Gram Positive Bacteria Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Catalase +, Coagulase +

A

Staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Catalase +, Coagulase -, Novobiocin +

A

Staph epidermidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Catalase +, Coagulase -, Novobiocin -

A

Staph saprophyticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Catalase-negative
Alpha-hemolytic
Bile-optochin-sensitive

A

Strep. pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Catalase-negative
Alpha-hemolytic
Bile-optochin-resistant

A

Strep. viridans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Catalase-negative
Beta-hemolytic
Bacitracin-sensitive

A

Strep pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Catalase-negative
Beta-hemolytic
Bacitracin-resistant

A

Strep agalactiae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Catalase-negative

Gamma-hemolytic

A

Group D strep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Box-car-shaped

Medusa head

A

B. anthracis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Reheated Fried Rice

A

B. cereus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Drumstick-, tennis racket-, or lollipop-like

A

C. tetani

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Bulging cans

A

C. botulinium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Lecithinase

Double hemolysis

A

C. perfingens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Pseudomembranes

A

C. difficile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Curved

Chinese characters

A

Corynebacterium diptheria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Curved

Tumbling Motility

A

Listeria monocytogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Yellow “sulfur” granules

A

Actinomyces israelii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Yellow pigment

A

Staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Blue-green pigment (pyocyanin and pyoverdine>

A

Pseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Red pigment

A

Serratia marcescens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Human nose reservoir

A

Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Salt-tolerant on Mannitol salt agar (halotorelant)

A

Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Catalase-positive

A

Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

prevents complement activation

A

Protein A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Allows insoluble fibrin formation around organism, protecting it from phagocytosis

A

Coagulase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

toxic to hematopoietic cells

A

Hemolysins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

detoxifies hydrogen peroxide

A

Catalase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Specific for WBC

A

Leukocidins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

secreted form of beta-lactamase; disrupts the beta-lactam portion of the penicillin molecule, thereby inactivating the antibiotic

A

Penicilinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Immunomodulators of Staph Aureus (6)

A
CCHALP
Catalase
Coagulase
Hemolysins
Protein A
Leukocidin
Penicilinase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

“Spreading Factor”; breaks down proteoglycans in connective tissue

A

Hylauronidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

dissolves fibrin clots

A

Fibrinolysin/ Staphylokinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

causes epidermal separation in Scalded Skin Syndrome

A

Exfoliatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

superantigens causing food poisoning

A

Enterotoxin (Heat stable)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

superantigen leading to toxic shock syndrome

A

TSST - 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

causes marked necrosis of the skin and hemolysis

A

Alpha Toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Bullous impetigo, Hidradenitis supp, Mastitis

A

S. aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

 most common cause of acute endocarditis

 native valve (tricuspid valve) in IV drug abusers

A

S. aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Empyema, Pneumatocoele, Post Viral Pneumonia

A

S. aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

acute onset (4 hrs) of vomiting and diarrhea due to ingestion of preformed heat-stable enterotoxin

source: salad made with mayonnaise (potato or tuna salad)

A

S. aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

separation of skin at stratum granulosum (vs TENS/Lyell disease: separation occurs at dermo-epidermal

A

Ritter Disease/Scalded Skin Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

contain altered penicillin-binding protein (PRB)

due to resistance gene mecA

A

MRSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

DOC MRSA

A

Vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

DOC VRSA

A

Linezolid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Penicillinase-resistant penicillins DOC

A

DON
Dicloxacillin
Oxacillin
Nafcillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Gold Color in Staph aureus colonies

A

Staphyloxanthin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

MRSA gene

A

mecA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Leukocidin with propensity to form abscesses

A

Panton-Valentine Leukocidin

PVL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Osteomyelitis from metaphyseal area of long bone

A

Brodie abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

fever, hypotension, sloughing of filiform papillaestrawberry tongue, desquamating rash and multi-organ involvement (>3)

