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Gross & Developmental Anatomy > Block A Gross > Flashcards

Block A Gross Flashcards

1
Q

Muscles associated with the upper limb and accessory respiratory muscles are innervated by ______

A

ventral rami of spinal nerves

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2
Q

Deep back muscles are innervated by

A

dorsal rami of spinal nerves

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3
Q 
Vertebral Reference levels:
Sternal notch-
Sternal Angle-
Esophageal hiatus-
End of spinal cord in adult-
Iliac crest-
End of dural sac, arachnoid, and subarachnoid space-
A
  • T2
  • T4
  • T10
  • L1 or L2
  • L4
  • S2
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4
Q

End of spinal cord in adult is called:

A

conus medullaris

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5
Q

_____ is a postural compensation for thoracic kyphosis

A

lordosis

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6
Q

Cervical Superior articular facets face _____ and _____

A

posterior and superior

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7
Q

Cervical Inferior articular facets face _____ and _____

A

anterior and inferior

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8
Q

The spinous processes of C2-C6 are considered _____

A

bifid

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9
Q

Which vertebrae have uncinate processes?

A

C3-C7

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10
Q

what is an uncovertable joint?

What processes make up the joint?

A
  • A cup shaped joint

- uncinate processes

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11
Q

Which thoracic vertebrae have long spinous processes?

A

T5-T8

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12
Q

Costal facets on sides of body and on transverse processes of ______

A

most thoracic vertebra

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13
Q

There are NO costal facets on transverse processes of which T vertebrae?

A

T11 or T12

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14
Q

costovertebral joints are between:

A

head of rib and verteral body

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15
Q

costotransverse joints are between:

A

tubercle of rib and transverse process

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16
Q

Do lumbar vertebra have costal facets?

A

no

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17
Q

Do lumbar vertebra have transverse foramina?

A

no

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18
Q

Lumbar superior articular process has a rounded _____ process

A

mamillary

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19
Q

Lumbar Superior articular facets face _____;

Inferior articular facets face _____

A
  • medially

- laterally

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20
Q 
The parts of the Lumbar Dog
Superior articular process-
Inferior articular process-
pedicle-
pars interarticularis-
A
  • ear
  • front leg
  • eye
  • neck
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21
Q

Spondylolysis =

A

fracture of pars interarticularis

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22
Q

Spondylolisthesis-

A

a unilateral or bilateral defect or fracture of the pars interarticularis
accompanied by anterior displacement of the vertebral body

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23
Q

Symptoms of spondylolisthesis

A

bilateral lower back pain that radiates into both lower limbs and weakness in muscles of the legs.

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24
Q

cervical superior facets face ____

A

posterior/superior

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25
Q

cervical inferior facets face _____

A

anterior/inferior

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26
Q

Thoracic superior facets face

A

posterior/lateral

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27
Q

thoracic inferior facets face

A

anterior/medial

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28
Q

lumbar superior facets face

A

meidal

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29
Q

lumbar inferior facets face

A

laterally

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30
Q

cervical vertebrae allow movement in what directions?

A

flexion/extension, lateral bending, and rotation

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31
Q

thoracic vertebrae allow movement in what directions?

A

lateral bending, rotation, and flexion/extension

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32
Q

lumbar vertebrae allow movement in what directions?

A

flexion/extension

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33
Q

Each intervertebral disc is composed of a central ______ surrounded by the peripheral ______ and 2 layers of cartilage that cover the superior and inferior aspects of the disc.

A
  • nucleus pulposus

- annulus fibrosus

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34
Q

are the nucleus pulposus and annulus fibrosus innervated?

A

annulus fibrosus is, nucleus pulposus is not

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35
Q

The annulus fibrosus is composed of concentrically arranged lamellae made of _______

A

collagen fibers

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36
Q

Floor of suboccipital triangle

A

Posterior atlanto-occipital

membrane and posterior arch of C1

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37
Q

Rectus capitis posterior major origin and insertion

A

spinous process of C2 and lateral part of inferior nuchal line

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38
Q

rectus capitis posterior minor origin and insertion

A

posterior tubercle of posterior arch of C1 and medial part of inferior nuchal line

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39
Q

obliquus capitis inferior origin and insertion

A

spinous process of C2 and transverse process of C1

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40
Q

obliquus capitis superior origin and insertion

A

transverse process of C1 and occipital bone between the

superior and inferior nuchal lines

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41
Q

which membrane does the vetebral artery pass through to enter foramen magnum?

A

posterior atlanto-occipital membrane

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42
Q

the spinal cord is a continuation of the

A

medulla oblongata

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43
Q

to approximate the spinal cord segment at a particular vertebral level:

A

add one to the vertebral level in lower
cervical region, add two in the upper thoracic region, add three in the lower thoracic region. Clinically the procedure is reversed (subtract from cord segment)

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44
Q

most common places for cervical disc herniation

A

C5-C6 and C6-C7

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45
Q

most common lumbar disc herniation locations:

A

L4-L5 and L5-S1

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46
Q

Clinical differentiation of herniation btw L4/L5 and L5/S1 is:

A

L4/L5- weak dorsiflexion of ankle

L5/S1- weak plantar flexion of ankle

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47
Q

3 layers that make up meninges:

A

dura mater + arachnoid mater + Pia mater

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48
Q

dural sac is also called:

A

thecal sac

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49
Q

the point at which the dural sac terminates:

A

filum terminale externum

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50
Q

what tissue strands connect arachnoid and pia mater?

A

arachnoid trabeculae

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51
Q

how is pia mater connected to dura mater?

A

denticulate ligament

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52
Q

spinal cord is supended within the dura by the

A

denticulate ligament

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53
Q

which arteries supply blood to the spinal cord?

A

anterior spinal artery (supplies anterior 2/3 of spinal cord) and 2 posterior spinal arteries (Supply posterior 1/3 of the spinal cord)

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54
Q

anterior spinal artery is supplemented by:

A

radicular and segmental arteries

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55
Q

which artery that supplements the ASA is most important and why?

A

Artery of Adamkiewicz because it is very large and if it is cut it could make person paraplegic.

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56
Q

location of Artery of Adamkiewicz

A

usually T10

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57
Q

The vertebral venous plexus has no valves, so blood can flow where?

A

lots of places. up AND down the spinal column and between the anterior and posterior plexuses.

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58
Q

what is the easiest route for prostate cancer to metastasize to the brain?

A

up the vertebral venous plexus

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59
Q

lumbar puncture is performed btw which 2 vertebrae?

