2T-38V3, and AETC Sup Flashcards
Low altitude flight is defined as between ___ and ___ AGL
500 AND 1000 ft
Have positive positional awareness of obstacles within __ NM on either side of the planned route of low level flight
5
The Route Abort Altitude (RAA) is computed by adding ____ ft (___ mtns) to the highest obstruction within ___ nm either side of the entire planned route
1000ft/2000ft mountainous/22nm
Objects will not be placed _____during start with the canopies open
on top of the glare shield
Joker Fuel
prebriefed fuel needed to terminate an event and transition to the next phase of flight
Bingo Fuel
allows the aircraft to return to the base of intended landing or alternate using preplanned recovery parameters and arriving with normal recovery fuel
Normal Recovery Fuel
fuel on initial or at the FAF; established locally or 800 lbs, whichever is higher
Minimum Fuel
600 lbs
Emergency Fuel
400 lbs
Taxi Interval
150 ft staggered
300 ft in trail
May be reduced when holding short of or entering a runway
Taxiing with Ice or Snow
taxi on the center line with a minimum of 300 ft spacing
When do you remove the pins?
once clear of the aircraft parking area, but not later than completion of the before takeoff checklist
After the before-takeoff checks have been completed and prior to takeoff, flight members will ____.
inspect accompanying aircraft for proper configuration and any abnormalities
Place the wingman on the ___ side if the crosswind exceeds __
upwind, 5 kts
Do not takeoff when the RCR is less than ___
10
Do not takeoff if the computed takeoff roll exceeds
____% (single ship or interval)
____% (formation)
of the available runway
80%, 70%
Formation takeoffs are restricted to elements of ___
2 aircraft
Do not make formation takeoffs when: (3 things)
Runway width is less than 150 ft
Standing water, ice, slush, or snow on the runway
Crosswind or gust component exceeds 15 kts
Takeoff interval will be a minimum of __
10 sec
Takeoff interval will be increased to a minimum of ___ when the join-up is to be accomplished on top
20 sec
Day weather criteria for a VFR join-up underneath a ceiling is ___
1500ft and 3 mi vis
Flight leads will maintain ___ until join-up
300 kts
Flight leads will not normally exceed ___ deg of bank
30 deg
For a straight-ahead rejoin, 2 will join on the ___
left
For a turning rejoin, 2 will join ___
on the inside of the turn
Minimum altitude for low altitude maneuvering
500 ft AGL
Aircraft will not descend below ___ during any portion of aerobatic maneuvering
5000 ft AGL
Minimum airspeed for all maneuvering
150kts
When are ops checks are required?
1) during climb after takeoff
2) after level-off after takeoff
3) before each engagement or intercept
4) before entering air-to-surface range
5) once while on the range if multiple passes are made
6) after departing the range
Minimum items to check in the ops check
- Engine instruments
- fuel quantities
- fuel balance
- G-suit connection (when appropriate)
- oxygen system
- cabin altitude
For formation flights, reset ____ between ops checks
G meter
G-awareness exercise must be conducted any time aircrews plan or are likely to maneuver above ___
5 Gs
During a GX, maintain a minimum of ____ separation
4000ft between aircraft
Preface all radio communications with what?
complete flight call sign
Use a KIO call when?
when safety of flight is a factor
Maximum flight size in IMC
4 aircraft
Do not use rolling maneuvers below ___ AGL
5000ft AGL
Flight leads will not break up formations until each pilot has what?
a positive fix from which to navigate
Minimum altitude for lead changes
500ft AGL over land
1000ft AGL over water
1500ft AGL in IMC
Do not initiate lead changes with the wingman ___
further aft than a normal fingertip or route position
greater than 30 deg aft from line abreast
Minimum altitude separation in a double blind situation
500 ft
Who is responsible for flightpath deconfliction?
wingman
In what cases does the flight lead become responsible for deconfliction?
- tac maneuvering places lead in the wingman’s blind cone
2. wingman calls blind and is acknowleged by lead
Chase aircraft will not stack lower than lead below ___ AGL
1000ft AGL
the chase cone is defined as
30 to 60 deg cone out to 1000ft
T-38 is what approach category?
