GOM and Maintenance Flashcards

1
Q

What items must be included in the pilot flight kit?

A
Company manuals (iPad).
Appropriate aeronautical charts (iPad - LIDO).
Flashlight.
Other information needed for the flight.
Must be kept current by the user.
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2
Q

What items must be carried on board a GoJet flight in hard copy?

A
1 - Normal checklist.
2 - Immediate action checklist.
3 - Aircraft maintenance flight log.
4 - Airworthiness certificate.
5 - Aircraft registration.
6 - QRH Volume 1.
7 - QRH Volume 2.
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3
Q

What items must be carried on board a GoJet flight in electronic form?

A

1 - Minimum Equipment List (MEL).
2 - Nonessential Equipment Furnishings (NEF).
3 - Configuration Deviation List (CDL).
4 - Airplane Flight Manual (AFM).

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4
Q

When must a departure aircraft initiate a return to the gate after an on aircraft delay time period?

A

3 hours for domestic operations.
4 hours for international operations.

The exception is if ATC advises otherwise or the PIC determines a safety related reason.

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5
Q

How must the passengers be treated during an on aircraft delay?

A

They must be briefed every 20 minutes, even if there is no new information.
A food and beverage service must be served prior to 2 hours.

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6
Q

How many items may a passenger bring into the cabin?

A

Two. One personal item and one carry on baggage item.

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7
Q

How much is a passenger’s personal and carry on baggage items considered to weigh?

A

Nothing. The weight is considered in the standard passenger weights.

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8
Q

How much is checked baggage, or a carry on item carried outside of the cabin considered to weigh?

A

35 lb.

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9
Q

What is the maximum an article, such as a cello, carried on a passenger seat can weigh?

A

165 lb.

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10
Q

What is the required output of a GPU?

A

115 amps. AC only.

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11
Q

When must a wing walker be present for taxi?

A

If there is less than 5 ft but at least 3 ft obstacle clearance.

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12
Q

What is the minimum obstacle clearance for taxi without the requirement for a wing walker?

A

5 ft.

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13
Q

How much is checked baggage considered to weigh?

A

35 lb unless the article is obviously heavier in which case it is 58 lb.

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14
Q

How is checked baggage weighing 100 lb or more handled?

A

It becomes air freight and is weighed for an exact weight.

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15
Q

What determines the maximum take-off weight for a particular flight?

A

The lesser of the structural take-off, structural landing and performance limited weights.

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16
Q

What is the standard passenger weight for an adult?

A

Summer (May 1 - Oct 31) - 200 lb.
Winter (Nov 1 - Apr 30) - 205 lb.

This weight includes a carry on bag and a personal item.

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17
Q

What is the standard passenger weight for a child?

A

Summer (May 1 - Oct 31) - 89 lb.
Winter (Nov 1 - Apr 30) - 94 lb.

This weight includes carry on and personal items.

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18
Q

When must actual passenger weights be used?

A

If it is determined that a significant group of passengers obviously exceeds the standard passenger weights.
AND
On all charter flights.

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19
Q

What are the average weights for crew members?

A

Flight crew - 238 lb.
Flight attendants - 223 lb.
Additional crew member - 254 lb (flight deck) / 225 lb (aft cabin)

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20
Q

How much is a pilot kit considered to weigh?

A

17 lb, but they are included in the basic operating weight.

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21
Q

How much is a flight attendant kit considered to weigh?

A

15 lb, but it is included in the basic operating weight.

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22
Q

How much are crew overnight bags considered to weigh?

A

27 lb, these are not included in the basic operating weight, but are usually stored in the cabin overhead bins near the emergency exit.

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23
Q

What items are included in the basic operating weight?

A
1 - Basic Empty Weight.
2 - Crew.
3 - Lav water, forward and aft potable water.
4 - Flight kits.
5 - Galley supplies.
6 - GoJet publications.
7 - Miscellaneous items.
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24
Q

Are passengers able to board, deplane or remain on board during fuelling operations?

A

Yes, provided it is pressure fuelled and:
1 - Passengers and are advised and no smoking.
2 - No smoking signs on.
3 - Main cabin door open.
4 - FA must be on board and near the main cabin door.
5 - Passengers must have seatbelt undone and aisles are clear.
6 - Crew must operate under a constant state of fuelling service.

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25
Q

Are passengers able to remain on board during gravity fuelling operations?

A

Yes, provided when fuelling the left tank the aircraft is connected to a jet bridge.

