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Great Lakes Training > GLA indoc > Flashcards

GLA indoc Flashcards

0
Q

What personal documents must you be concerned about?

A
  1. ) medical, must be renewed by the 27th on the month it expires, given to the chief pilot by fax, mail, email, in person (no comat)
  2. ) address change within 72 hours of new domicile reporting,
  3. ) marital status
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1
Q

What are the personal items that need to be on board?

A
  1. ) headset with boom mic
  2. ) flashlight with 2 D cell batteries
  3. ) clipboard (with pax briefings on it)
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2
Q

What is GLA certificate number?

A

GLBA031A

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3
Q

What do you need in the trip envelope?

A 
Bag sheets
All WX packets
Load manifest
De-ice slips
Notice of armed individuals 
Dispatch release
Jumpseat requests
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4
Q

What is the 3-point brief?

A

“How” - how can I help you without hurting you
“When” - when do you need to move to the emergency exit, I will let you know when…
“Where” - where the emergency exit is located

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5
Q

Who can sit in the emergency exit row?

A

Be at least 15 years of age or older
Be willing an able to help assist in case of an emergency
Be able to speak and read English
Be able to receive and give commands

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6
Q

Will the FOM take precedence over the FARs?

A

Yes, if it is more restrictive. Fars will take precedence over FOM if there’s a discrepancy

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7
Q

Who do you need for a 121 operation?

A
  1. ) director of operations
  2. ) director of safety
  3. ) director of maintenance
  4. ) chief inspector
  5. ) chief pilot
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8
Q

What is GLA’s top priority?

A

Safety!

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9
Q

How long for FOM revisions? And how can you prove it?

A

Must send the revision acknowledgement form within 14 days
To documents administration
Mail, fax, drop box, or comat

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10
Q

How long for Jepp revisions and how can you prove it?

A

Jepp revisions 7 days, will be sent to the captain

No acknowledgement form needed

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11
Q

What information is needed to be on the aircraft before flight?

A 
Airworthiness certificate
Registration certificate
Radio license (GLA does not have this but a fleet certificate)
Operation limitations (FSM)
Weight and balance (supplemental binder)
QRH
FSM
APG (airport analysis manual)
No Carry On Baggage Manual
Ground/de-ice manual
CG calculator 
Jepp charts
Normal checklists
VFR sectional/WAC charts
Aircraft Logs
Supplemental Binder (3 STC's, aircraft specific W&B, Required Equipment List)
FSM
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12
Q

When do you need a full instrument approach briefing?

A

Called by PF no late than 20 miles prior to landing
When the weather is calling for
Les than 3,000 foot ceilings, less than 5 miles visibility and flights operating at night
Full instrument approach briefing is required

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13
Q

What are the 3 different types of checklists?

A 
Non response (n/r)
Verbal response (v/r)
Command response (c/r) - PNF calls and PF responds
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14
Q

What are the categories of checklists?

A 
Emergency memory items
Emergency items
Normal checklists
Abnormal checklists
Landing checklists
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15
Q

When do we NOT need to communicate with the company?

A 
Within 10 miles of an uncontrolled field
Atc requirements
Getting ATIS
Safety of flight
Over 100 miles from a station (monitor Arinc)
Frequency Congestion
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16
Q

What are the no carry on baggage allowance?

A

Seat for child
Overcoat
Umbrella
Reading material

Food
Assist device
Assist animal

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17
Q

How long do you have to file an information report?

A

Completed within 24 hours of an incident

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18
Q

When would you file an incident report?

A

Safety
Aircraft damage
Fueling issues
Exceptional employee effort

Flight delay in excess of 30 min (not caused by previous delay)
Injury
Return to gate
Missed trip

Diversion
Duty time problem
Deny boarding due to operational concerns
Passenger dispute

Others: near miss, aborted takeoff, damage to GLA equipment

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19
Q

What are the SIC duties and responsibilities?

A 
Manipulate controls
IFR and commercial recency
Comply with FARS
Exceptional employee effort
Navigational Performance (monitor)
Current knowledge
Operate the aircraft safely 
Weight and balance 
Supervise ground operations

Preflight/post flight
Efficient operation
Address change (72 hours)

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20
Q

Can handicapped individuals be seated in a exit row?

A

NO!

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21
Q

What can GLA not transport?

