Gleim Flashcards

1
Q

A member of the AICPA owns an interest in a separate business that performs tax services. If the member does not control the business, who must comply with the Code of Professional Conduct?

A

The member only.

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2
Q

In which of the following situations is there a violation of client confidentiality under the AICPA Code of Professional Conduct?

A

A member whose practice is primarily bankrupty discloses a client’s name. Can only disclose information if:
(1) comply with a valid subpoena or summons or with applicable laws and regulations
(2) discharge his or her professional obligations
(3) cooperate in an official review of his or her professional practice
(4) initiate a complaint with or respond to any inquiry made by an appropriate investigative or disciplinary body.

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3
Q

A CPA purchased stock in an audit client corporation and placed it in a revocable educational trust for the CPA’s dependent minor child. The trust securities were not material to the CP but were material to the child’s personal net worth. Is the independence of the CPA considered to be impaired with respect to the client?

A

Yes, because the stock is considered a direct financial interest and, consequently, materiality is not a factor.

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4
Q

When is the independence of the CPA auditor of a client company’s financial statements most likely to be impaired because of involvement in litigation?

A

Shareholders of the client bring a class action against the client, its management, and the CPA. The CPA files a cross-claim against management alleging fraud.

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5
Q

Fact Pattern: A CPA firm was purchased by a public company. The acquirer performs other professional services and has banking, insurance, and brokerage subsidiaries. The owners and employees became employees of a subsidiary. Also, the previous owners formed a new CPA firm that provides attest services. It leases employees, offices, and equipment from the parent, which also provides advertising, billing, and collection services.

In the alternative practice structure (APS) of which the new firm is a part, covered members are closely aligned with other persons and entities. Who is subject to the same independence rules as covered members?

A

An employee leased by the firm from the parent.

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6
Q

A violation of the profession’s ethical standards is most likely to occur when a CPA who

A

Maintains a separate, distinct practice forms an association with other CPAs for joint advertising, and the group practices public accounting under the association’s name.

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7
Q

In which of the following circumstances would a covered member’s independence be impaired with respect to a nonissuer client?

A

The member owns municipal utility bonds issued by a client, and the bonds are not material to the member’s wealth.

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8
Q

Adams is the executive partner of Adams & Co., CPAs. One of its smaller clients is a large nonprofit charitable organization. The organization has asked Adams to be on its board of directors, which consists of a large number of the community’s leaders. Membership on the board is honorary. Adams & Co. would be considered to be independent

A

As long as Adams does not perform or give advice on management functions of the organization.

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9
Q

Fenn & Co., CPAs, has time available on a computer that it uses primarily for its own internal recordkeeping. Aware that the computer facilities of Delta Equipment Co., one of Fenn’s audit clients, are inadequate for the company’s needs, Fenn offers to maintain on its computer certain routine accounting records for Delta. If Delta were to accept the offer and Fenn were to continue to function as independent auditor for Delta, Fenn most likely would be in violation of

A

Both SEC and AICPA provisions pertaining to auditors independence.

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10
Q

The profession’s ethical standards most likely are violated when a CPA represents that specific consulting services will be performed for a stated fee and it is apparent at the time of the representation that the

A

A representation that specific services will be performed for a stated fee, when it is likely at the time that the actual fee will be substantially higher, is a prohibited form of solicitation.

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11
Q

Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 provisions are:

A
  1. Auditors may not provide specific nonaudit services for their audit clients.
  2. The act provides criminal penalties for fraud.
  3. Executives must certify the appropriateness of the financial statements.
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12
Q

The Code of Professional Conduct contains Principles that guide all members of the AICPA. A commitment to act for the benefit of clients, creditors, investors, and others is most directly embodied in which Principle?

A

The public interest.

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13
Q

The AICPA’s Code of Professional Conduct includes a Form of Organization and Name Rule. It states that a member may practice public accounting only in a form or organization allowed by law or regulation that conforms with resolutions of the AICPA Council. Assume that a CPA firm is part of an alternative practice structure (APS) in which the firm is a subsidiary of another entity. Which attribute prevents a member of the AICPA from practicing public accounting in the APS?