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26
Q

Can the GPU be connected during fuelling operations?

A

If the GPU is connected, it must remain connected, or if not connected must remain disconnected until fuelling has finished.

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27
Q

Can fuelling operations occur with the engines running?

A
Yes, provided that:
1 - Only the flight crew are onboard.
2 - It is the left engine only.
3 - It must be pressure (single point) fuelled.
4 - Must be facing into wind.
5 - Main aircraft door must remain open.
6 - No baggage can be loaded.
7 - A fire guard with an extinguisher must be posted.
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28
Q

When must you advise of an expired/renewed medical certificate?

A

On the 25th day of the month the certificate expired.

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29
Q

How often is a medical certificate required to be renewed?

A

6 months for CA over 40, otherwise 12 months.

6 months for FO over 60, otherwise 12 months.

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30
Q

What restrictions apply to a ‘high mins’ captain?

A

The MDA or DH and visibility landing minima must be increased by 100 ft and 1/2 sm, however these values can never be lower than 300 ft and 1 sm.

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31
Q

When is a First Officer not authorised to conduct a take-off or landing?

A

1 - Below CAT I IFR minimums.
2 - Runway is less than 4500 ft.
3 - Runway is Code 2 or less (POOR or NIL).
4 - Captain’s discretion.

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32
Q

What restrictions apply to a FO how has not acquired 100 hours of experience?

A
Cannot take-off or land:
1 - At special use airports.
2 - Visibility less than 3/4 sm / RVR less than 4000 ft.
3 - Runway is contaminated.
4 - Runway code 4 or less (GOOD to MEDIUM).
5 - Crosswind exceeds 15 kt.
6 - Windshear is reported.
7 - Captain’s discretion.
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33
Q

How early or late from a scheduled departure time can a flight depart without approval from dispatch?

A

10 minutes before and 10 minutes after.

34
Q

When must the CA declare a fuel emergency?

A

When the projected fuel remaining is 30 minutes or less after landing at the nearest suitable airport.

35
Q

What defines a contaminated runway?

A

More than 25% of the runway is covered by frost, ice, any depth of snow, slush or water.

36
Q

What defines a damp or wet runway?

A

Damp - Not perfectly dry but the runway does not give a shiny appearance. It is considered dry for performance purposes.
Wet - Runway has up to an 1/8 inch of water covering the surface.

37
Q

What is the minimum aircraft equipment required for operations in RVSM airspace?

A

One autopilot.
One altitude alerting system.
Two altitude reporting transponders (only one is required to be working).
Two air data computers.

38
Q

What must be checked prior to flight with respect to RVSM compliance?

A

1 - No maintenance defects.
2 - RVSM critical area is clear.
3 - The altimeters must read within 75 ft of field elevation.

39
Q

When must the altimeters be checked during flight in RVSM airspace?

A

Upon initial entry and at the top of every hour thereafter.

40
Q

What does Systems Operations Control comprise of?

A

Crew scheduling, maintenance and dispatch.

41
Q

Who is responsible for operational control of the airline?

A

The Director of Flight Operations.

42
Q

What kind of approaches are authorised?

A

All but NDB.

43
Q

What are the lowest IFR take-off minimums?

A

600/600/600 RVR.

Need HIRL, CL lights.

44
Q

When is a take-off alternate required? What are the limitations on selection?

A

If weather conditions at the departure airport are below the captain’s authorized landing minimums or operational reasons preclude a return.
The alternate must be within one hour at normal cruise in still air with one engine inoperative (which for all intents and purposes is 250 nm).

45
Q

When is a destination alternate required?

A

If weather conditions at the destination within one hour either side of the ETA indicate the ceiling is below 2000 ft and the visibility is less than 3 sm.

46
Q

When is a second alternate required?

A

If the weather is marginal.

47
Q

What is marginal weather?

A

The destination ceiling is forecast to be less than 1000 ft AND the visibility is less than 3 sm.
AND
The first alternate airport cleaning is forecast to be less than 600 ft AND the visibility less than 2 sm.

48
Q

What are the meteorological minimum requirements for an alternate airport?

A

Derived or better.

49
Q

How are derived minimums calculated?

A

If the airport has 1 navigation facility providing 1 IAL - Add 400 ft and 1 sm to the landing minimums.

If the airport has 2 separate navigation facilities, with 2 IALs to 2 different and suitable runways - Add 200 ft and 1/2 sm to the higher landing minimums.