A

Medical oxygen bottles

Everything that is HAZMAT we cannot take besides exemptions

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22
Q

What are five hazmat exceptions?

A
  1. ) aviation fuel and oil provided it is in the tanks of the aircraft
  2. ) spare tire, if it is not over inflated
  3. ) hair curlers containing hydrocarbon gas, one per passenger, safety cover over the heating element, refills NOT allowed period!
  4. ) a mercurial barometer can be brought by a government official a long as it was notified to the PIC
  5. ) portable electronic devices a spare cell batteries as long as they are protected individually
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23
Q

How old are unaccompanied minors?

A

5-11 years old,

8 days - 5 years old must be accompanied by someone 14 years old or older

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24
Q

What age is considered adults?

A

12 years and older are considered adults

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25
Q

What is special handling?

A

Special handling is the “positive exchange of a person”

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26
Q

What is critical phase of flight?

A 
Below 10,000 feet MSL (except cruise)
All ground operations (unless working brake set and stopped)
Takeoff and landing
\+/- 1,000 feet of assigned altitude
Upon completion of descent checklist
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27
Q

Give examples that would violate sterile cockpit?

A

PA announcements
Non-essential communication
Use of personal electronic devices

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28
Q

The flight deck compartment door may be operated except when…?

A
  1. ) Aircraft is in motion on the ground
  2. ) Below 10,000 feet (or until reaching cruise altitude)
  3. ) Cannot be closed before takeoff until a final cabin check is done passengers are seated and personal items stowed aisle is free
  4. ) If closing the door excludes company or FAA check airman from viewing the flight deck
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29
Q

What are the 3 classes of jumpseat?

A
  1. ) Must Fly ( DOD, FAA, NTSB)
  2. ) Priority (company business)
  3. ) Space Available (Can be displaced)
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30
Q

When do you need a new dispatch release?

A 
Crew change
Release is more than 2 hours old
Aircraft change
Plane is on the ground more than 1 hour at an intermediate stop
Originating flight
Re-routes/flag stop
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31
Q

What are the items on a dispatch release?

A 
Flight number
Airports (destination, dep. intermediate) 
Tail number
Weather
IFR/VFR
Fuel Requirements
Flight Plan
MEL/CDL
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32
Q

Define aborted takeoff?

A

A takeoff will be considered aborted regardless of whether power was applied or not, if runway environment was entered (pass the hold short line)

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33
Q

What are the exceptions for returning to the gate?

A
  1. ) Initiated by ATC
  2. ) wildlife
  3. ) MEL procedure (maintenance) without exiting the aircraft, shutting down an engine
  4. ) PIC preorgative

Three parties are in agreement the flight can depart: Flight Crew, Dispatch, Maintenance Control

Thre

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34
Q

Regarding dispatch ammendments, what information is needed for PEN and INK changes?

A

Zulu Time
Name of dispatcher
PIC’s Initials
Name of the ground station if relayed

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35
Q

What are the items that cannot be PEN and INK changed on a dispatch release?

A

Crew Changes
Unscheduled landings
Tail number changes

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36
Q

What does SET stand for?

A

Single Engine Turn

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37
Q

How many people are required for a SET? And where are they positioned?

A

3 people,
someone by the terminal (gate agent)
Someone adjacent captains window
First Officer by the stairs, blocking the prop, keep from windmilling if needed

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38
Q

What are the seatbelt requirements for crew?

A

Each crewmember must remain at their stations (NEVER) get up unless bathroom breaks
Shall keep on shoulder harness and seatbelt securely fastened for takeoff and landing

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39
Q

When can crew and passengers use PED?

A

Flight Crew - Never (while in operation of duties, unless directly related to those duties)
Passengers - cannot be used below 10,000’

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40
Q

Are non-cass allowed to fly?

A 
Yes, if they present
Company ID
FAA Certificate
Medical Certificate
PIC approval
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41
Q

Can you smoke?

A

No, smoking is not allowed on ANY Great Lakes flight

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42
Q

What kind of operations is Great Lakes Authorized to conduct?

A

Supplemental
Domestic

NOT flag

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43
Q

When does search and rescue begin for Great Lakes flights?

A

30 minutes, Dispatch will start to track the flight

1 hour, search and rescue will begin and official agencies will be notified

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44
Q

Who has final authority over crew, and passengers?

