2T-38V3, and AETC Sup Flashcards
1
Q
Low altitude flight is defined as between ___ and ___ AGL
A
500 AND 1000 ft
2
Q
Have positive positional awareness of obstacles within __ NM on either side of the planned route of low level flight
A
5
3
Q
The Route Abort Altitude (RAA) is computed by adding ____ ft (___ mtns) to the highest obstruction within ___ nm either side of the entire planned route
A
1000ft/2000ft mountainous/22nm
4
Q
Objects will not be placed _____during start with the canopies open
A
on top of the glare shield
5
Q
Joker Fuel
A
prebriefed fuel needed to terminate an event and transition to the next phase of flight
6
Q
Bingo Fuel
A
allows the aircraft to return to the base of intended landing or alternate using preplanned recovery parameters and arriving with normal recovery fuel
7
Q
Normal Recovery Fuel
A
fuel on initial or at the FAF; established locally or 800 lbs, whichever is higher
8
Q
Minimum Fuel
A
600 lbs
9
Q
Emergency Fuel
A
400 lbs
10
Q
Taxi Interval
A
150 ft staggered
300 ft in trail
May be reduced when holding short of or entering a runway
11
Q
Taxiing with Ice or Snow
A
taxi on the center line with a minimum of 300 ft spacing
12
Q
When do you remove the pins?
A
once clear of the aircraft parking area, but not later than completion of the before takeoff checklist
13
Q
After the before-takeoff checks have been completed and prior to takeoff, flight members will ____.
A
inspect accompanying aircraft for proper configuration and any abnormalities
14
Q
Place the wingman on the ___ side if the crosswind exceeds __
A
upwind, 5 kts
15
Q
Do not takeoff when the RCR is less than ___
A
10
16
Q
Do not takeoff if the computed takeoff roll exceeds
____% (single ship or interval)
____% (formation)
of the available runway
A
80%, 70%
17
Q
Formation takeoffs are restricted to elements of ___
A
2 aircraft
18
Q
Do not make formation takeoffs when: (3 things)
A
Runway width is less than 150 ft
Standing water, ice, slush, or snow on the runway
Crosswind or gust component exceeds 15 kts
19
Q
Takeoff interval will be a minimum of __
A
10 sec
20
Q
Takeoff interval will be increased to a minimum of ___ when the join-up is to be accomplished on top
A
20 sec
21
Q
Day weather criteria for a VFR join-up underneath a ceiling is ___
A
1500ft and 3 mi vis
22
Q
Flight leads will maintain ___ until join-up
A
300 kts
23
Q
Flight leads will not normally exceed ___ deg of bank
A
30 deg
24
Q
For a straight-ahead rejoin, 2 will join on the ___
A
left
25
For a turning rejoin, 2 will join ___
on the inside of the turn
26
Minimum altitude for low altitude maneuvering
500 ft AGL
27
Aircraft will not descend below ___ during any portion of aerobatic maneuvering
5000 ft AGL
28
Minimum airspeed for all maneuvering
150kts
29
When are ops checks are required?
1) during climb after takeoff
2) after level-off after takeoff
3) before each engagement or intercept
4) before entering air-to-surface range
5) once while on the range if multiple passes are made
6) after departing the range
30
Minimum items to check in the ops check
1. Engine instruments
2. fuel quantities
3. fuel balance
4. G-suit connection (when appropriate)
5. oxygen system
6. cabin altitude
31
For formation flights, reset ____ between ops checks
G meter
32
G-awareness exercise must be conducted any time aircrews plan or are likely to maneuver above ___
5 Gs
33
During a GX, maintain a minimum of ____ separation
4000ft between aircraft
34
Preface all radio communications with what?
complete flight call sign
35
Use a KIO call when?
when safety of flight is a factor
36
Maximum flight size in IMC
4 aircraft
37
Do not use rolling maneuvers below ___ AGL
5000ft AGL
38
Flight leads will not break up formations until each pilot has what?
a positive fix from which to navigate
39
Minimum altitude for lead changes
500ft AGL over land
1000ft AGL over water
1500ft AGL in IMC
40
Do not initiate lead changes with the wingman ___
further aft than a normal fingertip or route position
| greater than 30 deg aft from line abreast
41
Minimum altitude separation in a double blind situation
500 ft
42
Who is responsible for flightpath deconfliction?
wingman
43
In what cases does the flight lead become responsible for deconfliction?
1. tac maneuvering places lead in the wingman's blind cone
| 2. wingman calls blind and is acknowleged by lead
44
Chase aircraft will not stack lower than lead below ___ AGL
1000ft AGL
45
the chase cone is defined as
30 to 60 deg cone out to 1000ft
46
T-38 is what approach category?
