, then what will happen?

A

all muscles of facial expression will be knocked out as well as the other functions of CN VII

166
Q

largest cranial nerve

A

cranial nerve

167
Q

trigeminal nerve originates from the

A

trigeminal ganglia located in the skull

168
Q

3 branches of trigeminal nerve

A

opthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular

169
Q

which branch of trigeminal nerve has motor innervation

A

V3

170
Q

the ____ segment of V3 is deep to the _____ segment

A

motor; sensory

171
Q

opthalmic division (V1) gives off what branches? (5)

A

supraorbital, supratrochlear, infratrochlear, lacrimal, and external nasal nerves

172
Q

branches of maxillary division (V2)`

A

infraorbital, zygomaticofacial, and zygomaticotemporal nerves

173
Q

branches of mandibular division (V3) (sensory)

A

buccal, mental, and auriculotemporal nerves

174
Q

buccal nerve pierces _____ and supplies ______ (sensory)

A
  • buccinator

- mucosa on inside of cheek

175
Q

mental nerve supplies __________ (sensory)

A

mucosa of gingiva and skin of the chin

176
Q

the nerves that supply sensory to the face-

A

V1, 2, 3, and the greater auricular nerve

177
Q

trigeminal neuralgia-

A

sudden attack of excruciating pain along distribution of maxillary, mandibular, or opthalmic divisions of trigeminal nerve

178
Q

causes of trigeminal neuralgia-

A

aberrant blood vessels, aneurysms, brain tumor compressing trigeminal root.

179
Q

treatment for tic douloureux-

A

usually just have to cut sensory root

180
Q

facial artery branches into

A

superior and inferior labia arteries

181
Q

superficial temporal artery runs anterior to

A

ear

182
Q

facial vein is sometimes referred to as

A

angular vein

183
Q

superficial temporal vein and maxillary vein join to form

A

retromandibular vein

184
Q

retromandibular vein divides and sends anterior branch that joins with ______ to become ______

A

anterior facial vein

common facial vein

185
Q

retromandibular vein divides and sends posterior branch that joins with ______ to become ______

A

posterior auricular vein

external jugular vein

186
Q

external jugular vein goes diagonally across ______ and drains into ______

A

sternocleidomastoid muscle

subclavian vein

187
Q

any infection can run back into the skull via ______, _____, ______, or ________

A

superior opthalmic vein, inferior opthalmic vein, dural venal sinuses, or pterygoid plexus

188
Q

infection entering pterygoid plexus can cause

A

cavernous sinus thrombosis

189
Q

parotid gland lies on _____ muscle

A

masseter

190
Q

name 3 structures in parotid gland from superficial to deep

A

facial nerve, retromandibular vein, external carotid artery

191
Q

parotid duct crosses over ____ muscle, penetrates _____ muscle, and opens into _________

A
  • masseter
  • buccinator
  • vestibule of oral cavity opposite second maxillary molar
192
Q

all sympathetics to head must synapse in

A

superior cervical ganglion

193
Q

parasympathetic nerve to parotid gland

A

CN IX (inferior salivary nucleus)

194
Q

what nerve component of CN IX acts on parotid gland

A

GVE

195
Q

CN IX synapses at ________ in the infratemporal fossa before going to parotid gland

A

otic ganglion

196
Q

subdural hematomas occur from vessels that supply the

A

brain

197
Q

all muscles of mastication are derived from

A

the first pharyngeal arch

198
Q

functional components of CN V3

A

GSA and SVE

199
Q

nerves that lie in ITF

A

branches of V3, chorda tympani, lesser petrosal nerve, and otic ganglion

200
Q

veins that lie in ITF (5)

A

superficial temporal, pterygoid plexus, maxillary, deep facial, and retromandibular

201
Q

2 major foramen of ITF

A

foramen ovale and spinosum

202
Q

foramen spinosum is anterior/posterior to foramen ovale?