A

PIC pilot in command

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45
Q

Who will you contact to start and end a shift?

A

Dispatch

via telephone or message

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46
Q

If you make an intermediate stop for 2 1/2 hours, what needs to be done?

A

Must be re-dispatched

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47
Q

How can you get a dispatch release?

A

Telefax, fax, orally (over the phone)

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48
Q

How long are trip envelopes (dispatch releases) kept for?

A

3 calendar months and second copy will be kept at station for 30 days

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49
Q

how many people are allowed on the airstairs?

A

only 1 at a time, unless special needs

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50
Q

Explain SET….

A 
# 2 engine running, passengers can be de-planed, and boarded 
flight crew and ground crew have to be in agreement it can be done safely
agreement should be done in the in-range call...
if safety is ever compromised flight crew will terminate SET, ground crew will signal for eng. # 2 shutdown if they feel unsafe
Passenger briefing shall be given, explaining about SET and do not run after loose articles
3 crew needed, SIC at the bottom of the air stairs (holding prop, helping passengers) ground agent adjacent to Captain window, gate agent by the terminal
Passengers shall be directed directly to the terminal
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51
Q

What things should be taken into consideration before conducting a SET?

A 
Small Children, several children with a guardian/parent
Special Needs travelers
Wind, especially gusty wind
Availability of ground Crew
Outside air Temperature
Hot starts and battery wear and tear
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52
Q

What is the weight of the flight crews overnight luggage?

A

30 lbs.

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53
Q

Explain the luggage weights regarding to baggage/cargo?

A 
gate checked - 20 lbs
gate checked - heavy 30 lbs
normal checked - 30 lbs
normal checked - heavy 60 lbs
Freight - over 100 lbs (actual weight)

CRS - Child Restraint System (Nothing)
Comat - actual weight
AOG - actual weight
AO

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54
Q

When is it required for a high mins sic takeoff?

A 
Special airports
Visibility less than or equal to 3/4 sm
RVR less than or equal to 4,000 ft
Windshear reported in vicinity of airport
X-wind exceeds 15 knots 
Braking action reported less than good
Runway contaminated
PIC prerogative
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55
Q

What do you do if you lose a medical?

A

Notify the director of operations, you will get a written letter to fly

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56
Q

Can prisoners use leg irons?

A

No, they must also not be secure to the aircraft

57
Q

How many staff required for prisoners?

A

Low risk

Under 4 hour flight one armed officer for 2 prisoners
Over 4 hour flight 2 Armed officers and no more than 2 prisoners

High risk
Any flight 2 officers with one prisoner
More than 2 prisoners one armed officer for that prisoner plus one additional prisoner

58
Q

Can passengers remain on board during intermediate stops? during refueling? Explain…

A

Yes!

  • at least one pilot must remain on board
  • identify themselves to passengers

Refueling:

  • passengers may deplane and board with right wing fueling only
  • pax must remain on board during left wing fueling
  • pax must be briefed that refueling will take place
  • means of communication between crew and ground crew
59
Q

What do you need to do during refueling? Explain…

A

Ensure the fuel truck is parked 3 feet from the aircraft

  • fuel hose not draped over wing
  • fuel truck brake is set and chocked
  • and fuel mat is being used
  • proper fuel is being used
  • no electrical motors or equipment within 10 feet of the aircraft

No electrical equipment or switches turned on
Cabin door has to remain open
No electronic devices will be used

60
Q

If people are on board can the crew leave?

A

No! One crew member must remain on board

61
Q

How far can crew be away from the aircraft with engines shut down?

A

One crew member must be near the aircraft no more than 50 feet away

62
Q

How long to wait after blood donation?

A

14 days

63
Q

How long to wait after getting a flu shot?

A

24 hours

64
Q

How long to wait after taking allergy/cold medicine?

A

12 hours

65
Q

When do we have to be ready to accept passengers?

A

First flight of the day 30 minutes

All other flights 20 minutes

66
Q

What are the crew limitations regarding food?

A

Crew cannot eat from the same menu item within 6 hours from the flight

67
Q

Who has operational control?

A
  1. ) President/CEO
  2. ) Director of Operations
  3. ) Chief Pilot
  4. ) Director of Systems Operational Control
  5. ) PIC
  6. ) Dispatchers
68
Q

What is 3585?