A

L4/L5

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60
Q

An automatic unconscious muscular response to a situation in an attempt to maintain body homeostasis

A

reflex arc

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61
Q

General Visceral Efferent nervous system is also known as

A

the autonomic nervous system

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62
Q

Special somatic afferent neurons detect

A

hearing and vision

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63
Q

special visceral afferent neurons detect

A

smell and taste

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64
Q

special visceral efferent neurons innervate the

A

pharyngeal arch musculature

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65
Q

the cauda equina consists of ______

A

nerve roots

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66
Q

Medial branches of the dorsal root ganglions supply the _____ in the superior region of the body and the______ supply deeper muscles. That role is switched as you go towards the inferior portion of the body.

A
  • skin

- lateral branches

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67
Q

Dorsal rami supply from the head to the _______. Ventral rami supply everything else

A

gluteal region

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68
Q

Dorsal rami supply _____ muscles of the back

A

deep

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69
Q

Which portion of the spinal column does not form a plexus?

A

T1-T12

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70
Q

Dermatome-

A

an area of skin supplied by a single spinal nerve

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71
Q

If an area of skin is supplied by multiple peripheral nerves, it is called a _____

A

peripheral nerve field

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72
Q

3 types of fascia

A

subcutaneous, deep, and subserous

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73
Q

The space behind breast tissue is called:

A

retro-mammary space

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74
Q

Medial border of breast tissue:

A

lateral border of sterum

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75
Q

lateral border of breast tissue:

A

mid axillary line

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76
Q

superior border of breast tissue:

A

2nd rib but can extend up to clavicle

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77
Q

inferior border of breast tissue:

A

6th rib but can be deceptive due to ptosis

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78
Q

clavipectoral fascia is ____ to the pectoralis major muscle

A

deep

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79
Q

the breast is attached to the dermis by the _______

A

Suspensory Ligaments of Cooper

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80
Q

Each Lactiferous Duct ends in 15-20 ______ which make milk

A

lobules

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81
Q

Lactiferous ducts dilate into _______ deep to the nipple-areolar complex to drain to the surface.

A

Lactiferous Sinuses

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82
Q

lymph primarily drains from the breast into the

A

sub-areolar lymphatic plexus

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83
Q

Secondary drainage of lymph from breast is into:

A

axillary nodal basin

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84
Q

after primary and secondary drainage, remaining lymph drains into:

A

parasternal nodes, to the opposite breast, or to inferior phrenic nodes

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85
Q

After lymph drains from the breast, it goes fro the axilla into the ______ and _____ nodes, then into the _____ or _______, then into venous circulation at the junction between ______ and _____ Veins.

A
  • supraclavicular and subclavian nodes
  • Right lymphatic duct or Thoracic duct on the Left
  • Subclavian and Internal Jugular
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86
Q

Level I Axillary Nodes are lateral to the __________
Level II Axillary Nodes are deep to the ___________
Level III Axillary Nodes are medial to the _________

A
  • border of the pectoralis minor muscle
  • pectoralis minor muscle
  • border of the pectoralis minor muscle
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87
Q

Older surgical procedures would remove Levels I and II of axillary lymph nodes.
Current procedures stop at _______ as maximal borders of nodes removed

A

Level I

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88
Q

Adenocarcinoma of the breast is 90-95% ____

A

Ductal

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89
Q

most breast cancers are in what quadrant

A

upper outer

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90
Q

4 clinical signs of breast cancer:

A

venous dilation, Peau d’ orange, skin dimpling, and nipple retraction

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91
Q

Functions of General Visceral Afferent (GVA) nerves:

A

Stretch, Strong Contractions, Ischemia, Visceral Reflexes

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92
Q

Function of General Visceral Efferent neurons

A

ANS

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93
Q

The ANS is broken down into the:

A

sympathetic and parasympathetic

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94
Q

GVE effector cells:

A

smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands

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95
Q

2 neuron chains of GVE:

A

pre- and post-ganglionic

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96
Q

Of the Pre and post ganglionic GVE neurons, which are myelinated?

A

preganglionic chain is myelinated. postganglionic is not

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97
Q

Sympathetic chain location-

A

thoraco-lumbar (T1-L2)

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98
Q

How do the lengths of the pre and post ganglionic chains differ between sympathetic and parasympathetic?

A

Sympathetic: short preganglionics and long postganglionics

Parasympathetic is opposite

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99
Q

Sympathetic nervous system decreases _____ and increases heart rate

A

peristalsis

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100
Q

the 4 types of prevertebral sympathetic ganglia:

A

Celiac
Superior mesenteric
Inferior mesenteric
Aorticorenal

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101
Q

What does IMLCC stand for?

A

intermediolateral cell column

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102
Q

What is a common name for IMLCC?

A

Lateral horn

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103
Q

Which spinal segments contain a lateral horn?

A

T1-L2

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104
Q

Which ramus communicans is myelinated?

A

White ramus communicans

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105
Q

The preganglionic sympathetic axon travels through the ____ to the sympathetic chain ganglion

A

white ramus communicans

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106
Q

The postganglonic sympathetic axon travels through the ______ to reach the ventral ramus

A

gray ramus communicans

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107
Q

What is a splanchnic nerve?

A

a preganglionic sympathetic axon that passes through sympathetic chain ganglion without synapsing. It synapses later on at its target organ

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108
Q

All spinal nerves are associated with _____ramus communicans, but only the spinal nerves between T1 and L2 are associated with _____ ramus communicans.

A
  • gray

- white

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109
Q

Why is the sympathetic chain enlarged at the top of the neck?

A

It is the last place that the sympathetic nerves going all over the head have access to the spinal cord.

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110
Q

The greater splanchnic nerve is renamed _______ as it travels inferiorly

A

lesser splanchnic then least splanchnic

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111
Q

ptosis

A

droopy eyelid

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112
Q

miosis

A

constricted pupil

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113
Q

anhidrosis

A

decreased sweating

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114
Q

Horner’s syndrome

A

Due to lesion/compression of one side of the cervical or thoracic sympathetic chain, which generates symptoms on the ipsilateral side of body.
Causes ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis, enopthalmos, and flushing of the face

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115
Q

enopthalmos

A

the impression that the eye is sunk in

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116
Q

the parasympathetic nervous system originates from what areas?

