Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

T38 > 2T-38V3, and AETC Sup > Flashcards

2T-38V3, and AETC Sup Flashcards

1
Q

Low altitude flight is defined as between ___ and ___ AGL

A

500 AND 1000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Have positive positional awareness of obstacles within __ NM on either side of the planned route of low level flight

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The Route Abort Altitude (RAA) is computed by adding ____ ft (___ mtns) to the highest obstruction within ___ nm either side of the entire planned route

A

1000ft/2000ft mountainous/22nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Objects will not be placed _____during start with the canopies open

A

on top of the glare shield

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Joker Fuel

A

prebriefed fuel needed to terminate an event and transition to the next phase of flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Bingo Fuel

A

allows the aircraft to return to the base of intended landing or alternate using preplanned recovery parameters and arriving with normal recovery fuel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Normal Recovery Fuel

A

fuel on initial or at the FAF; established locally or 800 lbs, whichever is higher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Minimum Fuel

A

600 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Emergency Fuel

A

400 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Taxi Interval

A

150 ft staggered
300 ft in trail
May be reduced when holding short of or entering a runway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Taxiing with Ice or Snow

A

taxi on the center line with a minimum of 300 ft spacing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When do you remove the pins?

A

once clear of the aircraft parking area, but not later than completion of the before takeoff checklist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

After the before-takeoff checks have been completed and prior to takeoff, flight members will ____.

A

inspect accompanying aircraft for proper configuration and any abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Place the wingman on the ___ side if the crosswind exceeds __

A

upwind, 5 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Do not takeoff when the RCR is less than ___

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Do not takeoff if the computed takeoff roll exceeds
____% (single ship or interval)
____% (formation)
of the available runway

A

80%, 70%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Formation takeoffs are restricted to elements of ___

A

2 aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Do not make formation takeoffs when: (3 things)

A

Runway width is less than 150 ft
Standing water, ice, slush, or snow on the runway
Crosswind or gust component exceeds 15 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Takeoff interval will be a minimum of __

A

10 sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Takeoff interval will be increased to a minimum of ___ when the join-up is to be accomplished on top

A

20 sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Day weather criteria for a VFR join-up underneath a ceiling is ___

A

1500ft and 3 mi vis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Flight leads will maintain ___ until join-up

A

300 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Flight leads will not normally exceed ___ deg of bank

A

30 deg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

For a straight-ahead rejoin, 2 will join on the ___

A

left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

For a turning rejoin, 2 will join ___

A

on the inside of the turn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Minimum altitude for low altitude maneuvering

A

500 ft AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Aircraft will not descend below ___ during any portion of aerobatic maneuvering

A

5000 ft AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Minimum airspeed for all maneuvering

A

150kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When are ops checks are required?

A

1) during climb after takeoff
2) after level-off after takeoff
3) before each engagement or intercept
4) before entering air-to-surface range
5) once while on the range if multiple passes are made
6) after departing the range

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Minimum items to check in the ops check

A
  1. Engine instruments
  2. fuel quantities
  3. fuel balance
  4. G-suit connection (when appropriate)
  5. oxygen system
  6. cabin altitude
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

For formation flights, reset ____ between ops checks

A

G meter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

G-awareness exercise must be conducted any time aircrews plan or are likely to maneuver above ___

A

5 Gs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

During a GX, maintain a minimum of ____ separation

A

4000ft between aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Preface all radio communications with what?

A

complete flight call sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Use a KIO call when?

A

when safety of flight is a factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Maximum flight size in IMC

A

4 aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Do not use rolling maneuvers below ___ AGL

A

5000ft AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Flight leads will not break up formations until each pilot has what?

A

a positive fix from which to navigate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Minimum altitude for lead changes

A

500ft AGL over land
1000ft AGL over water
1500ft AGL in IMC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Do not initiate lead changes with the wingman ___

A

further aft than a normal fingertip or route position

greater than 30 deg aft from line abreast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Minimum altitude separation in a double blind situation

A

500 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Who is responsible for flightpath deconfliction?

A

wingman

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

In what cases does the flight lead become responsible for deconfliction?

A
  1. tac maneuvering places lead in the wingman’s blind cone

2. wingman calls blind and is acknowleged by lead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Chase aircraft will not stack lower than lead below ___ AGL

A

1000ft AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

the chase cone is defined as

A

30 to 60 deg cone out to 1000ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

T-38 is what approach category?