A

Allows us to dispatch a flight, for 121 operations with a second alternate when the conditional remarks (TEMPO) in a TAF wx forecast are below authorized landing minimums
3585 DOES NOT APPLY TO 135 OPS

69
Q

When can you deny boarding?

A

If the only remaining seat is an Exit row seat, and the passenger doesnt qualify to sit there. Passenger will be denied boarding

70
Q

How old is a lapchild?

A

No more than 2 years old

71
Q

What is the preferred location for a car seat?

A

Near a window seat, do not put in a exit row, in front of, or behind it
Car seat can be used for free

72
Q

what is the weight of a lap child? How about CRS children?

A

Nothing, Nothing

73
Q

Can GLA carry passengers with medical oxygen bottles?

A

No

74
Q

What are the MEL Categories?

A

Category A - Variable by MEL, cannot be extended
Category B - 3 days (72 hours)
Category C - 10 days (240 hours)
Category D - 120 days (2,880), cannot be extended

75
Q

What are our standard takeoff minimums?

A

1SM or equivalent 5,000 RVR, you must use RVR if reported
touchdown zone RVR is controlling

if published minimums are higher you must use them, unless a minimum climb gradient is published

oooooo

76
Q

What are GLA’s approved approaches?

A

4 - LOC, LOC-DME, LOC-BC, LOC-BC/DME
2 - ILS, ILS-DME
2 - VOR, VOR-DME
1 - NDB

77
Q

What do we need for a terminal VFR departure?

A

1.) Ceilings must be at least 1,000’
2.) Visibility at least 3 SM
3.) Must remain in VMC
4.) The airport does not have an ATC facility
5.) It is possible to obtain an IFR clearance
Must pick up IFR clearance within 50 NM

78
Q

What are the takeoff limitations for first officers?

A

Are authorized to go lower than standard takeoff minimums, no lower than the CAT 1 landing minimums of the departure runway

79
Q

What are the 4 types of airports authorized for operations?

A
  1. ) Regular Route
  2. ) Refueling
  3. ) Provisional
  4. ) Alternate
80
Q

What are the circling minimums?

A

Always category C minimums,

HAA - 450 - 1 1/2

81
Q

Where is the crew weight included in?

A

Basic Empty Weight

82
Q

How much does COMAT weigh?

A

actual weight

83
Q

How much does AOG weight?

A

Actual Weight

84
Q

what are RVR sensors are there and how many are controlling?

A

There are 4 RVR sensors:

  1. ) Touchdown Zone RVR
  2. ) MID RVR
  3. ) Rollout RVR
  4. ) Far End RVR

All controlling except far end

85
Q

What do we need to have with

touchdown zone RVR - 1200/ MID RVR 1200/ Rollout RVR 1000?

A

Must have one of the following
Daylight hours
RCLM, or HIRL, or CL

Nighttime hours
HIRL or CL

86
Q

Explain 60/70/80

A

No flight may land with a weight greater than max. performance allows

Have to be able to land within 60% of the favorable runway

But with winds and weather we will have a 60% suitable runway, if the suitable runway is more restrictive we find an alternate and use the alternate at 70% with that alternate

we can replace 60% suitable numbers with 80% numbers
BUT 80% suitable numbers cannot exceed 60% favorable

87
Q

What do we need for Terminal Area IFR operations, in Class G, or at an airport without an operating control tower?

A
  1. ) Served by an IAP
  2. ) Means for pilot to get equipment status
  3. ) Traffic Advisories
  4. ) Approved WX
  5. ) All NAV facilities must be operative
88
Q

Can we go with TDZ RVR 1000, MID RVR 800, ROLLOUT RVR 500?

A

No, because we need to go by the lowest RVR being reported, and we cannot takeoff below 600 RVR.

89
Q

Does CDL items need to be fixed?

A

No

90
Q

Explain contact approaches?

A
  1. ) Must be requested by pilot
  2. ) Clear of clouds
  3. ) reported visibility is at or above cat 1 non precision runway used or 1 mile whichever is greater
  4. ) The flight does not descend below the MEA/MSA or the FAF altitude as appropriate
91
Q

What are the Passenger average weights?

A

Summer (5/1-10/31)
Adult 184 LBS
Child (2-12) 76 LBS

Winter
Adult 189 LBS
Child 81 LBS

92
Q

What are the 5 categories of Op Specs?