Cat E
47
Cat D minimums may be used if
1. straight-in approach
2. final approach airspeed of 165 KIAS or less
3. aircraft is flown at 260 KTAS or less during missed approach
48
Instrument Trail departures will use ___ sec spacing
20 sec takeoff spacing minimum
49
Instrument Trail Departure climbout parameters:
AB power until reaching 250 KTS
MIL power until 300 KTS
climb at 300 KTS using 600 EGT
all turns made at 30 deg bank
50
During Instrument Trail Departure, ____ will call initiating all turns
flight lead
51
During Instrument Trail Departure climbs/descents, all aircraft will call ___
each 5000ft altitude increment with altitude and heading
52
During Instrument Trail Departure, aircraft will maintain ____ vertical separation
1000ft
53
Wingmen will not fly ____ or use ____ to gain separation during a VMC Drag
below final approach speed/use s-turns
54
Minimum spacing during a VMC drag is ___
3000ft minimum
55
The latest VMC drag point must allow for the wingman to ___ and the flight lead to slow to ___ not later than ___
establish required separation; final approach speed; 3nm from the runway
56
Are you allowed to fly in areas of known or reported icing?
No
57
You cannot climb/descend through icing conditions more severe than ___
forecast light rime
58
Low Level: if unable to visually acquire an obstacle, direct a climb no later than ____ nm prior, ensuring vertical separation by __nm from the obstacle
3; 2
59
Wingmen will not fly lower than lead below ___ AGL
1000ft AGL
60
Low level: crossing high/hilly terrain, maintain ___, not exceeding ___ deg of bank
positive G, 120 deg
61
Low level minimum airspeed
300 KTS
62
Low level: minimum distance from an obstacle
500 ft above the highest obstacle within 0.5 nm of the aircraft
63
Low level: set the altitude warning function to ___
no less than 90% of the planned altitude
64
Low level: immediate reaction to task saturation, diverted attention, KIO, or emergencies
climb to RAA or a prebriefed safe altitude (1000 AGL minimum)
65
Low level: Minimum altitudes during night or IMC operation
1000ft above the highest obstacle within 5nm of the course
66
WX minimum for visual low levels
1500ft and 3 miles vis
67
Taxi operations at night
centerline, 300ft spacing
68
Desired touchdown point is ___ from the threshold
150-1000ft
69
Minimum altitude for chase aircraft
300 AGL
70
During a go-around, maintain ___ ft below a VFR overhead traffic pattern
500
71
After a closed pull-up, plan to arrive on downwind between ___ and ___ kts
200, 240
72
Land at an alternate runway if the computed landing roll exceeds ___% of the available runway
80
73
Land at an alternate runway if the RCR is less than ___
10
74
Do not land over any ___
raised barrier
75
Solo wind limits
```
15 knots (dry)
10 knots (wet)
```
76
The minimum runway length for 60% and 100% flap TnGs on a runway without a barrier when crosswinds exceed 15 kts
10,000ft
77
Do not perform ____ TnGs with crosswinds over 15 kts
no flap
78
Do not taxi with ___, ___, ___, ___ issues
nosewheel steering, brake, canopy, generator
79
Always abort the mission for the following EPs:
birdstrike/FOD
over G
Flight control system anomalies
Engine flameout, stagnation, or shutdown
80
Solo students are restricted from the following maneuvers:
```
TP stalls, approach to stalls, slow flight
AHC maneuvers
practice recoveries
Practice lost wingman as wing
Rolling takeoffs
Practice emergency patterns and landings
Low closed or circling approaches
Formation landings
On the wing of another solo student
```
81
Solo takeoff wind limit
15 knots crosswind
82
solo landing wind limit
```
15 knots (dry runway)
10 knots (wet runway)
```
83
Solo students cannot fly patterns or landings with more than ___ pounds of fuel
2500
84
Solo student minimum fuel
800 lbs
85
Post-contact checkride solo students may climb and descend through IMC if ceiling is at/above ___ AGL or not more than ___ ft thick. Minimum inflight vis is ___ mi
5000 ft AGL, 2000ft thick, 5 mi
86
Use ___ (dual) or ___ (solo) to calculated TOLD
12,800lbs; 12,600lbs
87
Ensure the calculated takeoff roll is less than or equal to ___
TORA (Takeoff Run Available)
88
The percentage of takeoff distance restriction will be applied to the ___
runway dimensions, not TORA
89
Ensure the calculated Critical Field Length (CFL) is less than or equal to the ___
ASDA (Accelerate-stop distance available)
90
Solo students will ___ the aircraft at the EOR prior to removing or reinstalling their ejection seat and canopy safety pins
stop
91
Solo students will make a radio call to the controlling agency stating what prior to takeoff?