A

Cranial nerves III, VII, IX, X (but we are only currently concerned with X) as well as spinal cord segments S2, 3, 4

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117
Q

What is the only parasympathetic nerve in the thoracic cavity or abdominal viscera

A

Vagus nerve (Cranial nerve X)

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118
Q

Where are sacral parasympathetic nerves located?

A

wall of pelvic viscera

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119
Q

Vagus Nerve:
Preganglionic cell body location:

Postganglioinic cell body location:

A
  • Dorsal motor nucleus of X

- -Wall of organ

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120
Q

Sympathetic NT released on target tissue:

Parasympathetic NT released on target tissue:

A
  • NE

- ACh

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121
Q

General visceral afferents (GVA) travel back from the organ (e.g., heart) to the CNS along with the _____supplying that specific organ.

A

GVE fibers

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122
Q

Generally, those GVA pain fibers from thoracic organs and abdominal organs travel back to CNS with _______, while those GVA pain fibers from pelvic organs travel back to the CNS with __________.

A
  • sympathetics

- parasympathetics

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123
Q

Visceral Afferent–> ______–> _____–> ______–> ______–> ______–> Dorsal Horn

A

Visceral Afferent–> splanchnic Nerve–> sympathetic chain–> white ramus communicans–> ventral ramus–> dorsal root–> dorsal horn

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124
Q

Visceral Afferent fibers never travel through the ____ rami communicans!

A

gray

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125
Q

referred pain

A

Pain originating in one location in the body but perceived by the patient as coming from another location in the body.

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126
Q

Referred pain example: appendicitis

Why does appendicitis initially hurt in the umbilical region, then travel to the RLQ?

A

appendix is innervated by T10, which also innervates belly button region. However, subsequent peritonitis will irritate the parietal peritoneum in the RLQ innervated by T12 & L1.

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127
Q

The 3 joints of the shoulder-

A

sternoclavicular, acromioclavicular, and glenohumeral

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128
Q

pectoral girdle-

A

consists of clavicle, scapular, and part of the sternum (both sides). One side is 1/2 pectoral girdle

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129
Q

Suprascapular notch is traversed by

A

superior transverse scapular ligament

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130
Q

which arteries and nerves are associated with the suprascapular notch/foramen?

A

suprascapular artery (goes over ligament) and suprascapular nerve (goes under ligament)

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131
Q

where does the clavicle attach to the scapula?

A

the acromion

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132
Q

Describe the sternoclavicular joint in 2 words

A

synovial/saddle joint

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133
Q

describe the acromoclavicular joint in 2 words

A

synovial/plane joint

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134
Q

3 ligaments that reinforce the acromioclavicular joint

A

acromioclavicular, coraclavicular, and coracoacromial ligaments

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135
Q

Pectoral girdle consists of:

A

scapulae, clavicles, and sternum

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136
Q

due to muscles pulling on clavicle, clavicle breaks can lead to 2 manifestations:

A

clavicular shortening and tenting

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137
Q

the suprascapular artery anastomoses with the _____ artery in the _______

A
  • dorsal scapular

- infraspinous fossa

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138
Q

3 muscles that attach to the greater tuberosity of the humerus

A

teres minor, supraspinatus, and infraspinatus

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139
Q

3 muscles that attach to the intertubercular groove

A

long head of biceps, lat dorsi, and teres major

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140
Q

which side of humerus are greater and lesser tubercles on?

A

anterior

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141
Q

_______ in sternoclavicular joint cavity helps absorb shock from the upper extremity and aids in mobility

A

articular disc

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142
Q

Coraco-acromial ligament aids in reinforcing _______ joint

A

glenohumeral

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143
Q

_______ stops glenohumeral joint from abducting too far

A

coraco-acromial ligament

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144
Q

________ movement occurs along the long axis of glenohumeral joint

A

medial and lateral rotational

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145
Q

biceps tendon is ensheathed by:

A

a bursa

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146
Q

________ protects supraspinatus from deltoid

A

subacromial bursa

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147
Q

what nerve and artery emerge from the quadrangular space?

A

axillary nerve and posterior circumflex humeral artery

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148
Q

what arteries lie deep to the trianglular space of the scapula?

A

circumflex scapular arteries

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149
Q

what nerve and artery lie deep to the triangular interval

A

radial nerve and profunda brachii artery

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150
Q

distal attachment of pectoralis major is where on the humerus?

A

intertubercular sulcus

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151
Q

innervation of pectoralis major

A

lateral and medial pectoral nerves, which originate in C5-T1. C6 main clavicular head innervation and C7/8 main sternocostal head innervation

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152
Q

pectoralis minor inferomedial attachments-

A

3rd-5th ribs

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153
Q

pectoralis minor superolateral attachment-

A

coracoid process of scapula

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154
Q

action of pectoralis minor-

A

stabilizes scapula by drawing it inferiorly and anteriorly against thoracic wall

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155
Q

innervation of pec minor

A

medial pectoral nerve

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156
Q

proximal attachment of subclavius muscle

A

1st rib

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157
Q

distal attachment of subclavius muscle

A

middle 1/3 of clavicle

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158
Q

innervation of subclavius muscle

A

nerve to subclavius from C5

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159
Q

main function of serratus anterior

A

hold scapula against thoracic cage

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160
Q

innervation to serratus ant.

A

long thoracic nerve (C5-7)

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161
Q

blood supply to serratus anterior

A

lateral thoracic artery

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162
Q

injury to long thoracic nerve is characterized by _____ of the scapula

A

winging

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163
Q

extrinsic muscle-

A

starts in one zone of interest and ends in different zone of interest

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164
Q

intrinsic muscle-

A

starts and ends in same zone of interest

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165
Q

innervations of trapezius-

A

spinal accessory nerve (motor) and C3/4 (sensory)

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166
Q

3 parts of trapezius muscle:

A

descending (superior), transverse, and ascending (inferor)

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167
Q

innervation of the lat

A

thoracodorsal nerve (C6-8)

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168
Q

proximal attachment of lat dorsi

A

spinous processes of lower thoracic, iliac crest, thoracolumbar fascia, and lower thoracic ribs

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169
Q

distal attachment of lat dorsi

A

floor of intertubercular sulcus of humerus

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170
Q

innervation of levator scapulae

A

dorsal scapular nerve (C4/5) & cervical nerve (C3/4)

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171
Q

action of levator scapulae muscle

A

elevate and rotate scapula, depress glenoid cavity

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172
Q

proximal attachment of levator scapulae

A

transverse process of C1-C4 vert.