A

Toxic Shock Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

tampon-using menstruating women or in patients with nasal packing for epistaxis

A

Toxic Shock Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Humans (normal skin flora) reservoir

A

S. epidermidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Polysaccharide capsule: adheres to a variety of prosthetic devices; forms a BIOFILM

A

S. epidermidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Most common cause of:

  • prosthetic valve endocarditis
  • septic arthritis in prosthetic joints
  • ventriculoperitoneal shunt infections
A

S. epidermidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Tx. S. epidermidis infection

A

Vancomycin

Removal of Prosthetic decive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q
Catalase positive
Coagulase-negative
Facultative anaerobe
Nitrite-negative
(unlike E. coli)
Novobiocin-resistant
(Novo SERS)
A

S. saprophyticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

2nd most common cause of UTI in sexually active women

A

S. saprophyticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

DOC in S. saprophyticus

A

Fluoroquinolones

TMP-SMX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q
Catalase-negative
Bacitracin-sensitive
(B-BRAS)
Bacitracin
Group B Strep
Resistant
Group A Strep
Sensitive
A

GABHS/ Pyogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

produces scarlet fever

A

Erythrogenic toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

highly antigenic, causes AB formation; destroys RBCs and WBCs; and is the reason for the beta hemolysis
*ASO Titers to document antecedent PHARYNGITIS

A

Streptolysin O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

superantigen similar to TSST

A

Pyogenic exotoxin A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

protease that rapidly destroys tissue → necrotizing fasciitis

A

Exotoxin B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

perioral blisters with honey-colored crust; accumulation of neutrophils beyond the stratum corneum

A

Impetigo contagiosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Complication of Impetigo contagiosa

A

PSAGN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

superficial infection extending into dermal lymphatics

A

Erisepelas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

deeper infection involving subcutaneous/dermal tissues; facilitated by hyaluronidase (spreading factor)

A

Cellulitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

most common bacterial cause of sore throat

A

GABHS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

post-pharyngitic; due to erythrogenic toxin; seen in lysogenized strains; fever, strawberry tongue, sandpaper-like centrifugal rash, Pastia’s lines, desquamation

A

Scarlet Fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Test for Susceptibility of Scarlet Fever

A

Dick Test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

usually no site of pyogenic inflammation; blood CS negative

A

Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

recognizable site of pyogenic inflammation; blood cultures are often positive

A

Streptococcal toxic shock syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

rapidly progressive infection of deep subcutaneous tissues; facilitated by exotoxin B

A

Necrotizing Fascitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

GABHS DOC

A

Pen G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

PYR Test Positive

A

GABHS or Group D Strep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

For Lancefield Typing

A

Carbohydrate C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Protects from Phagocytosis and Complement activation

A

Protein M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Weakest Point of GABHS defense

A

Protein M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Fournier’s Gangrene

A

GABHS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

LIM Broth

A

Streptococcus agalactiae/ GBS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Hydrolyzes hippurate

A

Streptococcus agalactiae/ GBS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

UTI in pregnant women

A

Streptococcus agalactiae/ GBS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

NEONATAL PNEUMONIA, SEPSIS, AND MENINGITIS m/c cause

A

Streptococcus agalactiae/ GBS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Endometritis

A

Streptococcus agalactiae/ GBS

85
Q

Streptococcus agalactiae/ GBS DOC:

A

Pen G

Pen G + Aminoglycoside - Severe Infection

86
Q

Prophylaxis for GBS

A

IV penicillin or Ampicillin 4h prior to delivery

87
Q

Camp test positive

Lancefield Group B

A

Streptococcus agalactiae/ GBS

88
Q

Reservoir GUT and Colon

A

Group D streptococci

89
Q

May enter bloodstream during GIT or GUT surgery

A

Group D streptococci

90
Q

Hydrolyzes esculin in bile esculin agar (BEA)

