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Gross & Developmental Anatomy > Developmental Block A > Flashcards

Developmental Block A Flashcards

1
Q

_____ million oogonia at 12 WGA

A

5

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2
Q

____ million primay oocytes at birth

A

2

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3
Q

development of chorionic sac occurs when?

A

end of second week

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4
Q

the core of a primary chorionic villi is

A

cytotrophoblasts

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5
Q

the core of a secondary chorionic villi is

A

mesenchyme

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6
Q

the mesenchyme core of a secondary chorionic villi will differentiate into ______, becoming a tertiary chorionic villi

A

capillaries and blood vessels

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7
Q

what makes up the chorion?

A

etraembryonic somatic mesoderm and the two layers of the trophoblast

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8
Q

decidual reaction-

A

cellular and vascular changes in the endometrium as the blastocyst implants

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9
Q

when does baby start to swallow amniotic fluid?

A

5th month

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10
Q

amniocentesis are done after ____ WGA

A

15

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11
Q

discordant twins-

A

shunted arterial blood from one twin through atriovenous anastomoses into venous circulation of other leads to one twin being underdeveloped

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12
Q

when does the primitive streak degenerate?

A

end of 4th week

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13
Q

intraembryonic mesoderm divides into what 3 layers?

A

paraxial, intermediate, and lateral mesoderm

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14
Q

paraxial mesoderm gives rise to what?

A

skeleton, striated muscle, dermis, and CT

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15
Q

intermediate mesoderm gives rise to what?

A

urogenital system

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16
Q

lateral mesoderm gives rise to what?

A

muscles of viscera, serous membranes, primordial heart, blood, spleen,

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17
Q

somite period between what days

A

20-30

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18
Q

how many somites at 20 days

A

1-4

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19
Q

how many somites at 30 days

A

35

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20
Q

intraembryonic coelom is developed in what week?

A

3rd

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21
Q

3 body cavities that the intraembryonic coelom will divide into

A

pericardial, pleural, and peritoneal

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22
Q

most nervous system cells will derive from

A

neural crest cells

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23
Q

neural tube formation begins in the ___ week of development

A

3rd

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24
Q

secondary neurulation-

A

secondary cavity formation at the caudal end of the neural tube to form the sacral spinal cord

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25
Q

what gives rise to the CNS?

A

neuroectoderm of the neural plate

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26
Q

Von Recklinghausen disease-

A

neurofibromatosis

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27
Q

CHARGE Syndrome stands for

A

Coloboma, Heart defects, Atresi choanae, retardation of growth and development, genitourinary problems, ear abnormalities

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28
Q

coloboma-

A

failure of choroid fissure to close

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29
Q

atresi choanae-

A

airway blockage

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30
Q

what kind of cells make up wall of neural tube

A

thick, pseudostratified columnar neuroepithelium

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31
Q

the spinal cord forms what 2 plates

A

alar and basal

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32
Q

sulcus limitans-

A

groove that separates the dorsal sensory neurons from the ventral motor neurons

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33
Q

when is cerebrospinal fluid produced

A

5th week

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34
Q

all NTDs are associated with

A

elevated alpha fetoprotein

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35
Q

somites differentiate into what 2 things?

A

dermomyotome and sclerotome

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36
Q

dermomyotome differentiates into what 2 things?

A

dermatome and myotome

37
Q

myotome forms

A

myoblasts

38
Q

sclerotome gives rise to

A

vertebrae and ribs

39
Q

sonic hedgehog

A

causes the ventral part of somite to form sclerotome and express PAX1

40
Q

PAX1

A

controls chondrogenesis and vertebral formation

41
Q

PAX3

A

demarcates dermomyotome

42
Q

PAX genes encode

A

nuclear transcription factors

43
Q

sclerotomes have 2 parts:

A

cranial and caudal

44
Q

cranial sclerotome portion is ______ arranged

A

loosely

45
Q

sternum develops in what week?