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173
Q

innervation of rhomb major

A

dorsal scapular nerve (C4/5)

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174
Q

what action does levator scapulae, rhomboid major, and rhomboid minor have in common?

A

depress glenoid cavity

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175
Q

how do proximal attachments of levator scapulae differ from the rhomboids?

A

levator scapulae attaches to transverse processes but rhomboids attach to spinous processes

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176
Q

proximal attachments of rhomboid major

A

spinous processes of T2-T5

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177
Q

distal attachment of rhomboid major

A

medial border of scapula INFERIOR TO SPINE

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178
Q

innervation of rhomb minor

A

dorsal scapular nerve

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179
Q

proximal attachments of rhomboid minor

A

spinous processes of C7/T1 & nuchal ligament

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180
Q

distal attachment of rhomboid minor

A

medial border of scapula, SUPERIOR TO SPINE

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181
Q

proximal attachment of deltoid

A

inferior region of scapular spine and acromion, lateral 1/3 of clavicle

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182
Q

innervation of deltoid

A

axillary nerve (C5,C6)

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183
Q

innervation of teres major

A

lower subscapular nerve (C5/6)

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184
Q

teres major nicknamed _____ because of its similarity in function to the lat dorsi

A

little lat

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185
Q

SITS muscles:

A

supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis

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186
Q

supraspinatus innervation

A

suprascapular nerve (C4-6)

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187
Q

distal attachment of supraspinatus

A

superior facet of greater tubercle of humerus

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188
Q

most common muscle torn in a rotator cuff injury

A

supraspinauts

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189
Q

infraspinatus innervation

A

suprascapular nerve (C5/6)

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190
Q

distal attachment of infraspinauts

A

middle facet of greater tubercle

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191
Q

teres minor distal attachment

A

inferior facet of greater tuberosity of humerus

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192
Q

teres minor innervation

A

posterior branch of axillary nerve (C5/6)

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193
Q

subscapularis inneravtion

A

superior and inferior subscapularis nerves C5-7

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194
Q

distal attachment of subscapularis

A

lesser tubercle of humerus

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195
Q

global tear-

A

muscles of rotator cuff torn and joint capsule is torn or disarticulated

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196
Q

clinically, rotator cuff tears usually include at least ____ of the SITS muscles

A

2

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197
Q

conduit

A

means by which neurovascular structures enter and leave the upper extremity from the cervical region

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198
Q

the 6 sides of the axilla

A

Apex, Base, Anterior Wall, Posterior Wall, Medial Wall, and Lateral Wall

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199
Q

What makes up the axillary apex?

A

posterior aspect of clavicle, superior edge of scapula, lateral aspect of 1st rib

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200
Q

What makes up the axillary base?

A

axillary fossa/depression, which consists of skin, subcutaneous tiissue, and deep axillary fascia

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201
Q

What makes up the axillary anterior wall?

A

pectoralis major and minor with their fascia

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202
Q

What makes up the axillary posterior wall?

A

subscapularis, scapula, teres major, latissimus dorsi

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203
Q

What makes up the axillary medial wall?

A

thoracic wall (1st-4th ribs and first 4 intercostal spaces and muscles, along with serratus anterior)

204
Q

What makes up the axillary lateral wall?

A

intertubercular groove/sulcus of humerus

205
Q

which muscle in the axilla is innervated superficially?

A

serratus anterior

206
Q

axillary artery and vein and brachial plexus are wrapped in

A

axillary sheath

207
Q

axillary sheath-

A

continuation of pre-vertebral fascia of the cervical region in the neck but still distinct from other nearby fascia

208
Q

when does the subclavian artery become the axillary artery?

A

at the lateral border of the 1st rib

209
Q

when does the axillary artery become the brachial artery?

A

at the inferior border of teres major

210
Q

name the branch in the 1st part of the axillary artery

A

superior thoracic artery

211
Q

define the boundaries of the first part of the axillary artery.

A

lateral border of 1st rib to medial border of pec minor

212
Q

define the boundaries of the second part of the axillary artery

A

portion deep to pec minor

213
Q

define the boundaries of the third part of the axillary artery

A

lateral border of pec minor to inferior border of teres major

214
Q

2 branches of 2nd part of axillary artery

A

thracoacromial artery and lateral thoracic artery

215
Q

what does thoracoacromial artery branch into? (4)

A

clavicular, acromial, deltoid, and pectoral artery

216
Q

what does lateral thoracic artery supply

A

serratus anterior

217
Q

3 branches of the 3rd part of axillary artery

A

subscapular artery, anterior circumflex humeral artery, and posterior circumflex humeral artery

218
Q

what does subscapular artery divide into?

A

circumflex scapular artery and throacodorsal artery

219
Q

what artery emerges from the triangular space?

A

circumflex scapular artery

220
Q

what artery and nerve emerge from quadrangular space?

A

posterior circumflex humeral artery and axillary nerve

221
Q

what artery and nerve lie deep to the triangular interval?

A

radial nerve and profunda brachii artery

222
Q

anastomoses-

A

allow collateral circulation. region where arteries share vessels. occlusion of a vessel can be compensated by more blood flow through the other one(s)

223
Q

which 2 veins unite to form axillary vein?

A

brachial vein and basilic vein

224
Q

borders of axillary vein

A

begins at inferior border of teres major and ends at lateral border of 1st rib

225
Q

C4 contribution to brachial plexus is called a

A

prefixed brachial plexus

226
Q

T2 contribution to brachial plexus is called a

A

postfixed brachial plexus

227
Q

does brachial plexus include sympathetic fibers?

A

yes

228
Q

what nerve branches from the roots of the brachial plexus?

A

long thoracic nerve

229
Q

_______ nerve branches from the C5 root of the brachial plexus

A

dorsal scapular nerve

230
Q

name the 2 nerves that branch from the superior trunk of the brachial plexus

A

suprascapular and subclavius nerves

231
Q

cords of the brachial plexus are named in relation to:

A

the axillary artery

232
Q

3 branches of lateral cord of brachial plexus

A

lateral pectoral nerve, musculocutaneous nerve, and lateral root of median nerve

233
Q

5 branches of medial cord of brachial plexus

A

medial pectoral nerve, medial brachial cutaneous nerve, medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve, ulnar nerve, and medial root of median nerve

234
Q

5 branches of posterior cord of brachial plexus

A

ULTRA*

upper subscapular nerve, thoracodorsal nerve, lower subscapular nerve, axillary nerve, and radial nerve

235
Q

what does the upper subscapular nerve innervate?