A

Cat E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Cat D minimums may be used if

A
  1. straight-in approach
  2. final approach airspeed of 165 KIAS or less
  3. aircraft is flown at 260 KTAS or less during missed approach
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Instrument Trail departures will use ___ sec spacing

A

20 sec takeoff spacing minimum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Instrument Trail Departure climbout parameters:

A

AB power until reaching 250 KTS
MIL power until 300 KTS
climb at 300 KTS using 600 EGT
all turns made at 30 deg bank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

During Instrument Trail Departure, ____ will call initiating all turns

A

flight lead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

During Instrument Trail Departure climbs/descents, all aircraft will call ___

A

each 5000ft altitude increment with altitude and heading

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

During Instrument Trail Departure, aircraft will maintain ____ vertical separation

A

1000ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Wingmen will not fly ____ or use ____ to gain separation during a VMC Drag

A

below final approach speed/use s-turns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Minimum spacing during a VMC drag is ___

A

3000ft minimum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

The latest VMC drag point must allow for the wingman to ___ and the flight lead to slow to ___ not later than ___

A

establish required separation; final approach speed; 3nm from the runway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Are you allowed to fly in areas of known or reported icing?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

You cannot climb/descend through icing conditions more severe than ___

A

forecast light rime

58
Q

Low Level: if unable to visually acquire an obstacle, direct a climb no later than ____ nm prior, ensuring vertical separation by __nm from the obstacle

A

3; 2

59
Q

Wingmen will not fly lower than lead below ___ AGL

A

1000ft AGL

60
Q

Low level: crossing high/hilly terrain, maintain ___, not exceeding ___ deg of bank

A

positive G, 120 deg

61
Q

Low level minimum airspeed

A

300 KTS

62
Q

Low level: minimum distance from an obstacle

A

500 ft above the highest obstacle within 0.5 nm of the aircraft

63
Q

Low level: set the altitude warning function to ___

A

no less than 90% of the planned altitude

64
Q

Low level: immediate reaction to task saturation, diverted attention, KIO, or emergencies

A

climb to RAA or a prebriefed safe altitude (1000 AGL minimum)

65
Q

Low level: Minimum altitudes during night or IMC operation

A

1000ft above the highest obstacle within 5nm of the course

66
Q

WX minimum for visual low levels

A

1500ft and 3 miles vis

67
Q

Taxi operations at night

A

centerline, 300ft spacing

68
Q

Desired touchdown point is ___ from the threshold

A

150-1000ft

69
Q

Minimum altitude for chase aircraft

A

300 AGL

70
Q

During a go-around, maintain ___ ft below a VFR overhead traffic pattern

A

500

71
Q

After a closed pull-up, plan to arrive on downwind between ___ and ___ kts

A

200, 240

72
Q

Land at an alternate runway if the computed landing roll exceeds ___% of the available runway

A

80

73
Q

Land at an alternate runway if the RCR is less than ___

A

10

74
Q

Do not land over any ___

A

raised barrier

75
Q

Solo wind limits

A 
15 knots (dry)
10 knots (wet)
76
Q

The minimum runway length for 60% and 100% flap TnGs on a runway without a barrier when crosswinds exceed 15 kts

A

10,000ft

77
Q

Do not perform ____ TnGs with crosswinds over 15 kts

A

no flap

78
Q

Do not taxi with ___, ___, ___, ___ issues

A

nosewheel steering, brake, canopy, generator

79
Q

Always abort the mission for the following EPs:

A

birdstrike/FOD
over G
Flight control system anomalies
Engine flameout, stagnation, or shutdown

80
Q

Solo students are restricted from the following maneuvers:

A 
TP stalls, approach to stalls, slow flight
AHC maneuvers
practice recoveries
Practice lost wingman as wing
Rolling takeoffs
Practice emergency patterns and landings
Low closed or circling approaches
Formation landings
On the wing of another solo student
81
Q

Solo takeoff wind limit

A

15 knots crosswind

82
Q

solo landing wind limit

A 
15 knots (dry runway)
10 knots (wet runway)
83
Q

Solo students cannot fly patterns or landings with more than ___ pounds of fuel

A

2500

84
Q

Solo student minimum fuel

A

800 lbs

85
Q

Post-contact checkride solo students may climb and descend through IMC if ceiling is at/above ___ AGL or not more than ___ ft thick. Minimum inflight vis is ___ mi

A

5000 ft AGL, 2000ft thick, 5 mi

86
Q

Use ___ (dual) or ___ (solo) to calculated TOLD

A

12,800lbs; 12,600lbs

87
Q

Ensure the calculated takeoff roll is less than or equal to ___

A

TORA (Takeoff Run Available)

88
Q

The percentage of takeoff distance restriction will be applied to the ___

A

runway dimensions, not TORA

89
Q

Ensure the calculated Critical Field Length (CFL) is less than or equal to the ___

A

ASDA (Accelerate-stop distance available)

90
Q

Solo students will ___ the aircraft at the EOR prior to removing or reinstalling their ejection seat and canopy safety pins

A

stop

91
Q

Solo students will make a radio call to the controlling agency stating what prior to takeoff?