Cat E
Cat D minimums may be used if
- straight-in approach
- final approach airspeed of 165 KIAS or less
- aircraft is flown at 260 KTAS or less during missed approach
Instrument Trail departures will use ___ sec spacing
20 sec takeoff spacing minimum
Instrument Trail Departure climbout parameters:
AB power until reaching 250 KTS
MIL power until 300 KTS
climb at 300 KTS using 600 EGT
all turns made at 30 deg bank
During Instrument Trail Departure, ____ will call initiating all turns
flight lead
During Instrument Trail Departure climbs/descents, all aircraft will call ___
each 5000ft altitude increment with altitude and heading
During Instrument Trail Departure, aircraft will maintain ____ vertical separation
1000ft
Wingmen will not fly ____ or use ____ to gain separation during a VMC Drag
below final approach speed/use s-turns
Minimum spacing during a VMC drag is ___
3000ft minimum
The latest VMC drag point must allow for the wingman to ___ and the flight lead to slow to ___ not later than ___
establish required separation; final approach speed; 3nm from the runway
Are you allowed to fly in areas of known or reported icing?
No
You cannot climb/descend through icing conditions more severe than ___
forecast light rime
Low Level: if unable to visually acquire an obstacle, direct a climb no later than ____ nm prior, ensuring vertical separation by __nm from the obstacle
3; 2
Wingmen will not fly lower than lead below ___ AGL
1000ft AGL
Low level: crossing high/hilly terrain, maintain ___, not exceeding ___ deg of bank
positive G, 120 deg
Low level minimum airspeed
300 KTS
Low level: minimum distance from an obstacle
500 ft above the highest obstacle within 0.5 nm of the aircraft
Low level: set the altitude warning function to ___
no less than 90% of the planned altitude
Low level: immediate reaction to task saturation, diverted attention, KIO, or emergencies
climb to RAA or a prebriefed safe altitude (1000 AGL minimum)
Low level: Minimum altitudes during night or IMC operation
1000ft above the highest obstacle within 5nm of the course
WX minimum for visual low levels
1500ft and 3 miles vis
Taxi operations at night
centerline, 300ft spacing
Desired touchdown point is ___ from the threshold
150-1000ft
Minimum altitude for chase aircraft
300 AGL
During a go-around, maintain ___ ft below a VFR overhead traffic pattern
500
After a closed pull-up, plan to arrive on downwind between ___ and ___ kts
200, 240
Land at an alternate runway if the computed landing roll exceeds ___% of the available runway
80
Land at an alternate runway if the RCR is less than ___
10
Do not land over any ___
raised barrier
Solo wind limits
15 knots (dry) 10 knots (wet)
The minimum runway length for 60% and 100% flap TnGs on a runway without a barrier when crosswinds exceed 15 kts
10,000ft
Do not perform ____ TnGs with crosswinds over 15 kts
no flap
Do not taxi with ___, ___, ___, ___ issues
nosewheel steering, brake, canopy, generator
Always abort the mission for the following EPs:
birdstrike/FOD
over G
Flight control system anomalies
Engine flameout, stagnation, or shutdown
Solo students are restricted from the following maneuvers:
TP stalls, approach to stalls, slow flight AHC maneuvers practice recoveries Practice lost wingman as wing Rolling takeoffs Practice emergency patterns and landings Low closed or circling approaches Formation landings On the wing of another solo student
Solo takeoff wind limit
15 knots crosswind
solo landing wind limit
15 knots (dry runway) 10 knots (wet runway)
Solo students cannot fly patterns or landings with more than ___ pounds of fuel
2500
Solo student minimum fuel
800 lbs
Post-contact checkride solo students may climb and descend through IMC if ceiling is at/above ___ AGL or not more than ___ ft thick. Minimum inflight vis is ___ mi
5000 ft AGL, 2000ft thick, 5 mi
Use ___ (dual) or ___ (solo) to calculated TOLD
12,800lbs; 12,600lbs
Ensure the calculated takeoff roll is less than or equal to ___
TORA (Takeoff Run Available)
The percentage of takeoff distance restriction will be applied to the ___
runway dimensions, not TORA
Ensure the calculated Critical Field Length (CFL) is less than or equal to the ___
ASDA (Accelerate-stop distance available)
Solo students will ___ the aircraft at the EOR prior to removing or reinstalling their ejection seat and canopy safety pins
stop
Solo students will make a radio call to the controlling agency stating what prior to takeoff?