A

posterior

203
Q

groove leading up to foramen spinosum is created by

A

MMA that enters this foramen

204
Q

pterygoid fovea location

A

anterior-medial face of head of mandible

205
Q

intrinsic ligaments of TMJ

A

joint capsule and lateral ligament

206
Q

extrinsic ligaments of TMJ

A

stylomandibular ligament and sphenomandibular ligament

207
Q

stylomandibular ligament runs from _______ to ______

A

styloid process of temporal bone to posterior aspect of mandible

208
Q

sphenomandibular ligament runs from ____ to ____

A

spine of sphenoid to lingula of mandible

209
Q

what is the main ligament of the TMJ

A

sphenomandibular ligament

210
Q

______ serves as the check ligament to prevent excessive motion of the mandible

A

sphenomandibular ligament

211
Q

________ acts as a fulchrum for jaw movement

A

sphenomandibular ligament

212
Q

what kind of joint is TMJ

A

modified hinge joint

213
Q

actions of superior cavity of TMJ

A

protrusion/retrusion

214
Q

actions of inferior cavity of TMJ

A

depression, elevation, and rotation

215
Q

pain from jaw dislocation is transmitted via what nerves?

A

auriculotemporal, and masseteric nerves

216
Q

lateral pterygoid m inserts on __________

A

pterygoid fovea and articular disc

217
Q

all muscles of mastication are derivatives of

A

first pharyngeal arches

218
Q

distal attachment of temporalis m

A

coronoid process of mandible and anterior border of ramus of mandible

219
Q

action of temporalis m

A

the major elevator of mandible. also retracts the jaw

220
Q

masseter m proximal and distal attachments

A

zygomatic arch and ramus of mandible/coronoid process of mandible

221
Q

action of masseter m

A

elevator and protruder of mandible

222
Q

which 2 muscles of mastication form a powerful sling with each other around the angle of the mandible?

A

masseter and medial pterygoid

223
Q

proximal attachments of medial pterygoid

A

superficial head- tuberosity of maxilla and pyramidal process of palatine bone
deep head- medial surface of lateral pterygoid plate

224
Q

distal attachment of medial pterygoid m.

A

medial surface of ramus and angle of mandible

225
Q

action of medial pterygoid muscle

A

elevate and protrude the mandible

226
Q

proximal attachments of lateral pterygoid m

A

superior head- infratemporal surface and crest of greater wing of sphenoid bone
inferior head- lateral surface of lateral pterygoid plate

227
Q

distal insertion of lateral pterygoid m

A

joint capsule and articular disc of TMJ; pterygoid fovea

228
Q

action of lateral pterygoid m

A

protrudes mandible, initiates jaw opening, and lateral mandibular movements

229
Q

the only muscle that actively opens and protrudes the jaw

A

lateral pterygoid muscle

230
Q

the maxillary artery usually sits superficially to the _____ muscle

A

lateral pterygoid

231
Q

CN V3 is mostly sensory/motor?

A

sensory

232
Q

components of CN V3

A

GSA and SVE

233
Q

Where does CN V3 leave skull?

A

foramen ovale

234
Q

besides muscles of mastication, what 4 muscles does CN V3 innervate?

A

mylohyoid, anterior belly of diagastric, tensor tympani, and tensor veli palatini

235
Q

undivided trunk of CN V3 exits foramen ovale then splits to give off what 2 divisions

A

anterior and posterior divisions

236
Q

2 motor nerves coming off undivided trunk of CN V3

A

tensor tympani, tensor veli palatini, and medial pterygoid nerves

237
Q

sensory nerve coming off undivided trunk of CN V3`

A

recurrent meningeal nerve

238
Q

4 nerves coming off anterior division of CN V3

A

masseteric, deep temporal, lateral pterygoid, and long buccal nerves

239
Q

masseteric nerve-

A

travels thru mandibular notch to masseter muscle and does a little bit of sensory innervation to the TMJ

240
Q

deep temporal nerves innervate

A

temporalis muscle

241
Q

components of nerve to lateral pterygoid

A

GSA GSE

242
Q

long buccal nerve is sensory to

A

skin and mucosa of cheek.