A

ejection seat is armed

92
Q

With controlled BAK-15

DS < RS-EF

A

Use RS-EF as go/no go

93
Q

With controlled BAK-15

RS-EF < DS < TOS

A

Need OG approval

Use TOS as go/no go

94
Q

With controlled BAK-15

TOS < DS

A

not authorized

95
Q

Without BAK-15

DS < RS-BEO

A

Use RS-BEO as go/no go

96
Q

Without BAK-15

RS-BEO < DS < RS-EF

A

Need OG approval

Use RS-EF as go/no go

97
Q

Without BAK-15

RS-EF < DS

A

Not authorized

98
Q

With raised BAK-15

DS <= RS-EF

A

Use RS-EF as go/no go

99
Q

With raised BAK-15

RS-EF < DS < TOS

A

Need OG approval

Use SETOS as go/no go

100
Q

With raised BAK-15

TOS < DS

A

Not authorized

101
Q

Ensure calculated landing distance is less than or equal to ___

A

LDA (Landing Distance Available)

102
Q

When calculated landing distance is less than LDA, pilots can use the ___ for landing

A

actual runway length

103
Q

When using the actual runway length for landing distance calculations, the ___% landing distance restriction will be applied to ___

A

80%, runway length (not LDA)

104
Q

Single-ship rolling takeoffs are authorized during ___ hours only

A

daylight

105
Q

With a rolling takeoff, consider TOLD with a runway length ___ ft less

A

300ft

106
Q

When on a runway with a remotely controlled arresting system, pilots must remain on what freq? Until when?

A

The freq of the person controlling the barrier

Until safely airborne

107
Q

Minimum runway length required is ____ft

OG may approve ops on ___ft

A

8000ft

7000ft

108
Q

Use at least __ft of wingtip clearance for engine run-up with a solo in any position

A

50ft

109
Q

Perform stalls and slow flight between ___ and ___ altitude. Set no less than ___% RPM

A

8000AGL and FL200

80%

110
Q

Minimum altitude for unlimited air combat maneuvering (ACBT)

A

5000 AGL

111
Q

Minimum altitude for aerobatic maneuvers

A

8000 AGL

112
Q

Accomplish practice nose high recoveries or instrument unusual attitudes below ____ and in ___

A

FL240, VMC

113
Q

When flying above FL350:
use the minimum ___
Do not fly ___

A

minimum Mach number

formation

114
Q

Do not fly above ____ except in an emergency

A

FL390

115
Q

No practice no-flap patterns and landings with more than ___lbs fuel

A

2500lbs

116
Q

No practice ______ circling approaches or overhead patterns

A

single-engine

117
Q

No practice ____ full stop landings

A

no flap

118
Q

No practice ___ roll landings

A

minimum

119
Q

No formation ___ landings

A

TnG

120
Q

No ___ or ___ patterns immediately after initial takeoff

A

closed or low closed

121
Q

The GX consists of two turns at a minimum:
___deg at __G
___deg at __G

A

90 deg at 4G

180 deg at 5G

122
Q

Perform a GX whenever an excess of ___ Gs is expected

A

4

123
Q

GX requires a ___ to be performed

A

discernible horizon

124
Q

Maximum flight size

A

4 aircraft

125
Q

____ maneuvers will not be flown in close trail

A

over-the-top

126
Q

Chase aircraft will low-approach no lower than ___

A

300AGL

127
Q

Do not fly in ___ or ___ icing conditions

A

known, reported

128
Q

Do not cruise in ___ icing conditions

A

forecasted

129
Q

Pilot Weather Category (PWC) 1 Minimums

A

Suitable published minimums

130
Q

Pilot Weather Category (PWC) 2 Minimums

A

published mins, or 300’ ceiling and 1 mile vis (5000RVR), whichever is greater

131
Q

Do not commence a STAR, penetration, en route descent, or approach unless existing ___ and ___ meet requirements

A

ceiling, visibility

132
Q

After commencing a STAR/penetration/en route descent/radar vectors for an approach/established on an approach and weather is below ceiling and vis minimums, the pilot ___

A

may continue

133
Q

The pilot may descend below the decision height or MDA if

1) ___
2) ___

A

1) aircraft is in a position to make a normal approach
2) pilot can clearly see the approach threshold of the runway, approach lights, or other markings identifiable with the approach end of the runway

134
Q

max airspeed for low-levels

A

420 kts

135
Q

minimum altitude for VFR point to point navigation

A

3000 AGL

136
Q

Only flight night overhead patterns at ___

A

home base

137
Q

All night landings require ___

A

operational glidepath guidance

138
Q

Maximum crosswind for single-ship TnGs

A

25 kts (dry runway)

139
Q

Extended daylight period defined as

A

15 min prior to official sunrise to 15 min past official sunset

140
Q

Local training flights are not permitted over land when steady state surface winds (forecast or actual) in training or operating areas exceed ___ kts

A

35kts

141
Q

Initiate a simulated single-engine go-around by ___AGL (___AGL if full flaps are used)

A

100AGL, 300AGL

142
Q

Do not start a Split S or aerobatic maneuver, or continue an over-the-top maneuver when the apex is below ____AGL

A

18000 AGL

T38 (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions