Good to Know Numbers Flashcards

1
Q

Gross weight with fuel and two souls

A

12800 lbs

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2
Q

One engine thrust MIL/MAX

A

2200/3300 lbs

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3
Q

Fuel flow for one engine: MAX at rest, MAX at Mach 1

A

7,300; 11,400 lb/hr

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4
Q

Pushing start arms ignition for ___ sec

A

30

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5
Q

One engine normal oil capacity and air expansion space

A

4 qt, 1 qt

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6
Q

Gravity flow guaranteed up to ___

A

6000 MSL

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7
Q

Flameouts while gravity feeding in MAX occurred as low as ___

A

7000 MSL

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8
Q

Normally sufficient fuel will flow by gravity to maintain MAX up to ___

A

25,000 MSL

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9
Q

Fuel cutoff switches operated by ___ power and cut off fuel in ___ sec

A

DC, 1

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10
Q

Fuel low level light comes on after ___ sec below ___ amount

A

7.5 sec, 250 lbs

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11
Q

Gearbox shift occurs at ___ range

A

65-75%

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12
Q

Voltage of battery is ___V and of DC rectifiers is ___V

A

24, 28

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13
Q

AC system provides __/__ V power

A

115/200

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14
Q

AC generators cut-in between

A

43-48%

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15
Q

Min battery voltage of ___ is required to close batt relay

A

18V

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16
Q

Left engine provides ___psi for ___ system

A

3200psi, utility

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17
Q

Right engine provides ___ psi for ___ system

A

3200psi, flight control

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18
Q

Hyd low press comes on at ___ psi, and goes back out at ___ psi

A

1500, 1800

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19
Q

Rudder limited to ___ deg each side when nose gear out 3/4 or less

A

6 deg

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20
Q

Landing gear extension/retraction takes approx. ___

A

6 sec

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21
Q

Gear horn and warning light come on when gear not down and locked, ___ kts or less, attitude __ or below, and both throttles below ___

A

210 kts, 10,000ft, 96%

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22
Q

When accelerating, gear light may not go out until ___

A

240 kts

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23
Q

Landing gear alt release pulled out ___ inches, and requires ___ sec

A

10in, 15-35 sec

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24
Q

Rear canopy follows front by ___ sec after canopy jettison

A

1 sec

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25
Q

Aneroid delays parachute opening until between ___

A

11,500 to 15,000 ft

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26
Q

Seat ejection occurs ___ after canopy jettison

A

0.3 sec

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27
Q

Fuel for left engine is __ gal serviced/usable and lbs usable

A

293/286 gal, 1916 lbs

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28
Q

Fuel for right engine is __ gal serviced/usable and ___ lbs usable

A

305/297 gal, 1990 lbs

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29
Q

Total fuel is ___ gal serviced/usable and ___ lbs usable

A

598/583 gal, 3906 lbs

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30
Q

With singe-engine and less than ___ in either system, leave both boost pumps on and crossfeed on:

A

250 lbs

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31
Q

A minimum of ___ RPM is required to achieve any engine fuel flow

A

12-14%

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32
Q

___% RPM is the heart of the airstart envelope at any altitude

A

18-20%

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33
Q

Ignition must occur before fuel flow reaches ___ lb/hr

A

360 lb/hr

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34
Q

After aborted start, wait ___ min before attempting another start

A

2 min

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35
Q

If EGT doesn’t rise within ___ sec of fuel flow indication, abort start

A

12 sec

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36
Q

Flaps should be +/-___ of 60% position

A

5%

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37
Q

Normal rotation speed on initial takeoff is

A

141 KIAS (this is rounded to 145KIAS)

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38
Q

Normal liftoff speed on initial takeoff is

A

165 KIAS

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39
Q

Delay takeoff a minimum o f ___ min behind large and ___ min behind heavy aircraft

A

2, 4

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40
Q

With a crosswind greater than __ kts, spacing behind large/heavy aircraft can be reduced

A

5 kts

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41
Q

Abort takeoff if either afterburner doesn’t light within __ sec

A

5 sec

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42
Q

Final turn speed is ___ plus 1 knot per 100 lb over 1000lb fuel

A

180 KIAS

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43
Q

Final approach speed is ___ plus 1 knot per 100 lb over 1000lb fuel

A

160 KIAS

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44
Q

Touchdown speed is ___ plus 1 knot per 100 lb over 1000lb fuel

A

135 KIAS

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45
Q

Minimum hydraulic pressure

A

1500psi

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46
Q

Each generator has __ phases

A

3

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47
Q

The O2 low light comes on at or below ___ liter, and may blink at or below ___ liter

A

1, 3 liters

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48
Q

Below __, the engine anti-ice is always open, regardless of switch position

A

65% RPM

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49
Q

There are __ rotating beacons, located where?

A

2: tail and lower fuselage

50
Q

There are ___ position lights, located where?

A

4: tail, lower fuselage, one on each wing

51
Q

Battery energizes DC bus for __ min at __% power

A

15 at 80%

52
Q

If oil pressure is high in cold weather, should be in limits within ___

A

6 min

53
Q

The radio attenuation switch reduces UHF and VHF volume by ___

A

66%

54
Q

IDENT sends a pulse with transponder replies for ___ sec

A

15 sec

55
Q

Standby ADI provides ___ deg climb, ___ deg dive, ___ deg roll capacity

A

92 climb, 78 dive, 360 roll

56
Q

Standby ADI provides ___ minutes of useful info within +/- ___ deg after DC failure