A

Non-CAs own a majority of the firm’s financial interests.

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14
Q

Which of the following areas of professional responsibility should be observed by a CPA not in public practice?

A

1) Objectivity - Yes
2) Independence - No

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15
Q

A CPA who is employed by a manufacturing corporation performs financial services for the employer. Reports issued with respect to such activities are distributed with the CPA’s name and CPA designation appearing on the corporate letterhead. These reports should

A

Not refer to GAAS.

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16
Q

According to the PCAOB, an accounting firm’s independence is least likely to be impaired if the firm

A

A. Provides a service to the audit client for a contingent fee.
B. Receives a commission from the audit client.
C. Provides tax services to a person in a financial reporting oversight role at the audit client.

Answer: Has an audit client that employs a former firm professional.

17
Q

Which of the following items should be included in prospective financial statements issued in an attestation engagement performed in accordance with Statements on Standards for Attestation Engagement

A

All significant assumptions used to prepare the financial statements.

18
Q

For an agreed-upon procedures compliance attestation engagement, the practitioner is least likely to obtain an understanding of the specified requirements through

A

Evaluation of management’s written assertion about compliance.

19
Q

A practitioner is considering accepting an engagement to examine prospective financial statements (PFSs). If they include a projection that does not identify the hypothetical assumptions, the practitioner should

A

Not accept the engagement.

20
Q

Which of the following is a prospective financial statement for general use upon which a practitioner may appropriately report?

A

Financial forecast

21
Q

Which of the following standards should a CPA firm apply in a review of pro forma financial information?

A

Statements on Standards for Attestation Engagements.

22
Q

Prospective financial information presented in the format of historical financial statements that omit either gross profit or net income is deemed to be a

A

Partial presentation

23
Q

A practitioner may accept a compliance attestation engagement to perform

A

1) Agreed Upon Procedures
2) Examination

24
Q

According to the AICPA Statements on Standards for Attestation Engagements, a public accounting firm should establish quality control policies to provide assurance about which of the following matter related to agreed-upon procedures engagements?

A

The practitioner is independent from the engaging party.

25
Q

Given one or more hypothetical assumptions, a responsible party may prepare, to the best of its knowledge and belief, an entity’s expected financial position, results of operations, and cash flows. Such prospective financial statements are known as

A

Financial Projections

26
Q

An attestation review engagement typically consists not only of inquiries and analytical procedures but also of procedures such as inspection, confirmation, and recalculation. An attestation review may heavily on analytical procedures because the subject matter may be

A

Less quantitative

27
Q

Which of the following representations may an accountant make implicitly when issuing a report on the compilation of a nonissuer’s financial statements?

A

The accountant is independent with respect to the entity.

28
Q

Which of the following is an element of a CPA firm’s quality control policies and procedures applicable to the firm’s accounting and auditing practice?

A

Engagement performance.

29
Q

The in-charge auditor for an audit of an issuer most likely has a supervisory responsibility to explain to the staff assistants

A

How the results of various auditing procedures performed by the assistants should be evaluated.

30
Q

An accountant is considering an engagement to compile the pro forma financial information (PFFI) of a nonissuer. The accountant may accept the engagement if

A

The underlying transaction or event was a change in capitalization.

31
Q

A company hires one of its board members, a CPA, to issue accounting reports for the company. Assuming any required disclosures are made, which of the following reports may the CPA issue without independence rules?

A

Compilations

32
Q

An accountant has been engaged to review a nonissuer’s financial statements but has been unable to obtain sufficient appropriate evidence to form a conclusion. The accountant should

A

Withdraw from the engagement and provide no further services concerning these financial statements.

33
Q

Prior to commencing the compilation of financial statements of a nonissuer, an accountant is required to

A

Obtain an understanding of any specialized financial reporting frameworks and practices used in the entity’s industry.