A

subscapularis

236
Q

what does the thoracodorsal nerve innervate

A

latissimus dorsi

237
Q

alternate name for thoracodorsal nerve

A

middle subscapular

238
Q

what does the lower subscapular nerve innervate?

A

teres major

239
Q

what does the axillary nerve innervate?

A

deltoid and teres minor

240
Q

what does the radial nerve innnervate?

A

most of posterior compartment

241
Q

5 terminal branches of the brachial plexus:

A

MARMU

musculocutaneous, axillary, radial, median, and ulnar nerve

242
Q

roots of musculocutaneous nerve

A

C5-C7

243
Q

roots of axillary nerve

A

C5-6

244
Q

roots of radial nere

A

C5-T1

245
Q

roots of median nerve

A

C6-T1

246
Q

roots of ulnar nerve

A

C8-T1

247
Q

musculocutaneous nerve
motor innervation:
sensory innervation:

A

anterior compartment of arm

emerges from cubital fossa and continues in lateral portion of forearm as the lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve, innervating skin of lateral forearm

248
Q

what part of median nerve is vulnerable to injury?

A

portion crossing anterior to the elbow in the cubital fossa

249
Q

Median nerve motor innervations

A

all but 1.5 of the muscles of anterior compartment of the forearm, intrinsic thumb muscles, and 1st & 2nd lumbricals

250
Q

median nerve sensory innervations

A

thumb half of palmar hand, palmar aspect of thumb + 2.5 fingers, and nail bed of thumb + 2.5 fingers

251
Q

ulnar nerve is frequently damaged where?

A

where it runs posterior to the medial epicondyle

252
Q

ulnar nerve sensory innervations:

A

digiti minimi half of palmar and dorsal hand, 1.5 fingers including nail beds

253
Q

ulnar nerve motor innervations

A

flexor carpi ulnaris and ulnar half of flexor digitorum profundus, and all intrinsic muscles of the hand that arent innervated by median nerve

254
Q

axillary nerve travels down humerus with what artery?

A

posterior circumflex humeral artery

255
Q

axillary nerve motor innervations

A

teres minor and deltoid

256
Q

axillary nerve sensory innervations

A

glenohumeral joint and superolateral arm cutaneous

257
Q

dislocating shoulder can easily damage _____ nerve

A

axillary

258
Q

radial nerve runs in ______ around posterior aspect of humerus, then emerges in ______ anteriorly

A
  • spiral groove

- cubital fossa

259
Q

motor innervations of radial nerve

A

all muscles of posterior compartments of arm and forearm

260
Q

sensory innervations of radial nerve

A

posterior and inferolateral arm, posterior forearm, dorsal aspect of hand on thumb side up to the nail beds from thumb to half of middle finger

261
Q

the only nerve on the back of the elbow is the:

A

ulnar nerve

262
Q

fracture of humerus often injures the ______ nerve

A

radial

263
Q

myotome-

A

group of muscles innervated by one nerve

264
Q

Erb-duchene palsy-

A

upper trunk lesion C5-6 (baby with arm turned out, poor use of arm)

265
Q

klumpke’s palsy

A

ulnar nerve damage

266
Q

Axillary nerve damage can lead to _____ atrophy

A

deltoid

267
Q

median nerve injury can lead to ______ atrophy or ______ hand posture

A
  • thenar

- ape hand

268
Q

wrist drop derives from ____ nerve damage

A

radial

269
Q

ulnar nerve injury can lead to 2 visually distinct hand postures:

A

positive froment’s sign and ulnar claw

270
Q

suboccipital nerve is _______ branch of dorsal ramus of _______

A

medial

C2

271
Q

____ pairs of cranial nerves

A

12

272
Q

Cranial nerve XI actually arises from

A

superior part of spinal cord

273
Q

which is larger, ventral or dorsal rami?

A

ventral

274
Q

where do sacral spinal nerves form and branch into rami?

A

within the sacrum before leaving anterior and posterior sacral foramina

275
Q

In the upper area of the body, the medial branches of dorsal rami supply _____ and the lateral branches supply ______. This reverses in lower part of body

A

skin

deep muscles

276
Q

Dermatome landmarks:
Nipple-
Umbilicus-
Groin-

A
  • T4
  • T10
  • L1
277
Q

Are sympathetics and parasympathetics always found together?

A

no

278
Q

Preganglionic GVE is or is not myelinated?

A

is myelinated

279
Q

are postganglionic autonomic neurons myelinated?

A

no

280
Q

are sympathetic preganglionics long or short?

A

short

281
Q

which cranial nerves send out parasympathetics?

A

3, 7, 9, 10

282
Q

are parasympathetic preganglionics long or short?

A

long

283
Q

will you find parasympathetics in the body wall?

A

no

284
Q

ganglion impar-

A

point of convergence of the paravertebral sympathetic chain ganglions

285
Q

swellings within sympathetic chain are due to

A

postganglionic cell bodies

286
Q

IMLCC stands for

A

intermediolateral cell column

287
Q

connection between ventral ramus and sympathetic ganglion referred to as

A

white ramus communicans

288
Q

postganglionic sympathetic cell fibers leave ganglion via

A

gray ramus communicans

289
Q

which is more distal on the sympathetic chain, white or gray rami?

A

white

290
Q

all spinal nerves are associated with ______ rami communicans

A

gray

291
Q

4 symptoms of horners syndrome

A

ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis, and flushing of face

292
Q

postganglionic sympathetic nerves release what NT to sweat glands?

A

ACh

293
Q

parasympathetic neurons (both pre and post ganlionic) release what NT?

A

ACh

294
Q

GVA pain fibers from thoracic and abdominal organs travel back to CNS with ________, while GVA from pelvic organs travel back with ________

A

sympathetics

parasympathetics

295
Q

do GVA travel through white or gray rami communicans?

A

always white

296
Q

suprascapular artery anastomoses with

A

dorsal scapular artery

297
Q

bicipital groove is aka

A

intertubercular groove

298
Q

coracoclavicular ligament is comprised of what two smaller ligaments?

A

trapezoid and conoid

299
Q

contents of triangular space?

A

circumflex scapular arteries

300
Q

subclavius muscle innervation

A

nerve to subclavius

301
Q

spinal roots of nerve to subclavius

A

C5,6

302
Q

what innervates trapezius?