A

Group D streptococci

91
Q

UTIs due to indwelling urinary catheters and urinary tract instrumentation

A

Group D streptococci

92
Q

Bilairy Tract Infection

A

Group D streptococci

93
Q

ENDOCARDITIS in patients who underwent GIT surgery

A

Enterococcus faecalis

94
Q

MARANTIC ENDOCARDITIS in patients with abdominal malignancy

A

Streptococcus bovis

95
Q

DOC Group D strep

A

Penicillin plus gentamicin

Vancomycin for penicillin-resistance

Linezolid for vancomycin-resistant strains

96
Q

retards phagocytosis; major virulence factor; has 84 serotypes; antigenic

A

Polysaccharide capsule

97
Q

for colonization

A

IgA Protease

98
Q

reacts with CRP

A

C substance

99
Q

m/c cause of CAP in Adults

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

100
Q

m/c Otitis Media in Kids

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

101
Q

m/c cause of Bacterial Meningitidis in Adults

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

102
Q

DOC strep Pneumonia

A

Pen G

Levo or Vanco + Ceftri for Resistance

103
Q

Lancet Shaped in pairs or chains

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

104
Q

Positive Quellung

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

105
Q

Polyvalent (23-type) polysaccharide vaccine

Conjugated vaccine: pneumococcal polysaccharide coupled with carrier protein (diphtheria toxoid)

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

106
Q

Oral Flora Reservoir

A

Viridans

107
Q

Enters bloodstream during dental procedures

A

Viridans

108
Q

Glycocalyx enhances adhesion to damaged heart valves

A

Viridans

109
Q

Protected from host defenses within vegetations

A

Viridans

110
Q

DENTAL CARIES

A

S. mutans

111
Q

most common cause of subacute and native valve endocarditis

A

S. sanguis

112
Q

BRAIN ABSCESSES

A

S. intermedius

113
Q

S. viridans DOC

A

Penicillin G +/- aminoglycoside (Gentamicin)

Vancomycin for penicillin-resistance

Linezolid for vancomycin-resistant strains

114
Q

Woolsorter’s disease

A

B. anthracis

115
Q

Protein capsule: polymer of gamma-D-glutamic acid; antiphagocytic

A

B. anthracis

116
Q

pXO2

A

Capsule

117
Q

pXO1

A

exotoxin

118
Q

the active A subunit of the exotoxin; calmodulin-dependent adenylate cyclase

A

Edema Factor

119
Q

zinc metallo-protease that inactivates protein kinase; stimulates the macrophage to release TNF-a and IL-1B death

A

Lethal Factor

120
Q

promotes entry of EF into phagocytic cells

A

Protective Antigen

121
Q

M/C site of entry of Anthrax

A

Cutaneous

122
Q

MCC of Death in Pulmonary Anthrax

A

Pulmonary Hemorrhage

123
Q

Cutaneous Anthrax DOX

A

Ciprofloxacin

124
Q

Inhalational/ GI Anthrax DOC

A

Ciprofloxacin or

Doxycycline with 1 or 2 additional antibiotics (Rifampin, Vancomycin, Penicillin, Imipenem, Clindamycin, Clarithromycin

125
Q

Monoclonal Ab used for Inhalational Anthrax

A

Raxibacumab

126
Q

M/C cause of Pulmonary Hemorrhage

A
  • Anthrax
  • Leptospirosis (Weil’s syndrome)
  • Congenital syphilis
127
Q

Medusa Head Morphology, Box Car

A

B. anthracis

128
Q

Fried Rice

A

B. cereus

129
Q

Cholera like toxin, ADP Ribosylation -> Inc cAMP

A

Heat Labile Enterotoxin

130
Q

staphylococcal-like enterotoxin functions as superantigen

A

Heat Stable Enterotoxin

131
Q
Rice
Short IP
Vomiting
Short Duration
Heat Stable
Staphylococcal
A

Emetic

132
Q
Meat and Veggies
Longer
Diarrhea
Long Duration
Heat Labile
Clostridial
A

Diarrheal

133
Q

occur after penetrating eye injuries of the eye with soil-contaminated object; complete loss of light perception within 48 h of injury