ejection seat is armed
92
With controlled BAK-15
| DS < RS-EF
Use RS-EF as go/no go
93
With controlled BAK-15
| RS-EF < DS < TOS
Need OG approval
| Use TOS as go/no go
94
With controlled BAK-15
| TOS < DS
not authorized
95
Without BAK-15
| DS < RS-BEO
Use RS-BEO as go/no go
96
Without BAK-15
| RS-BEO < DS < RS-EF
Need OG approval
| Use RS-EF as go/no go
97
Without BAK-15
| RS-EF < DS
Not authorized
98
With raised BAK-15
| DS <= RS-EF
Use RS-EF as go/no go
99
With raised BAK-15
| RS-EF < DS < TOS
Need OG approval
| Use SETOS as go/no go
100
With raised BAK-15
| TOS < DS
Not authorized
101
Ensure calculated landing distance is less than or equal to ___
LDA (Landing Distance Available)
102
When calculated landing distance is less than LDA, pilots can use the ___ for landing
actual runway length
103
When using the actual runway length for landing distance calculations, the ___% landing distance restriction will be applied to ___
80%, runway length (not LDA)
104
Single-ship rolling takeoffs are authorized during ___ hours only
daylight
105
With a rolling takeoff, consider TOLD with a runway length ___ ft less
300ft
106
When on a runway with a remotely controlled arresting system, pilots must remain on what freq? Until when?
The freq of the person controlling the barrier
| Until safely airborne
107
Minimum runway length required is ____ft
| OG may approve ops on ___ft
8000ft
| 7000ft
108
Use at least __ft of wingtip clearance for engine run-up with a solo in any position
50ft
109
Perform stalls and slow flight between ___ and ___ altitude. Set no less than ___% RPM
8000AGL and FL200
| 80%
110
Minimum altitude for unlimited air combat maneuvering (ACBT)
5000 AGL
111
Minimum altitude for aerobatic maneuvers
8000 AGL
112
Accomplish practice nose high recoveries or instrument unusual attitudes below ____ and in ___
FL240, VMC
113
When flying above FL350:
use the minimum ___
Do not fly ___
minimum Mach number
| formation
114
Do not fly above ____ except in an emergency
FL390
115
No practice no-flap patterns and landings with more than ___lbs fuel
2500lbs
116
No practice ______ circling approaches or overhead patterns
single-engine
117
No practice ____ full stop landings
no flap
118
No practice ___ roll landings
minimum
119
No formation ___ landings
TnG
120
No ___ or ___ patterns immediately after initial takeoff
closed or low closed
121
The GX consists of two turns at a minimum:
___deg at __G
___deg at __G
90 deg at 4G
| 180 deg at 5G
122
Perform a GX whenever an excess of ___ Gs is expected
4
123
GX requires a ___ to be performed
discernible horizon
124
Maximum flight size
4 aircraft
125
____ maneuvers will not be flown in close trail
over-the-top
126
Chase aircraft will low-approach no lower than ___
300AGL
127
Do not fly in ___ or ___ icing conditions
known, reported
128
Do not cruise in ___ icing conditions
forecasted
129
Pilot Weather Category (PWC) 1 Minimums
Suitable published minimums
130
Pilot Weather Category (PWC) 2 Minimums
published mins, or 300' ceiling and 1 mile vis (5000RVR), whichever is greater
131
Do not commence a STAR, penetration, en route descent, or approach unless existing ___ and ___ meet requirements
ceiling, visibility
132
After commencing a STAR/penetration/en route descent/radar vectors for an approach/established on an approach and weather is below ceiling and vis minimums, the pilot ___
may continue
133
The pilot may descend below the decision height or MDA if
1) ___
2) ___
1) aircraft is in a position to make a normal approach
2) pilot can clearly see the approach threshold of the runway, approach lights, or other markings identifiable with the approach end of the runway
134
max airspeed for low-levels
420 kts
135
minimum altitude for VFR point to point navigation
3000 AGL
136
Only flight night overhead patterns at ___
home base
137
All night landings require ___
operational glidepath guidance
138
Maximum crosswind for single-ship TnGs
25 kts (dry runway)
139
Extended daylight period defined as
15 min prior to official sunrise to 15 min past official sunset
140
Local training flights are not permitted over land when steady state surface winds (forecast or actual) in training or operating areas exceed ___ kts
35kts
141
Initiate a simulated single-engine go-around by ___AGL (___AGL if full flaps are used)
100AGL, 300AGL
142
Do not start a Split S or aerobatic maneuver, or continue an over-the-top maneuver when the apex is below ____AGL
18000 AGL