ejection seat is armed
With controlled BAK-15
DS < RS-EF
Use RS-EF as go/no go
With controlled BAK-15
RS-EF < DS < TOS
Need OG approval
Use TOS as go/no go
With controlled BAK-15
TOS < DS
not authorized
Without BAK-15
DS < RS-BEO
Use RS-BEO as go/no go
Without BAK-15
RS-BEO < DS < RS-EF
Need OG approval
Use RS-EF as go/no go
Without BAK-15
RS-EF < DS
Not authorized
With raised BAK-15
DS <= RS-EF
Use RS-EF as go/no go
With raised BAK-15
RS-EF < DS < TOS
Need OG approval
Use SETOS as go/no go
With raised BAK-15
TOS < DS
Not authorized
Ensure calculated landing distance is less than or equal to ___
LDA (Landing Distance Available)
When calculated landing distance is less than LDA, pilots can use the ___ for landing
actual runway length
When using the actual runway length for landing distance calculations, the ___% landing distance restriction will be applied to ___
80%, runway length (not LDA)
Single-ship rolling takeoffs are authorized during ___ hours only
daylight
With a rolling takeoff, consider TOLD with a runway length ___ ft less
300ft
When on a runway with a remotely controlled arresting system, pilots must remain on what freq? Until when?
The freq of the person controlling the barrier
Until safely airborne
Minimum runway length required is ____ft
OG may approve ops on ___ft
8000ft
7000ft
Use at least __ft of wingtip clearance for engine run-up with a solo in any position
50ft
Perform stalls and slow flight between ___ and ___ altitude. Set no less than ___% RPM
8000AGL and FL200
80%
Minimum altitude for unlimited air combat maneuvering (ACBT)
5000 AGL
Minimum altitude for aerobatic maneuvers
8000 AGL
Accomplish practice nose high recoveries or instrument unusual attitudes below ____ and in ___
FL240, VMC
When flying above FL350:
use the minimum ___
Do not fly ___
minimum Mach number
formation
Do not fly above ____ except in an emergency
FL390
No practice no-flap patterns and landings with more than ___lbs fuel
2500lbs
No practice ______ circling approaches or overhead patterns
single-engine
No practice ____ full stop landings
no flap
No practice ___ roll landings
minimum
No formation ___ landings
TnG
No ___ or ___ patterns immediately after initial takeoff
closed or low closed
The GX consists of two turns at a minimum:
___deg at __G
___deg at __G
90 deg at 4G
180 deg at 5G
Perform a GX whenever an excess of ___ Gs is expected
4
GX requires a ___ to be performed
discernible horizon
Maximum flight size
4 aircraft
____ maneuvers will not be flown in close trail
over-the-top
Chase aircraft will low-approach no lower than ___
300AGL
Do not fly in ___ or ___ icing conditions
known, reported
Do not cruise in ___ icing conditions
forecasted
Pilot Weather Category (PWC) 1 Minimums
Suitable published minimums
Pilot Weather Category (PWC) 2 Minimums
published mins, or 300’ ceiling and 1 mile vis (5000RVR), whichever is greater
Do not commence a STAR, penetration, en route descent, or approach unless existing ___ and ___ meet requirements
ceiling, visibility
After commencing a STAR/penetration/en route descent/radar vectors for an approach/established on an approach and weather is below ceiling and vis minimums, the pilot ___
may continue
The pilot may descend below the decision height or MDA if
1) ___
2) ___
1) aircraft is in a position to make a normal approach
2) pilot can clearly see the approach threshold of the runway, approach lights, or other markings identifiable with the approach end of the runway
max airspeed for low-levels
420 kts
minimum altitude for VFR point to point navigation
3000 AGL
Only flight night overhead patterns at ___
home base
All night landings require ___
operational glidepath guidance
Maximum crosswind for single-ship TnGs
25 kts (dry runway)
Extended daylight period defined as
15 min prior to official sunrise to 15 min past official sunset
Local training flights are not permitted over land when steady state surface winds (forecast or actual) in training or operating areas exceed ___ kts
35kts
Initiate a simulated single-engine go-around by ___AGL (___AGL if full flaps are used)
100AGL, 300AGL
Do not start a Split S or aerobatic maneuver, or continue an over-the-top maneuver when the apex is below ____AGL
18000 AGL