A
  1. ) General
  2. ) Enroute Authority, Limitations and Procedures
  3. ) Terminal Instrument Procedures
  4. ) Maintenance Authority (not in our ops specs)
  5. ) Unknown
93
Q

In the absence of a schedule report time, what will it be? First flight of the day? And thereafter?

A

1 hour first flight of the day

45 min subsequent flight

94
Q

How long may items in these MEL categories be deferred?

A

Cat a,b,c,d

95
Q

How long shall crew members get for rest periods in a 7 consecutive day period?

A

24 hours

96
Q

Which exemption deals wth ac documents? Pilot documents?

A

10248 air craft documents

5560 pilot documents

97
Q

How much do you and your pilot weight?

A

420 LBS

98
Q

What are the turbulence levels?

A

Occasional, intermittent, continuous, chop

99
Q

what is ground icing?

A

when there’s visible moisture and below freezing

100
Q

Why do we not have lock in cabin door?

A

We are not a transport category aircraft, we are a commuter category aircraft

101
Q

Where are the emergency exits located?

A

4c, 6a, 6c

102
Q

what are some hazardous materials exemptions?

A 
Fuel for aircraft
oil for aircraft
hair curler hydro carbon (no containers)
spillable battery
non-spillable battery (if PIC is notified)
mercurial barometer (if PIC is notified)
103
Q

When do you do a pre-takeoff contamination check?

A

you are outside your holdover time, within 5 minutes too look at the wings and to go

104
Q

what is the pre-takeoff check?

A

the captain will look at 2 feet of the outboard wing on top of the surface (representative surface) before takeoff after getting de-iced

105
Q

what is the weight of the crs?

A

being used, no weight
checked 30 lbs
gate checked 20 lbs

106
Q

what is the show time for first flight of the day? subsequent flights?

A

1 hour, and 45 mins

107
Q

what do you need under 1600 RVR?

A

RCLM, CL, HIRL (either one)

108
Q

what do you need 1200 RVR/1200 RVR/1000 RVR?

A

RCLM or HIRL or CL (Daytime)

HIRL or CL (Night Time)

109
Q

When do you need to do a security search?

A 
Aircraft left unattended
First flight of the day
When there was a security breach
After a 12-5 operation to AOSSP
FSD (federal security director) iniative
After maintenance has been performed
110
Q

What do you need contact approaches?

A

Clear of clouds
requested by pilot
reported visibility is 1 SM or 5000 RVR for non precision runway used
flight does not descend below MEA/MSA

111
Q

What do you need for 1000 RVR/1000 RVR/ 1000 RVR?

A 
Operative CL (center line lights)
OR hirl and RCLM
112
Q

what do you need for 600 RVR/600 RVR/600 RVR?

A

CL AND HIRL

113
Q

Who has operational control?

A 
PIC 
Chief Pilot
Dispatchers
Director of systems operational control
President/CEO
Director of Operations
114
Q

what is the circling minimums?

A

Always category C, and 450-1 1/2

115
Q

what is drift down?

A

Option 1
positive slope to clear terrain and highest obstacle of 1,000 and and 5sm of the intended route to reach the airport of intended landing by 1,500 agl
Option 2
the flight path allows to clear terrain and obstructions from the cruise altitude to airport by 2,000 feet agl and 5SM

116
Q

how long do we have to revise FOM ?

A

14 days, and send the acknowledgement form into the dropbox

117
Q

Oxygen Requirements?

A

crew
10,000-12,000
more than 30 minutes crew must use oxygen
12,000 - +
oxygen must be provided to and used by each pilot during the entire flight

passengers
must descend to 14,000 feet or less within 4 minutes
if descend below 10,000 cant happen (due to MEA/MSA)
10,000-14,000
oxygen MUST be available to 10% of the passengers
14,000-15,000
oxygen MUST be available for 30% of the passengers
15,000 - +
oxygen must be available for all passengers

118
Q

Den runway 16 L is reporting td RVR 1100, mid RVR missing, rollout RVR 1000. Cl inop, hirl operational, rclm, serviceable may we depart from this runway?

A

Yes we can

119
Q

Regarding lower than standard yoked minimums for operations below what? A minimum of operative rvrs?
How many are controlling?

A

1,600, 2, all are controlling except far end

120
Q

What happens to the yellow copy of the aircraft log at the end of the days revenue flying?