A

6

46
Q

four sources of tissue help develop limbs-

A

lateral plate mesoderm, somites, neural crest cells, and neural tube

47
Q

ameila-

A

complete absence of limbs

48
Q

meromelia-

A

partial absence of limbs

49
Q

clavicle initially develops by ______

A

intramembranous ossification

50
Q

cleidocranial dystosis-

A

incomplete or absent clavicles

51
Q

achondroplasia is also called-

A

hypoplastic chondrodystrophy

52
Q

achondroplasia is an impairment of-

A

cartilage development in epiphyseal plates

53
Q

first heart field gives rise to

A

entire left ventricle and parts of both atria

54
Q

second heart field gives rise to

A

entire right ventricle and outflow tracts and parts of both atria

55
Q

sinus venosus will become what in the adult

A

sinus venarum, coronary sinus, and oblique vein of left atrium

56
Q

3 veins that bring blood to the sinus venosus-

A

umbilical vein, vitelline veins, and cardinal veins

57
Q

what do cardinal veins drain?

A

embryo proper

58
Q

primitive atrium will become-

A

trabeculated part of atrias

59
Q

primitive ventricle will become-

A

trabeculated part of ventricles

60
Q

bulbos cordis will become-

A

smooth part of right and left ventricles

61
Q

smooth part of right ventricle is called

A

conus arteriosus

62
Q

smooth part of left ventricle is called

A

aortic vestibule

63
Q

truncus arteriosus is the superior part of the

A

bulbos cordis

64
Q

truncus arteriosus will become

A

aorta and pulmonary trunk

65
Q

cardiac jelly signals endocardial cells to become

A

mesenchymal

66
Q

the left horn of the sinus venosus fate-

A

degrades to become coronary sinus

67
Q

the fate of the right horn of sinus venosus-

A

enlarges and becomes right half of right atrium

68
Q

the right horn of the sinus venosus accounts for what two portions of the adult right atrial wall?

A

sinus venarum and auricle

69
Q

double superior vena cava will result if

A

the left horn of sinus venosus fails to shrink

70
Q

descending aorta gives off iliac arteries, which give off ________

A

umbilical arteries

71
Q

after birth, umbilical vein becomes-

A

ligamentum teres hepatus

72
Q

after birth, ductus venosus becomes-

A

ligamentum venosum

73
Q

after birth, umbilical arteries are renamed _____

A

superior vesicle arteries that supply the bladder

74
Q

distal portion of umbilical arteries becomes-

A

medial umbilical ligaments

75
Q

tetralogy of fallot has what 4 defects?

A

pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, and enlarged right ventricle

76
Q

most common single cause of cyanotic heart disease in newborns

A

transposition of the great arteries

77
Q

transposition of great arteries often is accompanied by _________, which makes it possible to survive birth and be surgically corrected.

A

septal defects or patent foramen ovale

78
Q

which aortic arches will disappear?

A

first, second, fifth, and right side of sixth

79
Q

3rd aortic arch will form

A

proximal aspect of common carotid and internal carotid artery

80
Q

left 4th aortic arch will become what?

A

part of arch of aorta

81
Q

right 4th aortic arch becomes what?

A

proximal portion of right subclavian artery

82
Q

left 6th aortic arch becomes

A

part of pulmonary trunk and pulmonary arteries and the ductus arteriosus

83
Q

which arches form laryngeal cartilages?

A

4th and 6th

84
Q 
time period of:
pseudoglandular stage
canalicular stage
sacular stage
alveolar stage
A

6-16 weeks
16-26 weeks
26 weeks to birth
32 weeks-8 years

85
Q

all major elements of the lung have formed by the ______ stage

A

pseudoglandular stage

86
Q

respiratory bronchioles develop in the ______ stage

A

canalicular

87
Q

lung tissue becomes highly vascular in the _____ stage

A

canalicular

88
Q

____% of alveoli develop postnatally

A

95

89
Q

_______ treatment is given to mother who may be delivering prematurely to help speed baby’s lung development up

A

glucocorticoid

Gross & Developmental Anatomy (8 decks)

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