243
Q

long buccal nerve travels in between

A

the 2 heads of the lateral pterygoid muscle

244
Q

2 major branches of posterior division of CN V3

A

lingual and inferior alveolar nerves

245
Q

inferior alveolar nerve travels through what structure

A

mandibular foramen

246
Q

inferior alveolar nerve emerges from mental foramen as _____ nerve

A

mental

247
Q

inferior alveolar nerve has a motor branch that innervates

A

mylohyoid muscle and anterior belly of diagastric muscle

248
Q

lingual nerve supplies-

A

mucosa of anterior 2/3 of the tongue, mucosa of floor of mouth, and gingiva of lingual aspect of mandible

249
Q

______ ganglion is suspended from lingual nerve

A

submandibular ganglion

250
Q

what nerve hitches a ride on the lingual nerve?

A

chorda tympani nerve

251
Q

auriculotemporal nerve branches off of-

A

posterior division of CN V3

252
Q

what nerve loops around the MMA

A

auriculotemporal nerve

253
Q

auriculotemporal nerve sensory innervates (6)

A

TMJ, Tympanic membrane, skin over parotid gland, skin of temporal region, skin of auricle, skin of external auditory canal

254
Q

otic ganglion is inferior to what foramen?

A

foramen ovale

255
Q

components of chorda tympani

A

SVA, GVE

256
Q

chorda tympani exits skull via _______ as part of the facial nerve then travels into ______ and continues across _______ before entering the ITF

A
  • internal acoustic meatus
  • middle ear
  • tympanic membrane
257
Q

chorda tympani provides SVA to

A

anterior 2/3 of tongue (taste)`

258
Q

parasympathics of chorda tympani supply

A

salivary glands

259
Q

preganglionic parasympathetic cell bodies of chorda tympani are found in

A

superior salivary nucleus

260
Q

parasympathetic fibers of chorda tympani synapse at

A

submandibular ganglion

261
Q

postsynaptic parasympathetic fibers of chorda tympani supply

A

submandibular and sublingual glands and mucosa on floor of mouth

262
Q

if you lose feeling to anterior 2/3 of tongue, what nerve is damaged?

A

trigeminal nerve issue

263
Q

if you cannot taste, what nerve is damaged?

A

facial nerve

264
Q

if you lose both taste and sensation to tongue, what nerve is damaged?

A

most likely the lingual nerve

265
Q

lesser petrosal nerve is a branch of

A

CN IX (glossopharyngeal nerve)

266
Q

lesser petrosal nerve brings parasympathetic preganglionic fibers to _________, where they synapse. The postsynaptics then leave and join the ________ nerve for distribution to the parotid gland

A
  • otic ganglion

- auriculotemporal nerve

267
Q

external carotid artery ends as what 2 arteries?

A

superficial temporal and maxillary

268
Q

maxillary artery is divided into 3 portions:

A

mandibular, pterygoid, and pterygopalatine branches

269
Q

4 branches of mandibular portion of maxillary artery

A

deep auricular, anterior tympanic, middle meningeal, and inferior alveolar arteries

270
Q

what artery supplies teeth?

A

inferior alveolar artery

271
Q

middle meningeal artery enters skull through _______

A

foramen spinosum

*** there is often an accessory MMA

272
Q

4 branches of pterygoid portion of maxillary artery

A

deep temporalis, pterygoid, masseteric, and buccal arteries

273
Q

buccal artery travels with

A

long buccal nerve

274
Q

______ plexus of veins drains into the maxillary veins, which drain into _______

A
  • pterygoid

- retromandibular vein

275
Q

pterygoid plexus communicates with _______ sinus

A

cavernous

Gross & Developmental Anatomy (8 decks)

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