A

Faxed to maintenance control

121
Q

What things require us to file an alternate?

A

1-10 things

122
Q

How far can we accept a visual approach for class e airspace?

A

35 nm

123
Q

Maximum indicated airspeed for procedure turn?

A

180 knots in 1900 far? 200 Knots for FAR

124
Q

When we fly a non precision. Approach the reported visibility drops below minimums. Under what conditions may we continue the approach?

A

If we are inside the FAF, or on the turn inbound on procedure turn

125
Q

What four thing can limit our landing weight?

A
  1. ) approach climb limit
  2. ) max structural limit
  3. ) brake energy
  4. ) runway field length
126
Q

Explain drift down..

A

Ehh..

127
Q

We are being dispatched to MSP with an eta of 0445z. The weather is as follows. Everything is working. What woukd be required for us to legally dispatch under these conditions weather TAF 280124 vrb03kt, 3/4sm, rabr, vv001, tempo 0406, 1/4sm, tsra vv001

A

? 1.2,3 rule need an alternate

128
Q

Derive the alternate minimums for mci the wknd is 160/10

What is the lowest forecast weather main body which will allow us to file mci as an alternate?

A

I said 500 1 1/4, should be 400-1

129
Q

You are hhh mins FO

Your captain is not a check airman name six conditions which prohibit a you from performing the takeoff and landing?

A

Svrwx brp

130
Q

GLA is not authorized to carry hazmat lost six exceptions?a

A

Ehh

131
Q

Weather forecast
TAF Kmsp 09008kt 3sm -r sct 030
Fm 110400 5sm -r bkn 015
Fm 110700 p6sm Skc

Eta is 0315
May we dispatch? If so how? If not why not?

A

An alternate

132
Q

List three critical phases of flight?

A

Ehh

133
Q

Explain 3585…

A

visibility is the controlling factor for the destination..
look at temporary in TAF within an hour it has to be 50% lower than required visibility of the expected approach (suitable approach)
1st Alt: 50% lower than derived minimums, ceiling and visibility from the TAF
2nd Alt: At or above minimums NO EXEMPTIONS (TEMP does not matter)
All alternates will be from derived minimums
Main body of TAF has to be at or above the minimums, which will be 1/2 mile due to ILS approach
ALWAYS will be 2 alternates with 3585

134
Q

Explain Hold Over times….

A

It is the estimated time the application of de-icing/anti-icing fluid will prevent the formation of frost, snow, ice on the treated surfaces of an aircraft
The time starts when the beginning FINAL APPLICATION of deice fluid begins
expires after deice fluid loses its effectiveness (described in holdover time chart)
140 degrees heated at nozzle
Temp of fluid heat 160-180 degrees

135
Q

What are the takeoff performance limitations?

A
  1. ) Maximum Structural Weight
  2. ) Climb Limited Weight
  3. ) Runway Field Length
  4. ) Obstruction Limited Weight
  5. ) Brake Energy
  6. ) Tire Speed
136
Q

What are the options for the en-route performance? (Drift Down)

A

Option 1: positive slope of at least 1,000 feet above and within 5 SM from all terrain and obstructions, and a positive slope of 1,500’ above the airport where the airplane is assumed to land after and engine failure
Option 2: Requires a net flight path that allows to continue flight from cruise altitude to where a landing can be made, clearing all terrain and obstructions within 5 SM horinzontall, and 2,000 vertically with a positive slope at 1,500 above the airport

137
Q

When can we cancel IFR?

A

VFR conditions

Be able to maintain altitude

138
Q

IFR outside controlled airspace what do we need?

A

Approved weather
Approved IAP
Means to check status of services
Be able to get traffic advisories

139
Q

What is turbulence?

A

Change of attitude, dipping of wing

140
Q

What are the different turbulence levels and degree of turbulence?

A

Occasional - less than 1/3 of the time
Intermittent - 1/3 to 2/3 of the time
Continuous - more than 2/3 of the time
Chop - rapid and somewhat rhythmic bumps

141
Q

What are the turbulence categories?

A

Light - slight strain on seatbelt
Moderate - definite strain against seat belts
Severe - aircraft momentarily out of control violent strain on seatbelts
Extreme - impossible to control May cause structural damage

Great Lakes Training (11 decks)

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