A

spinal accessory nerve (CN 11)

303
Q

spinal roots of thoracodorsal nerve

A

C678

304
Q

proximal attachments of lat dorsi

A

SPINOUS processes of lower thoracic, iliac crest, thoracolumbar fascia, lower ribs

305
Q

levator scapulae innervation

A

dorsal scapular nerve and cervical nerve

306
Q

roots of dorsal scauplar nerve

A

c45

307
Q

proximal attachments of levator scapulae?

A

TRANSVERSE processes of c1-4

308
Q

rhomboids innervation

A

dorsal scapular nerve

309
Q

dorsal scapular nerve roots

A

c45

310
Q

action of levator scapulae

A

elevates and rotates scapula to depress glenoid cavity

311
Q

action of rhomboid mm

A

retract scapula and depress glenoid cavity

312
Q

proximal attachments of rhomboid mm

A

SPINOUS processes of C7-T1/T2-T5

313
Q

teres major innervation

A

lower subscapular nerve

314
Q

roots of lower subscapular nerve

A

c56

315
Q

suprascapular nerve roots

A

c456

316
Q

axillary nerve roots

A

c56

317
Q

subscapularis m innervation

A

superior and inferior subscapular nerves

318
Q

superior and inferior subscapular nerve roots

A

c567

319
Q

action of teres major

A

adducts and medially rotates arm

320
Q

action of infraspinatus

A

lateral rotation of humerus

321
Q

teres minor action

A

lateral rotation of humerus

322
Q

subscapularis action

A

medially rotates and flexes humerus, helps hold humerus in joint

323
Q

complete this:

Lobules——–>nipple

A

lobules–>lactiferous duct–>lactiferous sinus–>nipple

324
Q

innervation of the breast

A

supraclavicular nerves

325
Q

entire lymph of breast first drains into

A

sub-areolar lymphatic plexus

326
Q

_______________quadrant breast cancers are hard to diagnose because lymph drains in that reason rather than axillary

A

upper inner

327
Q

what artery and nerve supply serratus anterior

A

lateral thoracic artery and long thoracic nerve

328
Q

axillary vein mirrors axillary artery except

A

no thoracoacromial vein

329
Q

brachial plexus emerges btw what muscles?

A

anterior and middle scalene muscles in the nect

330
Q

3 branches of lateral cord

A

lateral pectoral, musculocutaneous, and lateral root of median nerve

331
Q

branches of medial cord

A

medial pectoral, medial brachial cutaneous, and medial antebrachial cutaneous nerves. also ulnar nerve and medial root of median nerve

332
Q

posterior cord branches

A

upper, middle, and lower subscapular nerve, and axillary and radial nerve

333
Q

roots of musculocutaneous nerve

A

c567

334
Q

MC nerve pierces the _________ then runs btween _______

A

coracobrachialis

biceps and brachialis

335
Q

roots of median nerve

A

c678 + t1

336
Q

sensory portion of median nerve

A

thumb half of palmar hand, palmar aspect of thumb and digits 2, 3, and 1/2 4 plus their nail beds

337
Q

sensory portion of ulnar nerve

A

ulnar half of dorsal and palmar hand

338
Q

roots of axillary nerve

A

c56

339
Q

sensory portion of axillary nerve

A

glenohumeral joint and superolateral arm

340
Q

sensory portions of radial nerve

A

posterior compartment and dorsal aspect of hand on thumb side up to the nail beds. just 2.5 fingers, ulnar does the rest

341
Q

myotome

A

group of muscles innervated by one spinal nerve

342
Q

Erb-duchene palsy roots affected

A

c56

343
Q

nerve damaged that causes klumpkes palsy

A

ulnar

344
Q

roots affected in klumpkes palsy

A

c8/t1

345
Q

ape hand is due to what nerve injury

A

median

346
Q

positive froments sign is from ____ nerve damage

A

ulnar

347
Q

deltoid branch of thracoacromial trunk travels with

A

cephalic vein

348
Q

what two things go through snuff box?

A

superficial radial nerve and deep radial artery

349
Q

which two nerves branch from deep branch of radial nerve

A

radial indicis and princeps pollicis

350
Q

under the trap, what artery will you find?

A

transverse cervical artery

351
Q

how to differentiate circumflex scapular from posterior circumflex humeral?

A

CS more inferior, toward scapula

352
Q

2 nerves that come off superior trunk

A

suprascapular and nerve to subclavius

353
Q

labrum-

A

ring of cartilage surrounding glenoid fossa

354
Q

path of lymph drainage from breast:

A

subareolar lymphatic plexus–> axillary nodal basin–> pectoral, subscapular, and humeral nodal regions–> apical lymph nodes–> subclavian vein

355
Q

All spinal nerves are associated with _______ rami communicans

A

grey

356
Q

preganglionic sympathetic and parasympathetic neurons release

A

ACh

357
Q

brachialis distal attachment

A

ulnar tuberosity and coronoid process

358
Q

distal attachment of iceps brachii m

A

radial tuberosity

359
Q

smiths fracture-

A

anterior displacement of radial fragment

360
Q

colles’ fracture/dinner fork fracture-

A

posterior displacement of distal radial fragment and possible breaking of tip of ulnar styloid process

361
Q

lateral aspect of brachialis can receive some innervation from

A

radial nerve

362
Q

distal attachment of anconeus

A

posterior ulna and olecranon

363
Q

pronator teres proximal attachment

A

coronoid process and medial epicondyle

364
Q

pronator teres distal attachment

A

middle convexity of lateral surface of radius

365
Q

proximal attachment of flexor carpi ulnaris

A

medial epicondyle, olecranon, and posterior border of ulna

366
Q

proximal attacments of FDS

A

medial epicondyle and superior half of anterior border of radius

367
Q

proximal attacments of FDP

A

proximal 3/4 of anterior and medial surfaces of ulna and interosseous membrane

368
Q

proximal attacments of FPL

A

anterior surface of radius and interosseous membrane

369
Q

distal attachment of FPL

A

base of distal phalanx of thumb

370
Q

proximal attachment of brachioradialis

A

proximal 2/3 of lateral supraepicondylar ridge of humerus

371
Q

distal attachment of brachioradialis

A

lateral surface of distal end of radius, proximal to styloid process

372
Q

proximal attachment of ECRL

A

lateral supraepicondylar ridge

373
Q

extensor digitorum extends digits at what 2 joints

A

MCP and IP

374
Q

proximal attachments of ECU

A

lateral epicondyle and posterior border of ulna through shared aponeurosis

375
Q

proximal attachments of supinator

A

lateral epicondyle, radial and ulnar collateral ligaments, supinator fossa, and crest of ulna