50
Q

What is the purpose of exemption 17347?

A

To allow an aircraft to be dispatched, when the destination and alternate TAFs contain conditional language that forecasts conditions that would normally prevent dispatch.

51
Q

To use exemption 17347, what conditions must exist at the destination, first and second alternate airports?

A

Destination - The main body of the TAF must be above the alternate minimums, but the conditional language must be at least a half of the minimum visibility for the IAL to be used.
First Alternate - The main body of the TAF must be above the derived minimums, but the conditional language must be at least 1/2 of the ceiling AND visibility of the derived minimums.
Second Alternate - The main body of the TAF AND any conditional language must be above the derived minimums (i.e. no exemption).

52
Q

Who has operational control over a flight?

A

Dispatch.

53
Q

How much are carry on bags for ACM or Authorized Persons occupying a jump seat considered to weigh?

A

44 lb, but is included in the average crew weight.

54
Q

What defines ‘Bingo Fuel’?

A

The sum of the fuel required to proceed to the destination plus the alternate plus 45 minute reserve.
Important for holding.
At bingo, must go to either alternate or destination.
Below bingo must proceed to alternate airport.

55
Q

When must a captain declare ‘minimum fuel’?

A

When committed to land at a specific airport, any change to an acknowledged clearance may result in landing with less than 45 minutes of fuel.

56
Q

How far should a thunderstorm be avoided?

A

20 no.

57
Q

You notice a dent in the RVSM critical area. What should you do?

A

Check the MX-50 to see if it has been recorded. If not call maintenance.

58
Q

What is the maximum allowable difference between the two altimeter readings when operating in RVSM airspace?

A

200 ft.

59
Q

How do you know if you are paired with a ‘high mins’ captain?

A

There is a ‘H’ next to the captains name on the OFP.

60
Q

What does the ‘W’ on the flight notification on the OFP indicate?

A

The aircraft is RVSM capable.

61
Q

Where would you find a list of all approved airports for GoJet’s operations?

A

OPS SPECS C070

62
Q

When may captain accept a LAHSO?

A

Dry runway.
1500 ft ceiling and 5 sm visibility.
No windshear within the last 20 minutes.

63
Q

What is a MEL?

A

Minimum Equipment List.
MEL is intended to permit operations with inoperative items of equipment for a period of time until the items can be repaired.

64
Q

What is a CDL?

A

Configuration Deviation List.

A list of items that may be missing but permit operations.

65
Q

What is a NEF?

A

Non Essential Furnishings.

A list of

66
Q

What is a DMI?

A

A deferred maintenance item.

Identified by a bright orange sticker these note any MELs or CDLs.

67
Q

When do MELs expire?

A

Based on St. Louis time.

68
Q

What are the categories of MELs and their extension periods?

A

A - Within a specified timeframe.
B - Up to 3 days.
C - Up to 10 days.
D - Up to 120 days.

69
Q

What are the categories of NEF and their extension periods?

A
1 - 10 days.
2 - 20 days.
3 - 30 days.
4 - 120 days.
5 - 180 days.
70
Q

How many static dischargers are installed on the CRJ550?

A

31.

71
Q

How many static dischargers can be missing?

A

6 in total.

72
Q

Where are recorded damages to RVSM areas found?

A

In the log can on an MX-50 form.

73
Q

How long before commencing duty must a pilot refrain from consuming alcohol?

A

12 hours.

74
Q

During taxi out, when must you inform the company of a ground delay?

A

After 15 minutes.

75
Q

What configuration should be selected for taxi when snow, slush or ice is present?

A

Flaps/slats at zero.

76
Q

What do maintenance codes 1, 2 and 3 mean?

A

1 - Board and service, expect no delay.
2 - Service only,
3 - No servicing or boarding.

77
Q

What is the maximum dry ice limitations?

A

5.5 lb per passenger.

441 lb total.

78
Q

Maximum holding speeds?

A

200 kt up to 6000 ft.
230 kt 6000 ft to 14000 ft.
265 kt above 14000 ft.

79
Q

Maximum speed for ADG operation?

A

VMO/MMO.

80
Q

Minimum engine oil for dispatch?

A

17% engine running.

40% engine stopped.

81
Q

What are the standard take-off minimums?

A

1 nm or 5000 RVR

82
Q

When should tailwind take-offs not be attempted?

A

Contaminated runways.
Visibility is below standard take-off minimums.
Aircraft stopping ability is degraded.