A

9 min, 6 deg

57
Q

Maintain a minimum of __%RPM to ensure effective anti-ice operation

A

80%

58
Q

Due to oil supply restriction, zero-G flight is restricted to ___ sec

A

10 sec

59
Q

Due to oil supply restriction, negative G flight is restricted to ___ sec

A

30 sec

60
Q

Rudder system failure may push rudder to __ deg

A

30 deg

61
Q

Stab aug system failure may push rudder to ___ deg

A

2 deg

62
Q

Touchdowns greater than ___ KCAS should not be attempted

A

200 kts

63
Q

With asymmetric flaps, maintain ___ kts above final appr/touchdown speed

A

20 kts

64
Q

Do not touchdown at less than ___ kts with asymmetric flaps

A

165 kts

65
Q

On SE go-around, climb only as necessary until reaching ___ kts

A

200 kts

66
Q

When landing with all gear up, touch down ___ kts faster than normal

A

10 kts

67
Q

Estimation for landing roll is ___ ft + fuel (not including 1000ft down):

A

2500 ft

68
Q

Landing roll will approximately ___ for a no flap landing

A

double

69
Q

Anti-ice will cause a loss of ___% thrust in MIL and ___ in MAX

A

8.5%, 5.5%

70
Q

If flab-slab interconnect fails and flaps needed for landing, ___% flaps provides adequate control authority and controllable stick forces

A

30-45%

71
Q

Pressure reg maintain cabin alt of ___ +/- ___ from ___ MSL to ___MSL

A

8000ft +/- 2000ft, from 8000MSL to 23000MSL

72
Q

Avoid MAX thrust dives when below ___ lb in either fuel tank

A

650 lb

73
Q

Use ___ kts as go/no-go for simple tire failure

A

100 kts

74
Q

Increase final approach speed and touchdown speed by __ the gust factor

A

half

75
Q

Increase final turn, approach and touchdown by ___ kts for no flap

A

15 kts

76
Q

How many seconds until full parachute deployment?

A

3.42 sec

77
Q

Landing light retraction takes ___ sec

A

10 sec

78
Q
Max allowable sink rates for landing: (fpm)
normal landing (>1700lbs) \_\_\_
crab landing (>1700lbs) \_\_\_
normal landing (<1700lbs) \_\_\_
crab landing (<1700lbs) \_\_\_
A

340
200
590
395

79
Q

AOA max range ___

AOA max endurance/best angle of climb ___

A

0.18, 0.3

80
Q

First 4.5in (out of 6in) of stick travel provides ___ aileron deflection

A

50%

81
Q

Last 1.5in (out of 6in) of stick travel provides ___ aileron deflection

A

Full

82
Q

Crossfeed recommended with fuel imbalance of __ or greater

A

200lbs

83
Q

Holding airspeed

A

250-265kts

84
Q

A radar pattern typically burns ___ fuel

A

325 lbs

85
Q

Turbulent air/thunderstorm penetration speed

A

280kts

86
Q

Climb possible at SETOS is ___ fpm

A

100 fpm

87
Q

Climb increased by ___ fpm for each between SETOS and SETOS+10

A

8-50 fpm

88
Q

Gear retraction may take ___ when retracted between SETOS+10 and 200 kts

A

1 min

89
Q

If unable to retract gear, best climb at ___ for 60% flaps, ___ for 0% flaps

A

200kts, 220kts

90
Q

Optimum pitch for ejection zoom

A

20 deg NH

91
Q

With loss of canopy, slow to ___ kits; min drag occurs at ___ kts

A

300 kts, 225kts

92
Q

If one hydr system reads zero, hydr system transfer may occur, and flight time could be limited to ___ min

A

35 min

93
Q

Controllability check should be accomplished at ___ AGL or higher

A

6000 AGL

94
Q

Maintain ___kts above min controllable airspeed in descent/landing approach after a controllability check

A

20kts

95
Q

Best glide speed is ___kts + 1kt/100lbs fuel

A

230

96
Q

Multiply altitude in thousands of feet by ___ for glide distance in NM

A

1.7

97
Q

Max crosswind, dry runway

A

30 kts

98
Q

Max crosswind, wet runway

A

20 kts

99
Q

Max crosswind, icy/standing water

A

10 kts

100
Q

Max crosswind, dry runway, single ship TnG

A

25 kts

101
Q

Max crosswind for solo students (dry/wet)

A

15kts/10kts

102
Q

Minimum runway length for takeoff/landing

A

8000ft

103
Q

No flap landings are not accomplished with ___ lbs or greater of fuel

A

2500lbs

104
Q

Low level min and max airspeed

A

300kts min, 420kts max

105
Q

Simulated single-engine go around must be initiated by ___ (___ full flap)

A

100ft (300ft full flap) AGL

106
Q

Perform all aerobatic maneuvers above

A

8000AGL (?)

107
Q

Stall and slow flight must be performed between

A

8000AGL and FL200

108
Q

Minimum power setting for stalls and slow flight

A

80%

109
Q

Nose high recoveries must be accomplished below ___

A

FL240

110
Q

Do not perform supersonic flight below ___ unless in an authorized airspeed

A

FL300

111
Q

Solo students will not perform patterns and landings with ___ fuel or more

A

2500lbs

112
Q

Normal minimum fuel for solo students

A

800lbs

113
Q

Minimum Fuel

A

600lbs

114
Q

Emergency Fuel

A

400lbs

115
Q

Min taxi interval is ___ staggered, ___ in trail

A

150ft, 300ft

116
Q

Restricted low approach must be initiated by ___ AGL unless otherwise directed

A

500 AGL

117
Q

Chase aircraft in emergency can low approach down to ___ AGL

A

300ft

118
Q

For practice single engine approach, set the simulated bad engine to ___% RPM

A

60%

119
Q

Begin closed pull up with a minimum of ___ kts, and maintain ___kts during the maneuver

A

240, 200

120
Q

RPM of ___ should be sufficient for taxi

A

80%

121
Q

Rolling takeoffs may increase takeoff distance by ___

A

150-300ft