376
Q

proximal attachments of extensor indicis

A

posterior surface of distal 1/3 of ulna and interosseous membrane

377
Q

proximal attacments of Abductor pollicis longus

A

proximal halves of ulna, radius, and interosseous membrane

378
Q

proximal attachments of extensor pollicis longus

A

posterior surface of middle 1/3 of ulna and interosseous membrane

379
Q

distal attachment of extensor pollicis longus

A

dorsal aspect of base of distal phalanx of thumb

380
Q

proximal attachments of extensor pollicis brevis

A

posterior surface of distal 1/3 of radius and interosseous membrane

381
Q

distal attachment of extensor pollicis brevis

A

dorsal aspect of base of proximal phalanx of thumb

382
Q

superficial nerves of cubital fossa

A

medial and lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerves

383
Q

what branch does axillary nerve give off

A

superior lateral brachial cutaneous nerve

384
Q

median nerve passes between what in the forearm

A

heads of pronator teres

385
Q

ulnar nerve runs between what in the posterior compartment?

A

septum and medial head of triceps brachii

386
Q

radial nerve gives off posterior antebrachial cutaneous nerve, which pierces ______ and runs laterally

A

lateral head of triceps

387
Q

radial nerve partially runs in anterior compartment until it reemerges between what two muscles

A

brachialis and brachioradials

388
Q

deep branch of radial nerve winds around ________ in cubital fossa

A

neck of radius

389
Q

superficial branch of radial nerve runs between

A

pronator teres and brachioradials

390
Q

radial collateral ligamet attaches distally to

A

annular ligament

391
Q

3 bands that make up ulnar collateral ligament

A

anterior, posterior, and oblique bands

392
Q

distal attachments of ulnar collateral ligament

A

olecranon and coronoid process

393
Q

annular ligament does what-

A

encircles and braces head of radius in radial notch of ulna

394
Q

synovial membrane of elbow joint extends distally to the

A

sacciform recess

395
Q

nurse maids elbow- radial head dislocates from _____ ligament

A

annular

396
Q

axis of distal radioulnar joint is through

A

head of ulna

397
Q

triangular ligament is a __________ that covers _________

A

fibroelastic disc

distal head of ulna

398
Q

what 2 ligaments join distal radius and ulna

A

anterior and posterior radioulnar ligaments

399
Q

scaphoid bone forms the radial border of the carpal tunnel along with the

A

trapezium

400
Q

which 2 carpals articulate with radius

A

scaphoid and lunate

401
Q

which carpal bone articulates with the articular disc

A

triquetrum

402
Q

pisiform forms medial border of

A

canal of guyon

403
Q

trapezium articulates with

A

1st and 2nd metacarpals

404
Q

the largest carpal bone

A

capitate

405
Q

hamate forms lateral border of

A

canal of guyon

406
Q

which metacarpal has a styloid process?

A

3rd

407
Q

what kind of joint is the radiocarpal joint?

A

condyloid

408
Q

ulnar collateral ligament of wrist attaches to

A

ulnar styloid process and triquetrum

409
Q

radial collateral ligament or wrist attaches to

A

radial styloid process and scaphoid

410
Q

movement of 1st metacarpal joint

A

flexion and extension only

411
Q

palmar plates-

A

enable FDP and FDS muscles to slide smoothly along joints

412
Q

flexor retinaculum is located between

A

tubercles of scaphoid and trapezium

413
Q

medial boders of carpal tunnel

A

hamate hook and pisiform

414
Q

tendons present in carpal tunnel

A

FDS, FDP, FPL

415
Q

borders of anatomical snuff box

A

abductor pollics, extensor pollicis brevis, and extensor pollicis longus

416
Q

which muscle is innervated by superficial branch of ulna

A

palmaris brevis

417
Q

proximal attachments of abductor pollicis brevis, flexor pollicis brevis, and opponens pollicis

A

flexor retinaculum and tubercles of scaphoid and trapezium

418
Q

distal attachment of abductor pollicis brevis and flexor pollicis brevis

A

lateral aspect of base of proximal phalanx of thumb

419
Q

distal attachment of opponens pollicis

A

lateral side of thumb

420
Q

proximal attachments of adductor pollicis

A

capitate, base of 2nd and 3rd metacarpals and shaft of 3rd metacarpal

421
Q

2 heads of adductor pollicis

A

transverse and oblique

422
Q

proximal attachment of abductor digiti minimi

A

pisiform

423
Q

proximal attachment of FDM

A

hamate and flexor retinaculum

424
Q

ODM proximal attachment-

A

hook of hamate and flexor retinaculum

425
Q

proximal attachment of lumbricals

A

FDP tendons

426
Q

distal attachment of lumbricals

A

lateral aspect of extensor expansions

427
Q

proximal attachment of palmar interossei

A

palmar aspect of 2nd, 4th, and 5th metacarpals

428
Q

distal attachment of palmar interossei

A

base of proximal phalanges and extensor expansions of 2nd, 4th, and 5th digits

429
Q

proximal attachment of dorsal interossei

A

adjacent sides of 2 metacarpals

430
Q

distal attachments of dorsal interossei

A

bases of proximal phalanges and extensor exansions of 2nd-4th digits

431
Q

what expands into the extensor expansion?

A

extensor digitorum tendon

432
Q

lumbricals and interossei ______ at MCP joint and ______ at PIP joint

A

flex

extend

433
Q

radial artery branch near thumb

A

princeps pollicis

434
Q

radial artery branch near index finger

A

radialis indicis

435
Q

a positive allen test is normal/abnormal?

A

abnormal

436
Q

what branches of median nerve innervate 1st and 2nd lumbrical?
are they also sensory?

A

lateral and medial branch of median nerve

yes

437
Q

branches of ulnar nerve in hand:

A

palmar cutaneous, dorsal cutaneous, superficial, and deep

438
Q

do cutaneous branches of ulnar nerve branch before or after canal of guyon?

A

before

439
Q

cutaneous innervation of superficial branch of ulnar nerve

A

5tha dn half of 4th digit and ulnar side of palm

440
Q

superficial branch of radial nerve provides what sensory to hand?

A

basically dorsal lateral half of hand minus cuticles

441
Q

why do you test radial nerve at metacarpophalangeal joint?