A

Ophthalmitis

134
Q

Ophtalmitis DOC

A
Ceep the Van Gentle and Clean
Ciprofloxacin
Vancomgcin
Gentamicin
Clindamycin
135
Q

Transmission of C. tetani

A

Endospore -> open wound

136
Q

Only Clostridium that is non motile, (-) Flagella, (+) H Antigen Positive

A

C. perfringens

137
Q

toxin acts on the inhibitory Renshaw cell interneurons, preventing the release of GABA and glycine (cleaves Synaptobrevin)

A

Tetanus Toxin/ Tetanuspasmin

138
Q

Tennis Racket/ Drum Stick

A

Clostridium tetani

139
Q

DOC for Tetanus

A

Metronidazole/ Penicillin, Vaccination of Tetanus Toxoid

Vaccination every 10 years

140
Q

Wild raw honey

A

Infant botulism

141
Q

Bulging Canned Goods

A

C. botulinum

142
Q

Alkaline Vegetables

A

C. botulinum

143
Q

Smoked Fish

A

C. botulinum

144
Q
  • inhibits release of acetylcholine from peripheral nerves  flaccid paralysis (descending pattern)
A

Botulinum toxin

145
Q

M/C Botulinum tox serotypes in humans

A

A,B,E

146
Q

Botox, commercial preparation of

A

Exotoxin A

147
Q

bilateral descending flaccid paralysis
Anticholinergic
Bulbar sympt
Eye sympt

A

Food Borne Botulism

148
Q

when baby ingests spores found in household dust or honey; due to absence of competitive bowel microbes; constipation, flaccid paralysis

A

Floppy Baby Syndrome/ Indant Botulism

149
Q

Triad of Botulism

A

Symmetric descending flaccid paralysis
Bulbar signs
Absence of Fever

150
Q

similar to food-borne except absence of GI prodromal symptoms; due to traumatic implantation and germination of spores at the wound site

A

Wound botulism

151
Q

Trivalent Botulinum Antitoxin

A

For Food borne and Wound botulism

152
Q

Human botulism: immunoglobulin

A

For human botulism

153
Q

Culture media for Clostridium botulinum

A

thioglycollate-enriched agar

154
Q

contamination of wound with soil or feces

A

Micronecrosis -> C. perfringens

155
Q

C. perfringens toxin

A

Alpha toxin lecithinase

156
Q
  • Due to alpha toxin
  • Gas produced by anaerobic metabolism
  • Pain, edema, and cellulitis with crepitation
  • Hemolysis and jaundice are common
A

Gas Gangrene

157
Q

DOC C. perfringens

A

Penicillin

158
Q

C perfringens culture media

A

Egg Yolk agar

159
Q

C. difficile transmission

A

Feco-oral

160
Q

Cytopathic effect

A

C. difficile

161
Q

inhibit GTPase -> apoptosis and death of enterocytes -> pseudomembranes

A

Exotoxin A - Diarrhea

Exotoxin B - Cytotoxic to colonic epithelial cells

162
Q

Antibiotics causing pseudomembarous enterocolitis

A

Clindamycin
Ampicilin
2nd/3rd Gen Cephalosporins

163
Q

DOC C. difficile

A

Metronidazole/ Vancomycin

164
Q

can precipitate flare-ups of ulcerative colitis

A

C. difficile

165
Q

Yellow White Plaques in Colonic mucosa

A

Pseudomembranous enterocolitis

166
Q

Pseudomembrane in pharynx

A

Corynebacterium diptheriae

167
Q

Encodes toxin of Corynebacterium diptheriae

A

B prophage

168
Q

has ADP-ribosylating activity; blocks protein synthesis by inactivating EF2

A

Subunit A (Diptheria)