A

because lumbricals and interossei help extend IP joint and you want only muscles innervated by radial nerve to be tested, which would be extensor digitorum on MCP joint

442
Q

parasternal plane-

A

vertical line halfway between midclavicular line and sternal plane

443
Q

sternal plane-

A

vertical plane along the lateral aspect of the sternum

444
Q

subcostal plane-

A

a transverse plane that runs along the bottom of the rib cage

445
Q

which vertebral area is at the same level as the angle of louis?

A

IV disc between T4 and T5

446
Q

what marks the devision between the superior and inferior mediastinum?

A

sternal angle

447
Q

what marks level of ascending and descending parts of arch of aorta?

A

sternal angle

448
Q

what marks level where azygos vein ascends into superior vena cava?

A

sternal angle

449
Q

what marks level of bifurcation of trachea?

A

sternal angle

450
Q

xiphisternal joint corresponds to what part of spine?

A

IV disc between T9 and T10

451
Q

subcostal line is at the _____ vertebral level

A

L3

452
Q

umbilicus corresponds to the _____ vertebral level

A

L4

453
Q

branches of descending aorta that extend along the inferior aspect of the ribs-

A

posterior intercostal arteries

454
Q

posterior intercostal arteries anastomose with-

A

anterior intercostal arteries, which branched from internal thoracic arteries

455
Q

internal thoracic arteries terminate inferiorly as what arteries?

A

musculophrenic and superior epigastric arteries

456
Q

internal thoracic vein drains into

A

superior vena cava

457
Q

thoracic spinal nerves only supply what area?

A

costal

458
Q

false ribs-

A

ribs 8-10 attach indirectly to the sternum through the cartilage of the rib above

459
Q

floating ribs-

A

ribs 11-12 have no connection to sternum

460
Q

typical ribs-

A

ribs 3-9 share same general structure

461
Q

inferior aspect of internal surface of true ribs have

A

costal groove

462
Q

scalene tubercle-

A

inferior attachment on first rib for anterior scalene muscle

463
Q

joint between transverse process of vertebra and tubercle of rib is called a

A

costotransverse joint

464
Q

3 ligaments that support costotransverse joints

A

lateral costotransverse ligament, costotransverse ligament, and superior costotransverse ligament

465
Q

lungs are of _____ origin and will push out laterally into pleural cavities like a fist into a balloon

A

endodermal

466
Q

fascia lying between parietal pleura and thoracic wall

A

endothoracic fascia

467
Q

bare area of the pericardium-

A

area of heart not covered by pleura

468
Q

parietal pleura will be at the level of the ___ rib at the midclavicular line

A

8th

469
Q

parietal pleura will be at the level of the ___ rib at the midaxillary line

A

10th

470
Q

parietal pleura will be at the level of the ___ rib at the paravertebral line

A

12th

471
Q

visceral pleura will be at the level of the ___ rib at the midclavicular line

A

6th

472
Q

visceral pleura will be at the level of the ___ rib at the midaxillary line

A

8th

473
Q

visceral pleura will be at the level of the ___ rib at the paravertebral line

A

10th

474
Q

4 impressions left on the medial surface of the left lung

A

sulcus for aortic notch, sulcus for subclavian artery, cardiac notch, esophageal sulcus

475
Q

4 impressions left on medial surface of right lung

A

sulcus for superior vena cava, azygos vein, and subclavian vein, and cardiac impression

476
Q

what is the structural unit of the lung

A

bronchopulmonary segments

477
Q

bronchopulmonary segments are supplied by

A

tertiary branches of pulmonary artery

478
Q

innervation of the lung

A

anterior and posterior pulmonary plexuses

479
Q

nociception-

A

detection of tissue damage

480
Q

Superficial lymphatic plexus drains what two areas?

where does it drain into?

A
  • lung parenchyma and visceral pleura

- bronchopulmonary lymph nodes

481
Q

deep lymphatic plexus drains what areas?

where does it drain to?

A
  • submucosa of bronchi and peribronchial CT

- pulmonary lymph nodes–>bronchopulmonary lymph nodes–>tracheobronchial lymph nodes–>bronchomediastinal lymph trunks

482
Q

if there was a gunshot through center of manubrium, what structures would the bullet penetrate through?

A

skin, subcutaneous fascia, manubrium, left brachiocephalic vein, arch of aorta and its major vessels, trachea, esophagus, vertebral column

483
Q

if there is a 4th branch off the aorta, it is the

A

left vertebral artery

484
Q

fibrous pericardium is continuous with

A

tunica adventitia of roots of great vessels

485
Q

pericardiophrenic artery can convey pain called

A

pericarditis

486
Q

upper left border of heart landmark

A

2nd left costal cartilage

487
Q

apex of heart landmark

A

5th left intercostal space

488
Q

lower right border of heart landmark

A

6th right costal cartilage

489
Q

upper right border of heart landmark

A

3rd right costal cartilage

490
Q

only place that fibrocartilaginous skeleton of heart does not act as an insulator

A

opening between AV and aortic valves (bundle of his)

491
Q

smooth portion of right atrium

A

sinus venarum

492
Q

remnant of primitive atrium of embryo

A

auricle

493
Q

thick line that separates rough and smooth portion of right atrium

A

crista terminalis

494
Q

small depression that corresponds externally to the crista terminalis

A

sulcus terminalis

495
Q

thickening of top of fossa ovalis

A

Limbus of fossa ovalis

496
Q

muscular projections of right ventricle

A

trabeculae carnea

497
Q

smooth portion at superior part of right ventricle

A

conus arteriosus

498
Q

conus arteriosus is separated from rough part of right ventricle by

A

superventricular crest

499
Q

right ventricle papillary muscles, which cusps do they attach to?
anterior papillary-
posterior papillary-
septal papillary-

A

anterior and posterior cusps
posterior and septal cusps
anterior and septal cusps

500
Q

rough muscle in left ventricle

A

trabeculae carneae

501
Q

coronary arteries begin where?

A

right and left aortic sinuses

502
Q

openings of coronary arteries are called?

A

orifices. for example, orifice of right coronary artery

503
Q

left coronary artery travels in the

A

atrioventrecular sulcus

504
Q

great cardiac vein travels parallel to the

A

circumflex coronary artery

505
Q

small cardiac vein travels in the

A

atrioventrcular groove with the marginal nerve

506
Q

only cardiac veins that don’t drain into coronary sinus

A

small anterior cardiac veins

507
Q

Cardiac plexus contains what kind of nerve fibers?

A

GVA and GVE

Gross & Developmental Anatomy (8 decks)

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