169
Q

provides entry into cardiac and neural tissue

A

Subunit B (Diptheria)`

170
Q
  • Mild sore throat with fever initially
  • Pseudomembrane forms on pharynx (results from death of mucosal epithelial cells)
  • Myocarditis
     A-V conduction block
     dysrhythmia
  • Neural involvement:
     peripheral nerve palsies
     GBS
     palatal paralysis
     neuropathies
A

Diptheria

171
Q

Club or Comma Shaped

A

Corynebacterium diptheriae

172
Q

EF2

A

Diptheria

173
Q

Pseudomembrane

A

Diptheria

174
Q

GBS

A

Diptheria

175
Q

Pseudmomembrane
Myocarditis
GBS

A

Diptheria

176
Q

DOC Corynebacterium diptheriae

A

Penicillin/ Erythromycin

177
Q

Club or comma-shaped rods arranged in V or L configuration

A

Corynebacterium diptheriae

178
Q

Corynebacterium diptheriae culture media

A

Potassium tellurite

Loeffler

179
Q

Babes/ Ernst Volutin

A

Corynebacterium diptheriae

180
Q

Elek Test

A

Toxigenecity of Corynebacterium diptheriae

181
Q

injection of diphtheria exotoxin into the skin, to determine whether a person is susceptible to infection by
diphtheriae

A

Schick test

182
Q

Ingestion of contaminated raw milk or cheese from infected cows

A

Listeria - can also be vaginally or transplacentally

183
Q

Tumbling motility

A

Listeria

184
Q

allows escape from the phagolysosomes of macrophages; major virulence factor

A

Listeriolysin O

185
Q

interacts with E-cadherin on the surface of cells

A

Internalin

186
Q

propel the bacteria through the membrane of one human cell into another

A

Actin Rockets

187
Q

The only gram positive bacteria that produces LPS

A

Listeria

188
Q
(Granulomatosis Infantiseptica)
-	transplacental transmission
-	characterized by:
	late miscarriage
	birth complicated by sepsis, multiorgan abscesses, and disseminated granulomas
A

EARLY-ONSET NEONATAL LISTERIOSIS

189
Q

Transplacental

A

Early Listeriosis

190
Q
  • transmitted during childbirth
  • manifests as:
     meningitis
     meningoencephalitis
A

LATE-ONSET NEONATAL LISTERIOSIS

191
Q
  • second most common cause of meningitis in people > 50yo
A

Adult Listeriosis

192
Q
  • most common cause of meningitis in immunocompromised patients
A

Adult Listeriosis

193
Q

Septicemia in Pregnant women

A

Adult Listeriosis

194
Q

DOC Listeria

A

Ampicillin + Gentamicin

195
Q

DOC Listeria if allergic to ampicillin

A

TMP-SMX

if allergic to penicillin

196
Q

V- or L-shape exhibiting tumbling motility

A

Listeria

197
Q

Facultative intracellular organism

A

Listeria

198
Q

Cell mediated Immunity is protective

A

Listeria

199
Q

Causes of Neonatal Meningitis

A

GBS
E. coli
Listeria

200
Q

Nocardia stain

A

Fite Faracao

201
Q
  • Pulmonary infections in immunocompromised (can mimic TB but with negative PPD)
  • cutaneous infections after trauma in immunocompetent
  • can spread to CNS  brain abscesses (orange colonies)
A

Nocardia

202
Q

DOC Nocardia

A

Sulfonamides

203
Q

DOC Actinomyces

A

Penicillin

204
Q

PID with IUD

A

Actinomyces israelii

205
Q
  • Oral/facial abscesses that drain through sinus tracts
  • Often associated with dental caries/extraction
  • Forms yellow “sulfur granules”
  • Can cause PID with IUDs
A

Actinomyces israelii

206
Q

If isolated in blood cultures may indicate possible malignancy

A

Clostridium septicum

207
Q

Nontraumatic myonecrosis in immunocompromised patients

A

Clostridium septicum

208
Q

Toxic shock syndrome associated with septic abortion

A

Clostridium sordelli

209
Q

Traumatic wound infections

A

Clostridium tertium